ENDO Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT true concerning gutta percha?

A.	It should be stored at room temperature.
B.	It is freely soluble in ether.
C.	It is freely soluble in chloroform.
D.	It is produced in standardized and nonstandardized cones.
A

A. It should be stored at room temperature:

Gutta percha is a rubberlike material used for obturation. Different manufacturers have varying formulas for its fabrication. It tends to oxidize and gets brittle over time and should be discarded if brittleness is noted. It will last longer if refrigerated. It is freely soluble in ether (choice B), chloroform (choice C), and xylol. These solvents can be used in removing gutta percha during retreatment. It is fabricated in standard cones (with taper similar to that of endodontic files) and nonstandard cones (more heavily tapered) (choice D). Standard cones are used primarily for master points.

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2
Q

An adult patient sustains trauma to the maxillary lateral incisor that results in the intrusion of this tooth. The MOST likely change to occur to the pulp would be:

A.	hyperemic pulp.
B.	internal resorption.
C.	pulp stones.
D.	pulpal necrosis.
A

D. Pulpal necrosis:

When a tooth is traumatically pushed apically, pulpal necrosis is very likely (>90%). The chance of necrosis (or cell death) increases with the degree of trauma the tooth receives. In hyperemia (choice A), the tooth is often sensitive to cold or sweets, but the associated pain is short in duration, lasting only a few seconds. It subsides after the stimulus is removed. Pulp stones (choice C) are less common, usually associated with less traumatic cases. Internal resorption (choice B) is also possible following pulpal necrosis, but again, is not as common as necrosis itself.

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3
Q

Which of the following components makes up approximately 70% of a gutta percha point?

A.	Gutta percha rubber
B.	Zinc oxide
C.	Barium salt
D.	Waxes and resins
A

B. Zinc oxide:

The chief component of gutta percha points is not gutta percha rubber but zinc oxide.
Zinc oxide makes up approximately 60% to 70% of this material.
Heavy metal barium sulfates compose approximately 5% to 15%, and waxes and resins compose about 1% to 4%. The variety in the composition shows that there is no distinct formulation for this material and that different manufacturers follow their own recipes. Gutta percha rubber itself is very soft and is usable only with a stiffening agent such as zinc oxide

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4
Q

A standard 25 mm #45 endodontic file would have the color:

	A.	violet.
	B.	white.
	C.	yellow.
	D.	red.
	E.	blue.
A

B. White:

The standard colors for the files are based on the width of the blade, not the length. Standard file colors are: 
#8, gray
#10, violet
#15, white
#20, yellow 
#25, red 
#30, blue 
#35, green
#40, black
#45, white. 

The colors then repeat themselves (yellow, red, etc.). It should be noted that both gray and violet are used only once and are not repeated.

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5
Q

Which of the following can be used in a walking bleach technique?

A.	15% phosphoric acid
B.	37% phosphoric acid
C.	10% carbamide peroxide
D.	30% aqueous hydrogen peroxide
A

D. 30% aqueous hydrogen peroxide:

Bleaching is a technique to remove or reduce undesirable discoloration of the teeth. It can be classified as vital (or extracoronal) or nonvital (or intracoronal) bleaching. Vital bleaching is used on teeth with vital pulp, and nonvital bleaching is used on root canal teeth. “Walking bleach” refers to an intracoronal bleaching method in which a 30% aqueous solution of hydrogen peroxide is mixed with powdered sodium perborate into a paste. This combination is sealed into the pulp chamber for 3 to 7 days. This procedure can be repeated until the desired result is achieved.

A solution of 10% carbamide peroxide is associated with vital (custom tray) bleaching.

Both 15% and 37% phosphoric acid are used in the acid-etch technique associated with resin bonding.

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6
Q

When beginning an access preparation through the porcelain of an existing crown, it is BEST to begin with a(n):

A.	end-cutting fissure bur.
B.	round carbide bur.
C.	tungsten-tipped bur.
D.	small, round diamond.
A

D. small, round diamond:

The small, round diamond on a water-cooled, high-speed handpiece is the best way to begin access on porcelain crown surfaces. Use of the diamond minimizes the chance that the porcelain will fracture or craze.

An end-cutting fissure bur is used for most standard-access preparations in natural tooth structure.

Round carbide burs are often used following the fissure bur to open the chamber and remove the roof.

