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HumanBioSciences > final revision > Flashcards

final revision Flashcards

1
Q

function of plasmid

A

extra genetic chromosomes to provide bacteria with genetic advantages such as antibiotic resistance

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2
Q

the function of pilus

A

elongated hollow appendages used to transfer DNA from one cell to another.

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3
Q

the function of fimbriae

A

stiff fibres that adhere them to surfaces such as host cells. Allows bacterium to gain access to the body.

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4
Q

the function of flagella

A

helps the bacteria to move

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5
Q

the function of ribosomes

A

site of protein synthesis

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6
Q

the function of nucleiod

A

essential for controlling the activity of the cell and reproduction. it is where transcription and replication of DNA takes place

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7
Q

the function of capsule

A

protects bacteria cell from ingestion and phagocytosis and helps to stick to surfaces

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8
Q

what is a gram staining

A

a technique used to differentiate bacteria based on their cell wall/peptidoglycan constituents

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9
Q

definition of sanitization

A

mechanically removes microorganisms and other debris to reduce contamination to safe level

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10
Q

examples of sanitization

A

soaps/detergents

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11
Q

definition of disinfection

A

destroys vegetative pathogens but not endospores

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12
Q

examples of disinfection

A

heat, iodine, bleach, chlorhexidine handwash

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13
Q

definition of sterilization

A

destroys and removes all microorganisms including endospores and viruses

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14
Q

definition of antisepsis

A

process that reduces number of microorganisms

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15
Q

what is the chain of infection?

A 
infectious agent 
reservoir
portal of exit 
mode of transmission 
portal of entry 
susceptible host
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16
Q

chain of infection of streptococcal pharyngitis

A

infectious agent- streptococcus pygones

reservoir- infected human

portal of exit- respiratory tract

mode of transmission- direct contact : droplets

portal of entry- respiratory tract

susceptible host- children, immunosuppressed individuals

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17
Q

chain of infection of pneumonia

A

infectious agent- streptococcus pneumoniae

reservoir- infected humans

portal of exit- respiratory tract

mode of transmission- direct: droplets indirect: airbone, formites

portal of entry: respiratory tract

susceptible host: newborns, immunosuppresed individuals, elderly

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18
Q

chain of infection of urinary tract infection

A

infectious agent- escherichia coli

reservoir- infected humans

portal of exit- gastrointestinal tract

mode of transmission- endogenous transfer

portal of entry- urinary tract

susceptible host- women

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19
Q

detection for streptococcal pharyngitis

A

throat swabs

throat culture

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20
Q

detection for pneumonia

A

chest x-ray

culture and sensitivity test of sputum sample

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21
Q

detection for urinary tract infection

A

urine culture

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22
Q

what is a culture and sensitivity test?

A

refers to a lab test that determines what bacterial yeast may be present in a sample and what drug can kill that bacteria

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23
Q

what is the range of actions of antibiotic?

A

broad-spectrum and narrow-spectrum

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24
Q

what are the mechanisms of antibiotic actions

A
  1. inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  2. inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
  3. inhibition of protein synthesis
  4. disruption of cell membrane permeability
  5. inhibition of metabolic processes
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25
Q

describe and explain what happens during the inhibition of cell wall synthesis (antibiotics)

A

Bacterial cell walls are made of peptidoglycan which protects the cells against rupture

Actively growing cells continuously produce new peptidoglycan.

Drugs such as penicillin and cephalosporin interrupt the completion of the cell wall

Cells rupture (lyse) due to the weakened cell wall

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26
Q

what is the function of a neuron?

A

cells that communicate and carry information

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27
Q

what is the function of a cell body?

A

it contains the nucleus and organelles. The cell body carries genetic information, maintains the neuron’s structure, and provides energy to drive activities

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28
Q

what is the function of the axons?

