94 - Neoplasia 3 Flashcards

(80 cards)

1
Q

*Four appearances of intraepithelial neoplasia

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Process that precedes many carcinomas

A

Intraepithelial neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most-common cancers

A

Carcinomas/epithelial cancers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Stages of intraepithelial neoplasia 1 2 3 4

A

1) Normal 2) Dysplasia (EG: simple columnar cell takes on several mutations) 3) In situ neoplasm 4) Invasive neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Stages of intraepithelial neoplasia 1 2 3 4

A

1) Normal 2) Dysplasia (EG: simple columnar cell takes on several mutations, increased mitotic activity, pleiomorphic nuclei. Changes are restricted to epithelial cells) 3) In situ neoplasm 4) Invasive neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Stages of intraepithelial neoplasia 1 2 3 4

A

1) Normal 2) Dysplasia (EG: simple columnar cell takes on several mutations, increased mitotic activity, pleiomorphic nuclei. Changes are restricted to epithelial cells) 3) In situ carcinoma (architecture is no longer organised) 4) Invasive neoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Appearance of dysplasic cells

A

Increased mitotic activity. Pleiomorphic nuclei Large nucleoli Premalignant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is in situ carcinoma?

A

When dysplasic cells become malignant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dysplasia

A

Abnormality of development; alteration in size, shape and organisation ofcells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Meaning of grades of dysplasia

A

Higher the grade -> more likely to progress to malignancy (grades 1, 2 and 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Grade 3 dysplasia

A

In situ carcinoma. Non-invasive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Differences between normal stratified squamous epithelium and squamous dysplasia

A

Dysplasic: Enlarged nuclei, pleomorphic nuclei, disorganised cells, increased proliferation, incomplete cellular maturation (should only have mitosis in basal layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Differences between normal stratified squamous epithelium and squamous dysplasia

A

Dysplasic: Enlarged nuclei, pleomorphic nuclei, disorganised cells, increased proliferation, incomplete cellular maturation (should only have mitosis in basal layer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do glandular dysplastic lesions arising from lining epithelium often form?

A

Polyps (protuberances of tissue into the lumen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Difference between hyperplasia and neoplasia

A

Hyperplasia is controlled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When can hyperplasia predispose to cancer?

A

Hyperplasia in certain situations can confer increased risk of malignancy (risk of mutations developing). NOT premalignant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When can metaplasia predispose to neoplasia?

A

Influences that lead to pathologic metaplasia can also predispose to malignant transformation of metaplastic epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Risk of intraepithelial neoplasias to become malignant

A

Reasonable risk (therefore considered premalignant). Greater risk than most other benign lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Risk of intraepithelial neoplasias to become malignant

A

Reasonable risk (therefore considered premalignant). Greater risk than most other benign lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Lymphadenopathy

A

Enlarged lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Examples of effects of metastases 1 2 3 4

A

– Local lymphadenopathy (draining to local lymph node) – Bone pain or features related to hypercalcaemia – Jaundice (to liver) – Seizures (if in brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Examples of effects of metastases 1 2 3 4

A

– Local lymphadenopathy (draining to local lymph node) – Bone pain or features related to hypercalcaemia – Jaundice (to liver) – Seizures (if in brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Malignancies often associated with weight loss, fever

A

Late-stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Where do TNFa and IL-1 come from in some cancers?