Tungsten-tipped burs can be used for very resistant casting metals,

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7
Q

A patient presents with a tooth that is sensitive to cold and is accompanied by prolonged intense pain that subsides in about 5 minutes after the thermal stimulus is removed. The patient also complains of spontaneous pain. The tooth is NOT sensitive to percussion or palpation. The MOST likely diagnosis is:

	A.	hyperemic pulp.
	B.	reversible pulpitis.
	C.	irreversible pulpitis.
	D.	necrotic pulp.
	E.	symptomatic apical periodontitis.
A

C. Irreversible pulpitis:

A prolonged, lingering pain after the thermal stimulus is removed that takes several minutes to subside is usually associated with a more advanced pulpal disease like irreversible pulpitis. Symptomatic irreversible pulpitis will often include a complaint of unprovoked discomfort or spontaneous pain. A hyperemic pulp (Choice A) and reversible pulpitis (Choice B) are conditions that are often associated with a sensitivity to cold or sweets, but with pain that is short in duration, lasting only a few seconds after the thermal stimulus is removed. Sensitivity to heat is also a sign of a more advanced stage. With a necrotic pulp (Choice D), a tooth is normally not sensitive to cold but may be sensitive to heat and possibly to pe

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8
Q

An endo-perio combined lesion is characterized by:

A.	vital pulp.
B.	necrotic pulp, plaque, and calculus with varying degrees of periodontal disease.
C.	vital pulp with severe periodontal disease.
D.	independent presence of both periodontal and pulpal disease, which never unite.
A

B. necrotic pulp, plaque, and calculus with varying degrees of periodontal disease:

A true combined lesion is defined in the following ways:

1) the tooth must have a nonvital (necrotic) pulp
2) there must be a periodontal defect in the attachment that can be probed
3) the tooth requires both endodontic and periodontal therapy in order to achieve complete resolution of the lesion.

These lesions involve the periodontal attachment from the sulcus to an area of involvement, a lateral canal or the apex. Diagnosis is essential in distinguishing these lesions from secondarily involved lesions for optimal treatment planning and healing potential. The two lesions must connect. Remember, the lesion must be able to be probed from the sulcus to the area of involvement.

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9
Q

Several days after the placement of an amalgam, the patient returns to your office with a chief complaint of mild to moderate pain to heat, cold, and sweets. The MOST likely diagnosis is which of the following?

A.	Irreversible pulpitis
B.	Reversible pulpitis
C.	Pulpal necrosis
D.	Wrong choice of restorative material
A

B. Reversible pulpitis:

Placement of a restoration may irritate the pulpal tissue. This may be caused by the mechanical preparation, or through the heat generated during instrumentation, or from excess drying of the pulpal floor of the preparation. Also, a slightly high restoration can cause pulpal irritation. This reversible pulpitis is characterized by general sensitivity to most stimuli, with mild pain that usually decreases over time. The discomfort associated with reversible pulpitis is not spontaneous and not present upon percussion or palpation. Irreversible pulpitis (choice A) is usually associated with acute pain and with sensitivity to heat and percussion, and can be sensitive to cold or sweets as well. Pulpal necrosis (choice C) is not generally sensitive to heat or cold but may be extremely sensitive to palpation or percussion and may have pain that is spontaneous in nature. Although the operative process may be irritating for the patient, the type of material is not responsible for the discomfort (choice D). Choosing a different restorative material may still result in irritation in this case.

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10
Q

For cases of small carious exposures on permanent teeth, which treatment usually offers the BEST long-term prognosis?

A.	Glass ionomer restoration
B.	Calcium hydroxide pulp cap
C.	Root canal therapy
D.	Formocresol pulpotomy
A

C. RCT:

Although pinpoint mechanical exposures are often successfully treated with a calcium hydroxide pulp cap, carious exposure treatment with pulp cap is usually less successful. Root canal therapy is recommended for most carious exposures.

A glass ionomer may be used as a restoration, but it does not address the carious exposure in this scenario. A glass ionomer is often used to promote remineralization in compromised tooth structure. Glass ionomer is not typically used directly over the exposed carious pulp. It has a sedative effect on pulpal tissue but is contraindicated if there is a carious exposure.

Formocresol pulpotomy is indicated in primary teeth where the coronal pulp is inflamed, but the radicular pulp is still healthy.

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11
Q

An adult patient fractures a maxillary central incisor, yielding a small pulpal exposure (1 mm in size), approximately 20 minutes prior to seeking dental care. The MOST appropriate treatment plan would be which of the following?