A

it conducts electrical signals

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29
Q

axon terminals

A

Bulb-shaped endings that form a synapse with the next cell. It also produces neurotransmitters such as GABA, ACH and dopamine

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30
Q

multipolar neurons are commonly found in the ____________ and __________ neurons

A

CNS and efferent neurons

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31
Q

Unipolar neurons are most abundant in the _________ division

A

afferent

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32
Q

Bipolar neuron are found in ____________ organs

A

special sensory organs

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33
Q

sensory neurons are also known as _______ neurons

A

afferent

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34
Q

the function of sensory/afferent neurons

A

it receives information from sensory receptors

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35
Q

the function of interneuron

A

receives information in the CNS and sends it to a motor neuron

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36
Q

the function of motor/efferent neuron

A

carry information to peripheral targets called effectors

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37
Q

what are the neuroglia cell found in CNS ?

A
  • astrocytes
  • ependymal cells
  • microglia
  • oligodendrocytes
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38
Q

what are the glial cell found in PNS?

A
  • satellite cells

- schwann cells

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39
Q

functions of astrocytes ?

A

Star-shaped cells that provide physical and nutritional support for neurons and maintains the blood-brain barrier

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40
Q

functions of ependymal cells

A

Related to cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) production and circulation

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41
Q

functions of microglia

A

Microglia are the resident Phagocytic cells derived from white blood cells and provide a first line of defence against invading pathogens. Found to be increased during CNS infections

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42
Q

function of oligodendrocytes

A

Produce an insulating membranous wrapping around axons called myelin

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43
Q

function of the Satellite cells

A

surround and support neuron cell bodies

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44
Q

function of the Schwann cells

A

Produce an insulating membranous wrapping around axons called myelin

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45
Q

what is a synapse

A

a functional junction between a neuron and another cell

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46
Q

neurotranmitters are stored in the ________ the axon terminal

A

synaptic vesicles

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47
Q

what are the 6 major regions in the brain?

A

cerebrum

cerebellum

diencephalon

midbrain

pons

medulla oblongata

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48
Q

functions of the cerebral cortex

A

primary motor area- voluntary control of skeletal muscle

primary somatosensory area- for sensory information from skeletal muscle and skin

processing centres- perform higher-level analytical functions including Wernicke’s and Broca’s area both involved in speech

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49
Q

what is contralateral control?

A

the motor cortex of each cerebral hemisphere is mainly responsible for control of movements of opposite side of the bodu

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50
Q

After suffering a stroke, Mary finds that she cannot move her right arm. This would suggest that the stroke damage is in the area of the ________ lobe

A

left frontal lobe

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51
Q

the function of the general interpretive area or Wernicke’s area

A

Integrates sensory information to form visual and auditory memory

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52
Q

the function of the speech center or Broca’s area

A

Regulates vocalization, the motor skills needed for speaking

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53
Q

what is aphasia?

A

Language disorder that affects the ability to communicate.

Aphasia does not impair the person’s intelligence.

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54
Q

what is Wernicke’s Aphasia (receptive)?

A

ability to grasp the meaning of spoken words is chiefly impaired. It is commonly associated with dominant temporal lobe CVA

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55
Q

Wernicke aphasia is commonly associated with

A

dominant temporal lobe CVA

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56
Q

what is Broca’s Aphasia (expressive)?

A

Individuals with Broca’saphasia have trouble speaking fluently but their comprehension can be relatively preserved. It is associated with frontal lobe/motor disorders

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57
Q

broca’s aphasia is commonly associated with

A

frontal lobe/motor disorders

58
Q

Global aphasia

A

both Wernicke’s and Broca’s aphasia

59
Q

what are the 3 layers of meninges

A

dura mater

arachnoid

pia mater

60
Q

epidural space is a potential space between…..?

A

the bone and the dura

61
Q

subdural space is a potential space between…?

A

dura mater and arachnoid mater

62
Q

subarachnoid space is a potential space between….

A

the arachnoid space and the pia mater

63
Q

The procedure in which the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is drawn from the subarachnoid space is termed as

A

lumbar puncture/ spinal tap

64
Q

what is meningitis

A

inflammation of the meningeal layers

65
Q

symptoms the patient with meningitis presents

A

fever, headache, projectile vomiting and neck stiffness

66
Q

what is an epidural haemorrage

A

blood leaks out between dura and cranium

67
Q

what is a subdural haemorrhage?