A

Produced by either tumour cells or cells in the tumour microenvironment (EG: macrophages)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Paraneoplastic effects
Effects of malignancy, not caused directly by tumour mass
26
Examples of paraneoplastic endocrine effects 1 2 3 4 5
1) Cushing's syndrome 2) Inappropriate ADH syndrome 3) Hypercalcaemia 4) Hypoglycaemia 5) Polycythaemia
27
Cushing's syndrome
ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone) release.
28
Hypercalcaemia in cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma releases parathyroid hormone-like substance.
29
Hypercalcaemia in cancer
Squamous cell carcinoma releases parathyroid hormone-like substance. Can lead to excessive breakdown of bone (increase osteoclast activity)
30
Immunological paraneoplastic effects 1 2 3 4
1) Dermatologic (rashes, lesions) 2) Neuropathy (injuries to nerves) 3) Inflammation of muscle (weakness) 4) Nephrotic syndrome
31
Paraneoplastic effects of lung cancer 1 2 3 4
Clubbing Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy Venous thrombosis Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
32
Paraneoplastic effects 1 2 3 4
1) Clubbing 2) Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy 3) Venous thrombosis 4) Non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
33
Local effects of primary lung cancer 1 2 3 4 5 6
1) Cough 2) Haemoptysis 3) Wheeze 4) Dyspnoea 5) Pneumonia 6) Pancoast's syndrome
34
Cancer that can lead to anaemia
Colon cancer (lose blood into colon)
35
Tests that can be useful in diagnosing cancers
1) Haemoglobin level 2) Liver function tests 3) Radiology (CXR, CT scan) 4) Endoscopy
36
Prostate specific antigen
Can be elevated in prostate, pancreatic cancer. Can also be elevated in non-malignant tumours, non-cancer conditions. Used in diagnosis, but is hard to use because of some non-specificity.
37
What can CXR be used for? 1 2 3
1) Investigation of primary cancer 2) Staging of cancer (progression) 3) Follow up (to see if there is remission, relapse, etc)
38
Tests that can be useful in diagnosing cancers 1 2 3 4
1) Haemoglobin level 2) Liver function tests 3) Radiology (CXR, CT scan) 4) Endoscopy
39
What can CXR be used for? 1 2 3
1) Investigation of primary cancer 2) Staging of cancer (progression) 3) Follow up (to see if there is remission, relapse, etc)
40
Uses of endoscopy
Visualisation and biopsy of suspicious-looking lesions
41
Anatomical pathologist
Specialises in looking at biopsy results under a microscope, diagnosing cancers.
42
Samples essential for diagnosis of cancer
Histopathological specimens
43
Two principle ways to biopsy a tumour
1) Histopathology 2) Cytology
44
Histopathology
Take a piece of tissue, stain it (HE, immunohistochemistry). Can see tissue architecture.
45
Cytology
Take fine needle aspiration, exfoliative cytology (scrape cells from a surface). Place cells onto a slide. Can't see stroma, tissue architecture.
46
Examples of molecular, cytogenic techniques for diagnosing cancers 1 2 3 4
1) In situ hybridisation 2) PCR 3) Chromosomal rearrangements 4) Flow cytometry
47
Cytologic tissue sampling in lung tumours 1) 2) 3) 4)
• Sputum • Bronchial brush and wash at bronchoscopy • Endobronchial ultrasound transbronchial aspiration (EBUS-TBNA) • FNA under radiological guidance for more peripheral lesions
48
Tissue/histopathology specimens for diagnosing lung tumours 1) 2) 3) 4)
• Tissue core biopsy for peripheral lesions • Surgical resection specimen (if performed) • H&E • Immunohistochemistry: may help distinguish primary from metastatic lesions
49
Things we need to know once diagnosis of malignancy is made 1 2 3 4
• Specific tumour type and subtype (cell lineage) • Grade • Stage • Presence of lymphovascular invasion
50
Two broad groups of lung cancers
Non-small cell Neuroendocrine
51
Neuroendocrine carcinomas
Show features of neuroendocrine cells.
52
Small cell carcinoma
Very aggressive neuroendocrine cardcinoma
53
Main types of non-small cell carcinomas
Squamous cell carcinoma, adenocarcinoma, large-cell (undifferentiated) carcinoma
54
Most-common cancer in smokers and non smokers
Adenocarcinomas
55
Pre-neoplastic changes in squamous cell carcinoma (lung) 1 2 3 4
Stratified squamous cell epithelium present (in smokers) Large, pleomorphic nuclei. Necrosis Invasive
56
Pre-neoplastic changes in squamous cell carcinoma (lung) 1 2 3 4
Stratified squamous cell epithelium present (in smokers) Large, pleomorphic nuclei. Necrosis Invasive
57
Name for pre-malignancy of squamous cell carcinoma
Dysplasia-carcinoma sequence
58
Gross appearance of squamous cell carcinoma
Pale mass. Arise in main bronchi. Can form cavities.
59
Location of adenocarcinomas
In bronchiolar epithelial cells. More peripheral. Not in main airways.
60
Desmoplasia
When a lot of the tumour isn't actually neoplastic cells, but stroma.
61
What determines how hard a tumour is?
Degree of desmoplasia (amount of stroma)
62
Classic histological feature of adenocarcinoma
Form ducts
63
Classic histological feature squamous cell carcinoma
Keratinisation
64
Degrees of cancer differentiation
Well-differentiated (resemble mature cells) Moderately-differentiated Poorly-differentiated (only poorly resemble mature cells, more aggressive)
65
Stage of cancer
Refers to progression of malignancy (in terms of local spread, metastasis)
66
What is used to determine stage of cancer?
Radiological and pathological assessment
67
TNM
T: Extent of primary tumour (1 - 4) N: Regional lymph node metastases (0 - 3) M: Presence or absence of metastases (0 or 1) These are combined to give a score out of four.
68
Histological suggestion of metastasis
Lympho-vascular invasion (even if can't see metastases radiologically). Gives a poorer prognosis
69
Examples of predictive factors in breast cancers
HER2 amplification in breast cancer Oestrogen and progesterone receptors Predictive factors can suggest potential therapies
70
Examples of predictive factors in breast cancers
HER2 amplification in breast cancer Oestrogen and progesterone receptors Predictive factors can suggest potential therapies
71
Management of a tumour 1 2 3 4 5
1) Surgery 2) Radiotherapy 3) Chemotherapy 4) Targeted therapy 5) Immunotherapy, bone marrow transplant (these are less-widely applicable)
72
Things on a path report for a cancer 1 2 3 4 5 6
• Confirmation/further information on type and subtype of malignancy • Grade • Size of tumour/depth of invasion • Presence/absence of microscopic vascular invasion • Completeness of excision • Presence and number of lymph node metastases (which may only be microscopic so histologic examination is necessary)
73
Targeted therapy
Targeted therapies block the growth of cancer cells by interfering with the function of specific molecules (e.g. oncoproteins) resulting from genetic alterations that drive carcinogenesis and tumour growth
74
Advantages of targeted therapies
Less damaging to normal cells, target neoplastic cells
75
Two broad types of targeted therapies
Monoclonal antibodies Small molecules
76
Most important mutations in non-small cell carcinomas
EGFR ALK
77
EGFR
Transmembrane tyrosine kinase receptors Growth factor receptor. When stimulated, causes cell to divide.
78
Examples of anti-EGFR therapies
Gefitinib Erlotinib Both inhibit EGFR tyrosine kinase.
79
Examples of anti-EGFR therapies 1 2
Gefitinib Erlotinib Both inhibit EGFR tyrosine kinase.
80
Causes of death in cancer 1 2 3
1) Cachexia 2) Secondary infection from poor nutrition, effects of treatment (pneumonia is common) 3) Damage to vital organ or system by either primary or secondary tumour