A.	Pulpectomy
B.	Pulpectomy with formocresol
C.	Pulpectomy with CaOH
D.	Indirect pulp-capping procedure with CaOH
E.	Direct pulp-capping procedure with CaOH
A

E. Direct pulp-capping procedure with CaOH:

Small, noncarious exposures are best treated with a calcium hydroxide pulp cap, but not indirectly. Often, a healthy pulp can heal and form new dentin. Pulpotomy, or pulpectomy, is usually restricted to primary teeth with necrotic pulpal tissue but healthy radicular pulp. It can also be used as a temporary palliative treatment with adult teeth.

Pulpotomy with or without formocresol, is indicated with a large exposure and symptomatic carious exposures where pulp-capping has a minimal chance of success.

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12
Q

The calcium hydroxide used in an apexification procedure acts by:

A.	creating an alkaline area at the apex.
B.	creating an environment conducive to osteoclast activity.
C.	creating a low pH environment conducive to bone growth.
D.	stimulating secondary dentin to protect the pulp.
A

A. creating an alkaline area at the apex:

The goal of apexification is to induce further root closure in a pulpless tooth by stimulating the formation of a hard substance at the apex, so as to allow obturation of the root canal. A paste of calcium hydroxide is placed into the root canal. This is used in apexification to stimulate the formation of a hard tissue bridge at the apex of an incompletely formed root. The bridge has been described as being an osteoid (bone-like) tissue. Once it is formed, conventional endodontics is more likely to be successful. The osteoid tissue requires an alkaline environment in order to form. This high pH environment is produced by the calcium hydroxide. Osteoclasts (choice B) will stimulate the breakdown of bone; it is the osteoblasts that are responsible for the formation of dentin. Establishing a low pH (choice C) is conducive to osteoclast activity that would cause the breakdown of bone. The apexification procedure is carried out on a tooth that is pulpless therefore has no pulp to protect (choice D) and has a fairly large open apex.

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13
Q

All of the following would indicate that a lesion is endodontic rather than periodontal in nature EXCEPT one. Which of the following is this EXCEPTION?

A.	Pain to palpation at the apex on the buccal
B.	Acute pain associated with percussion with no swelling present
C.	Sulcular pocket to the apex with exudate
D.	Pain to lateral percussion with a wide sulcular pocket
E.	Prolonged pain for 5 minutes upon exposure to endo ICE
A

D. Pain to lateral percussion with a wide sulcular pocket:

Pain to lateral percussion with a wide sulcular pocket generally indicates a periodontal problem. The wide sulcus is a sign of attachment destruction, and the pain on lateral percussion is caused by pressure on the inflamed and infected periodontal ligament. Pain associated with palpation of the buccal mucosa at the apex (choice A) is usually a sign of a necrotic pulp with a pressure buildup at the apex. The infected necrotic pulp forms pus, which escapes through the narrow pocket. Acute pain on percussion (choice B) often occurs in endodontic cases of irreversible pulpitis. A deep, narrow pocket to the apex with exudates (choice C) is often a sign of an endodontic problem. Prolonged pain upon exposure to endo ICE (choice E) is indicative of irreversible pulpitis, an endodontic problem.

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14
Q

The chemical of choice in the bleaching of endodontically treated teeth would be:

A.	sodium perchlorate.
B.	hydrogen peroxide.
C.	sodium hypochlorite.
D.	sodium chloride.
A

B. hydrogen peroxide:

Two chemical agents commonly used to bleach endodontically treated teeth are:

  • 30% hydrogen peroxide (Superoxyl)
  • sodium perborate

They are used in the “walking bleach” technique. Sodium perborate is different from sodium perchlorate, which is not a bleaching agent. Sodium hypochlorite is used to irrigate the canals during root canal therapy and is commonly used to bleach clothing. Sodium chloride is table salt and is used in saline solution.

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15
Q

A patient had a direct pulp-cap placed 6 weeks ago. During examination, the tooth is asymptomatic. What conclusion can be made at this point?

A.	Reparative dentin has formed at the site exposure.
B.	The pulp-capping procedure was successful, and it is time to place a final restoration.
C.	The tooth should be asymptomatic for at least 3 to 4 months before a final restoration is placed.
D.	No conclusions can be drawn.
A

C. The tooth should be asymptomatic for at least 3 to 4 months before a final restoration is placed:

The treated tooth has been asymptomatic for 6 weeks. When a small exposure is made in the pulp chamber, pulp-capping with a material such as calcium hydroxide sometimes induces reparative dentin to form. This would obviate the need for endodontic treatment. A pulp-capped tooth should be observed for 3 to 4 months before a final restoration is placed. Even if it is asymptomatic after 8 weeks, this might be temporary.