A

collection of blood between the dura and arachnoid

68
Q

what is a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

bleeding/ extravasation of blood into the subarachnoid space between the pia mater and arachnoid membranes

69
Q

function of the oculomotor nerves

A

innervate (supply an organs with neves) four extrinsic eye muscles - eye movements

70
Q

function of the trochlear nerves

A

innervate superior oblique

71
Q

function of the abducens nerves

A

innervate lateral rectus

72
Q

function of the trigeminal nerves

A

sensory over the face

muscles - mastications

73
Q

function of the glossopharyngeal nerves

A

monitors taste on the posterior third of the tongue and monitors BP and blood gases

controls pharyngeal muscles used in swallowing

74
Q

function of the vagus nerves

A

sensory input vital to autonomic control of the viscera

motor control includes the soft palate, pharynx , and esophagus

ANS output to cardia mucles, smooth muscles, and digestive glands

75
Q

what is a monosynaptic reflex?

A

simple reflex

a sensory neuron directly synapses on a motor neuron.

have a delay between sensory input and motor output

examples : stretch reflex (knee jerk)

76
Q

what is a polysnaptic reflex

A

complex reflex with at least one interneuron

are slower than monosynaptic reflexes, but can activate more than one effector

-withdrawal reflexes

77
Q

what is cranial reflexes?

A

automatic responses that involve the sensory and motor fibers of cranial nerve.

Light / pupillary reflex
Salivary reflex
Gag reflex
Corneal reflex

78
Q

Lack of the pupillary reflex or an abnormal pupillary reflex can be caused by

A

optic nerve damage, oculomotor nerve damage, brain stem death and depressant drugs

79
Q

types of sensory receptors

A
  1. chemoreceptors —– nocicpetors
    2.photoreceptors
    3.thermoreceptors
    4.mechanoreceptors —— tactilce receptors
    barorecptors
    proprioceptors
80
Q

receptors that respond to chemical are known as

A

chemoreceptors ( taste, small, blood pH)

81
Q

describe what happens when our tissues are damaged

A

When tissues are damaged by toxins or mechanical, thermal, or electrical stimuli, they release chemicals called prostaglandins, which bind to nociceptors.
Aspirin and ibuprofen reduce pain by inhibitingthe enzymes that synthesize prostaglandins.

82
Q

sensory receptors called nociceptors are responsive to

A

pain

83
Q

Your uncle was just diagnosed with a heart attack. One of his major symptoms is left arm pain. You are not surprised because you are familiar with the phenomenon of ________ pain.

A

referred

84
Q

what is a referred pain

A

stimulation of nociceptors in internal organs is felt as pain in the skin also

Nerve impulses from the nociceptors in internal organs synapse with neurons also receiving impulses from the skin.

85
Q

examples of referred pain

A

liver and gallbladder - pain felt on right shoulder

heart- pain on left arm

colon, appendix, small intestine pain felt on stomach

86
Q

describe and explain how glaucoma arises

A

drainage ducts are blocked and aqueous humor builds up. the resulting pressure compresses the arteries that serve the retina, where photoreceptors are located. gradual loss of vision occurs and may eventually lead to total blindness

87
Q

What structure changes the shape of the lens for far and near vision?

A

suspensory ligament

88
Q

The jellylike vitreous body is found in the ___________ of the eye.

A

posterior cavity

89
Q

function of sclera

A

portects and support the eye

90
Q

function of cornea

A

refracts light rays

91
Q

function of pupil

A

admit lights

92
Q

function of choroids

A

absorbs stray light

93
Q

function of ciliary body

A

holds the lens in place

94
Q

retina

A

contains sensory receptors for sight

95
Q

rod cells

A

make black and white vision possible

96
Q

cone cells

A

make colour vision possible

97
Q

fovea centralis

A

makes acute vision possible

98
Q

lens

A

refracts and focuses light rays

99
Q

humors

A

transmit light rays and support the eye

100
Q

optic nerve

A

transmit impulses to the visual cortex

101
Q

difference between an ovarian cycle and uterine cycle

A

ovarian cycle- series of changes in ovaries associated with oocyte maturation

controlled by FSH or LH

uterine cycle- changes in the endometrial lining of the uterus

controlled by estrogen and progesterone

102
Q

phases of ovarian cycle

A

follicle phase, ovulation and luteal phase

103
Q

how long does a follicular phase takes?