With only 6 weeks since the procedure, complete reparative dentin formation has not yet occurred.

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16
Q

Which of the following cysts is associated only with nonvital teeth?

	A.	Radicular cyst
	B.	Dentigerous  cyst
	C.	Buccal bifurcation  cyst
	D.	Lateral periodontal cyst
	E.	Nasopalatine duct
A

A. A radicular cyst:

is the result of a chronic infection and inflammation at the apex of the tooth. Because its formation is associated with nonvital pulp tissue, it is always associated with a nonvital pulp.

A dentigerous cyst is a developmental cyst formed at the CEJ of impacted teeth. Therefore, these cysts are not associated with any tooth in the mouth.

A buccal bifurcation cyst is a result of inflammation in the connective tissue as the tooth (usually the permanent mandibular first molar) erupts. These teeth are vital.

A lateral periodontal cyst is rare and is most often found in the mandibular canine-premolar area and is involved with teeth that are vital.

A nasopalatine duct cyst is a developmental cyst arising from spontaneous proliferation of epithelial remnants of the nasopalatine duct between the oral and nasal cavities. These cysts are non-odontogenic; thus, the neighboring teeth are vital.

17
Q

A fourth canal can be found in the maxillary first molar approximately what percent of the time?

	A.	1% to 5%
	B.	10% to 20%
	C.	20% to 30%
	D.	67% to 87%
	E.	87% to 100%
A

D. 67% to 87%:

One of the significant causes of endodontic failure in the maxillary first molars is the failure to locate the fourth canal. A variety of estimates of this canal’s incidence, especially with the advent of CBCT, approximately 67% to 87% of the time, have been made. It will be found midway along the developmental groove connecting the mesiobuccal and the palatal canals. This fourth canal is usually small and difficult to instrument and obturate. Choices A, B, C, and E are incorrect.

18
Q

In preparing the access cavity of a mandibular molar, which wall isMOST likely to be perforated?

A.	Buccal
B.	Lingual
C.	Mesial
D.	Distal
A

C. Mesial:

The question can be answered primarily through knowledge of the shape of the access cavity. It is placed toward the mesial, as the orifices are usually located in the mesial two thirds of the tooth’s crown. The DB orifice is located about midway mesiodistally. Therefore, the access barely enters the distal half of the tooth. Of the three other surfaces, the mesial is closest to the outer margin of the typical access prep. The buccal (choice A) and lingual (choice B) are both fairly close, and the distal (choice D) is, as described above, the farthest. Your access must be very far off in order to perforate the distal of this tooth.

19
Q

Which problem is NOT typically associated with the endodontic treatment of maxillary lateral incisors?

A.	Dens-en-dente
B.	Dilacerated roots
C.	Peg-shaped crowns
D.	Mesial concavity in the root, which is a risk for root perforation during endodontic access
E.	Possible presence of two to four canals
A

D. Mesial concavity in the root, which is a risk for root perforation during endodontic access:

A mesial concavity in the root, which is a straight-line access, can be an increased risk factor for a root perforation during endodontic access. This concavity is typically associated with maxillary first premolars and the mesial roots of mandibular first molars.

Dens-en-dente is a condition of invagination of the lingual surface, commonly found in maxillary lateral incisors. It can complicate endodontic therapy through excessive decay at the access, resulting in a very wide access opening once all decay and invaginated enamel is removed. Dilaceration refers to unusual sudden changes in root direction. This is also fairly common for this tooth, complicating both instrumentation and (especially) obturation. Peg lateral crowns, also a common variety of these teeth, complicate therapy due to their small size, ease of perforation, and weakness after access is complete. Although the incidence is low, multiple recent publications have reported case studies of two to four canals present within the maxillary lateral incisors.

20
Q

The wire stock used to produce K-type files is what shape in cross-section?

A.	Square
B.	Triangular
C.	Oval
D.	Circular
A

A. Square:

In general, K-type files are produced from square wire stock

K-type reamers are produced from triangular stock.

H-type files are produced from oval or circular wire stock.

21
Q

Which of the following would MOST likely be associated with a vital tooth?