A

14 days

104
Q

how long does ovulation takes

A

in an instant

105
Q

how long does a luteal phase takes

A

about 14 days

106
Q

function of an uterine cycle

A

prepares uterine lining for implantation of fertilized ovum, called a zygote

107
Q

phases of uterine cycle

A

menses, proliferative phase, secretory phase

108
Q

what are the anterior pituitary hormones that control the uterine cycle

A

FSH AND LH

109
Q

what happen when a fallopian tube is blocked due to infections (endometriosis)

A

scar tissue formation preventing the sperm from meeting the ova which hinders fertilization to occur thus leading to infertility

110
Q

what are fibriods?

A

non malignant tumours commonly found at the uterus, prevents from implantation

111
Q

the function of testes

A

produce sex hormones

112
Q

function of epididymis

A

ducts where spem mature and some are stored

113
Q

function of vas deferens

A

conduct and store sperm

114
Q

function of seminal vesicles

A

contribute nutrients and fluid to semen

115
Q

function of prostate glands

A

contribute fluid to semem

116
Q

function of the urethra

A

conducts sperm

117
Q

bulbourethral glands

A

contribute mucus-containing fluid to semen

118
Q

route of sperm through male reproductive structures

A
  1. seminiferous tubules
  2. epididymis
  3. ductus deferens
  4. ejaculatory duct
  5. penis
119
Q

enlarged prostatic gland is known as

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

120
Q

how can benign prostatic hyperplasia be treated

A

transurethral prostatectomy

121
Q

pH of seminal gland secretion

A

alkaline

122
Q

pH of prostate gland secretion

A

acidic

123
Q

pH of bulbourethral glands secretion

A

alkaline

124
Q

melanocyte produce

A

melanin, a pigment that colors the skin

125
Q

melanin is brown, yellow-brown or black

A

absorbs ultraviolet protecting deeper layers

126
Q

describe and explains the synthesis of vitamin D3

A

When exposed to sunlight, cholesterol-related sunlight in the epidermis triggers the production of Vitamin D3.
The inactive form is modified in the liver and kidneys to an active form known as calcitriol which is essential for calcium and phosphorus absorption in the small intestine.

127
Q

functions of testosterone

A

maintain libido and stimulates aggression

stimulates bone and muscle growth

establishes and maintains male secondary sex characteristics

Maintains accessory glands and organs of the male reproductive system

128
Q

what are the accessory glands of the male reproductive system

A

seminal gland, prostate gland, bulbourethral gland

129
Q

functions of the bulbourethral glands

A

it buffers acidic environment and lubricate glands of the penis

130
Q

what are the components of the prostate glands secretion

A

prostate glands secretion composes of seminiplasmin which prevents urinary tract infections

131
Q

what are the components of seminal gland secretion

A

fructose, prostaglandins, fibrinogen

132
Q

function of fructose in seminal gland secretion

A

for metabolism by sperm

133
Q

functions of prostaglandins in seminal gland secretion

A

stimulate smooth muscle in tract

134
Q

functions of fibrinogen in seminal gland

A

forms semen clot in vagina

135
Q

functions of the CSF

A

Surrounds and bathes the exposed surfaces of the CNS and cushions and protects the CNS.
It also transports nutrients, chemicals, and wastes

136
Q

3 layers of the uterine wall

A

perimetrium , myometrium,

endometrium

137
Q

which muscle layer of the uterine wall contracts during labor and delivery

A

myometrium

138
Q

what congenital hypothyroidism (cretisim)?

A

underdeveloped thyroid at birth —> undersecretion of thyroid hormone

139
Q

what is myxedema ?

A

hypothyroidism in adults.

140
Q

what are the symptoms of myxedema

A

lethargy, weight gain, loss hair, lowered body temperature

141
Q

what is exophthalmic goiter?

A

oversecretion of thyroid hormone.

142
Q

symptoms of exophthalmic goiter

A

hyperactivity, nervousness, irritability

HumanBioSciences (20 decks)

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