	A.	Suppurative periodontitis
	B.	Condensing osteitis
	C.	Periapical cyst
	D.	Asymptomatic apical periodontitis
	E.	Idiopathic osteosclerosis
A

E. In idiopathic osteosclerosis:

there is a radiopacity within bone of unknown origin, but it is not related to inflammatory, neoplastic, or dysplastic process.

Condensing osteitis: localized chronic inflammation of the bone marrow. It is associated with bone formation rather than bone destruction.

Periapical cyst: tooth is nonvital with a deep carious lesion or restoration.

Asymptomatic apical periodontitis: lesion appears as a small circumscribed lesion on the gingiva of the affected tooth. A necrotic pulp characterizes it, or a pulp densely infiltrated by neutrophils. The pulp is nonvital.

Suppurative apical periodontitis: there is sometimes abscess formation.

22
Q

The treatment of choice for a small carious exposure on a permanent second mandibular molar would be:

A.	Dycal direct pulp cap.
B.	Dycal indirect pulp cap.
C.	root canal therapy.
D.	ZOE pulp cap.
A

C. RCT:

Placing a Dycal pulp cap (choices A and B) can often treat a mechanical exposure; carious exposure treatment with a pulp cap is usually less successful. Root canal therapy is recommended for most of these cases involving a carious exposure. ZOE (choice D) is often placed above the Dycal pulp cap but should not be placed directly over the exposed pulp. This material has a sedative effect on pulpal tissue.

23
Q

All of the following are associated with successful completion of root canal therapy EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?

	A.	Apical seal
	B.	Formation of reparative dentin
	C.	Healing or regeneration of alveolar bone
	D.	Regeneration of periodontal ligament
	E.	Removal of bacteria
A

B. Formation of reparative dentin:

An apical seal (choice A) is the primary goal of root canal therapy. This seal will prevent the influx of bacteria into the canal (choice E). After the completion of the treatment, one can expect the regeneration of alveolar bone (choice C) by osteoblasts, of cementum by cementoblasts, and of the periodontal ligament (choice D) by the fibroblasts. Because a vital tooth is necessary for dentin formation, and after therapy there is no longer a vital pulp, the tooth is unable to form reparative dentin.

24
Q

What would be the expected time needed to see a significant reduction in the size of a radiographic periapical lesion after the completion of endodontic therapy?

A.	2 to 4 weeks
B.	1 to 2 months
C.	6 to 12 months
D.	At least 1 year
A

C. 6-12months:

The periapical lesion found on a radiograph takes a certain amount of time to form, as bone must be resorbed for the lucency to appear. Likewise, following the removal of infectious materials and byproducts and good obturation, it will take time for bone to be redeposited in the apical area. Osteoblasts must form the matrix to be calcified. This matrix must be calcified to a certain thickness before it can be visible radiographically. The time for a significant change to be visible is usually 6 to 12 months. That is why an endodontic recall visit is 6 months after completion of the procedure. For some patients, it may take a year for recovery, but you can see the clinical evidence as early as 6 months, making choice D incorrect. Periods shorter than 6 months (choices A and B) do not allow enough time.

25
Q

A root canal sealer should have all of the following characteristics EXCEPT one. Which is the EXCEPTION?

A.	Acts as a disinfectant
B.	Fills voids and gaps
C.	Acts as a lubricant
D.	Flows into accessory canals
A

A. Acts as a disinfectant:

Root canal sealers are not expected to have antibacterial properties. The tooth is essentially disinfected after the canal(s) has been properly cleaned and shaped. The tooth should also be asymptomatic, with no fistula(s), oozing, or odor present. The sealer is essential during the obturation phase of treatment. It enhances the chances of obtaining an impervious seal and serves to provide filler (choice B) for canal irregularities and minor discrepancies that may exist between the root canal wall and the gutta percha. The sealer also acts as a lubricant (choice C), helping the gutta percha points slide into the canal without binding during compaction. The sealer may also be expressed into small accessory or lateral canals that are too small to be reached by endodontic instruments (choice D).

26
Q

The MOST common hand instrument (files, reamers, etc.) lengths are (in mm):

	A.	19, 21, 25.
	B.	21, 25, 30.
	C.	21, 25, 31.
	D.	19, 25, 31.
	E.	20, 25, 30.
A

C. 21, 25, 31:

Measured tip to handle, the three most common hand instrument lengths are 21 mm, 25 mm and 31 mm. The other answer choices range from 19 to 30. Although there would be instruments available in these assorted sizes, they are not the most common lengths, so choices A, B, D, and E are incorrect.

27
Q

In standard endodontic file colors, a 25 mm #30 file is:

	A.	white.
	B.	blue.
	C.	green.
	D.	red.
	E.	yellow.
A

B. blue:

The standard colors for files are based on width of the file blade (not length). The standard file colors are as follows: #8 = gray, #10 = violet, #15 = white (choice A), #20 = yellow (choice E), #25 = red (choice D), #30 = blue, #35 = green (choice C), #40 = black, and # 45 = white. The colors then go on to repeat themselves (yellow, red, etc.). Note that violet and gray are not used again.

28
Q

The standard-access preparation for the maxillary canine is:

A.	oval and wider bucco-lingually.
B.	oval and wider mesio-distally.
C.	circular.
D.	triangular, with the apex toward the cervical.
A

A. oval and wider bucco-lingually:

The standard access for the maxillary canine is oval. The canal itself is often oval and ribbon-like and is wider bucco-lingually than mesio-distally (choice B). Therefore, the access matches the characteristics of the canal. A circular access (choice C) will make instrumenting and obturation of the buccal and lingual edges of the canal more difficult. Triangular access cavities (choice D) will remove excessive tooth structure without providing better access.

29
Q

Which of the following is MOST likely to have two root canals?

	A.	Tooth 12
	B.	Tooth 4
	C.	Tooth 20
	D.	Tooth 29
	E.	Tooth 6
A

A. Tooth 12:

The maxillary first premolar (tooth 12) usually has two roots and two canals. The maxillary second premolar (choice B) most often will have one root but 50% of the time can have two canals. Both mandibular first (choice C) and second premolars (choice D) most often have one root and one canal. A maxillary canine (choice E) has one canal.

30
Q

The major action of the Hedstrom file is:

A.	removing dentin on both the inward and outward stroke.
B.	removing dentin on the outward stroke only.
C.	removing pulpal tissue as a whole.
D.	removing enamel at the access point.
A

B. removing dentin on the outward stroke only:

In general, K-files remove dentin during a back-and-forth stroke (two directional). Reamers act mostly in the forward direction, while rotating. Hedstrom files act primarily on the withdrawal stroke. Broaches engage large or whole pieces of pulpal tissue and remove them on withdrawal from the canal. Choices C and D are incorrect because the procedure will not remove pulpal or enamel in that manner.

31
Q

In standard instrument colors, a 30 K file will be:

	A.	green.
	B.	black.
	C.	red.
	D.	white.
	E.	blue.
A

E. blue:

Review your endodontic files just in case you are asked this detailed question: 10 = purple, 15 = white (choice D), 20 = yellow, 25 = red (choice C), 30 = blue, 35 = green (choice A), and 40 = black (choice B). At 45, they repeat white, yellow, red, etc., up to 80, and repeat again. Note that purple is not used again.

32
Q

A reduction in setting time of a zinc oxide/eugenol root-canal sealer cement can be achieved by:

A.	increasing the temperature.
B.	increasing the humidity.
C.	excessive spatulation.
D.	all of the above.
A

D. All of the above:

All of the conditions listed (choices A, B, and C) will result in a quicker setting time of the zinc oxide\eugenol root-canal sealer cement. Some root-canal sealer cements containing zinc oxide can occasionally set too fast and solidify in the canal. This will interfere with proper obturation. This is especially true on hot, humid days.

33
Q

Which of the following BEST describes the shape of the access preparation when performing root canal therapy on a maxillary canine?

	A.	Triangular
	B.	Circular
	C.	Oval; wider mesiodistally
	D.	Oval; wider buccolingually
	E.	Rectangular
A

D. Oval; wider buccolingually:

The standard access opening for the maxillary canine is oval in shape. The canal itself is wider buccolingually than mesiodistally (choice C). Therefore, the access matches the shape of the canal. A triangular access (choice A) will remove excessive tooth structure or compromise the tooth’s structural integrity without providing better access. If you were to use a circular access (choice B), it would make instrumentation and obturation of the buccal and lingual edges more difficult. Rectangular access is reserved for mandibular first molars (multi-rooted teeth).

Remember, common access preparations are oval with the exceptions of:

Maxillary central and lateral incisor = Triangular
Maxillary first and second molar = Rhomboidal
Mandibular second molar = Triangular
Mandibular first molar = Trapezoidal/rectangular