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Pathophysiology > Test 2 > Flashcards

Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Same concentration as blood

A

Isotonic

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2
Q

Lower particle concentration than the bloodstream

A

Hypotonic

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3
Q

More solute than in the blood

A

Hypertonic solution

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4
Q

Fluid inside the cell

A

Intercellular fluid

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5
Q

Fluid inside the blood vessels (plasma)

A

Extracellular fluid

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6
Q

Fluid outside the cell but not in the vascular system

A

Interstitial fluid

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7
Q

Molecules that pass from a higher concentration to a low one to achieve osmosis

A

Diffusion

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8
Q

Movement from a lower concentration to a higher one

A

Osmosis

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9
Q

When fluid needs something to help it get inside the cell

A

Facilitated transport

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10
Q

The type of transport that requires energy; ATP

A

Active transport (ex: Na/K pump)

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11
Q

Hydrostatic pressure pulls fluid out from the capillaries into the ICF and ISF, oncotic pressure pulls it back in due to the pressure exerted by solutes in a solution

A

Sterling’s Law

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12
Q

How does RAAS help maintain homeostasis?

A

Replenishes blood volume and raises BP by conserving fluid

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13
Q

Dehydration and a diminished level of circulating blood volume

Symptoms include:

  • poor skin turgor
  • low bp
  • high hr
  • dry mucous membranes
  • low urine output
  • thirst center activated in hypothalamus
A

Hypovolemia

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14
Q

Fluid overload; too much fluid in the blood

A

Hypervolemia

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15
Q

What is the main cause of hypervolemia?

A

Heart failure

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16
Q

The main cellular ion that controls the distribution of water

A

Sodium (Na)

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17
Q

What is the normal value for sodium (Na)?

A

135-145 meq/L

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18
Q

Involved in nerve impulses to the heart and the skeletal muscles.

A

Potassium (K)

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19
Q

What is the main cation in cells?

A

Potassium

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20
Q

What is the normal values for potassium?

A

3.5-5.2 meq/dL

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21
Q

The major mineral in bones and teeth; regulated by the parathyroid hormone

A

Calcium

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22
Q

Normal values for calcium

A

8.7-10 mg/dL

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23
Q

What mineral can lead to diminished neuromuscular function and kidney failure if too high?

A

Magnesium (Mg)

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24
Q

What mineral he a reciprocal relationship with calcium?

A

Phosphorous

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25
Q

What condition results if the values are less than 135 meq/L?

A

Hyponatremia (low sodium)

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26
Q

What condition can result if levels of this mineral are higher than 145 meq/L?

A

Hypernatremia

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27
Q

What condition can result if levels are less than 3.5 meq/dL?

A

Hypokalemia

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28
Q

What condition can result if this mineral’s levels are higher than 5.2 meq/dL?

A

Hyperkalemia

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29
Q

What condition can result if this mineral’s levels are lower than 8.7mg/dL?

A

Hypocalcemia

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30
Q

What condition can result if this mineral’s levels are higher than 10 mg/dL?

A

Hypercalcemia

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31
Q

Which condition can be checked using Chvostek’s or Trousseau’s signs?

A

Hypocalcemia

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32
Q

What’s the normal range for pH?

A

7.35-7.45 (7.40 is the ultimate normal)

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33
Q

What is the normal range for pCO2?

A

35-45 mm Hg

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34
Q

What’s the normal range for HCO3?

A

22-26 meq/L

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35
Q

What is the normal range for pO2?

A

90-100 mm Hg

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36
Q

What is the normal range for SaO2?

A

95-100%

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37
Q

What does the acronym ROME mean?

A 
Respiratory Opposite 
(High pH; low pCO2 = alkalosis)
(Low pH; high pCO2 = acidosis) 
Metabolic Equal
(High pH; high HCO3 = alkalosis)
(Low ph; low HCO3 = alkalosis)
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38
Q

If the pH is normal, but other values are abnormal it is considered

A

Compensated

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39
Q

If the pH is abnormal as well as the lab values it is considered

A

Uncompensated

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40
Q

What is the first defense to maintain acid/base balance?

A

Protein/chemical buffers

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41
Q

What is the second defense to maintain acid/base balance?

A

Respiratory buffers

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42
Q

What is the third defense to maintain acid/base balance?

A

Renal buffers

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43
Q

What does increased vascular permeability and blow flow enable in inflammation?

A

The white bloods cells and repair cells to arrive at the site injury

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44
Q

When the body releases chemicals that dispatch the white blood cells and platelets to the site of injury.

A

Chemotaxis

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45
Q

What is elevated levels of WBCs in the blood called

A

Leukocytosis

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46
Q

What are the five basic types of white blood cells?

A
  1. Lymphocytes
  2. Neutrophils
  3. Eosinophils
  4. Monocytes
  5. Basophils
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47
Q

Includes swollen lymph nodes, fever, pain, sleepiness, lethargy, anemia, and weight loss.

A

Systemic response

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48
Q

What is the most common symptom in infection and inflammation?

A

Fever

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49
Q

Resets the hypothalamic temperature to a high setting

A

Pyrogens

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50
Q

Normally resolves once an injury or the infection is gone

A

Acute inflammation

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51
Q

What is a helpful inflammatory response?

A

Cox 1

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52
Q

What is a harmful inflammatory response?

A

Cox 2

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53
Q

What types of cells continually divide and replicate?

A

Labile cells

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54
Q

What type of cells replace injured cells?

A

Labile cells

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55
Q

What type of cells can be induced to replicate with a strong enough stimulus (found in liver and bone)?

A

Stable cells

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56
Q

What time of cells cannot regenerate or replace lost or damaged cells?

A

Permanent cells

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57
Q

What is rubor?

A

Erythema or redness

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58
Q

What is tumor?

A

Edema or swelling

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59
Q

What is calor?

A

Heat

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60
Q

What is dolor?

A

Pain

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61
Q

What are the four phases to wound healing?

A
  1. Hemostasis
  2. Inflammation
  3. Proliferation, tissue granulation formation, angiogenesis, epithelialization
  4. Wound contraction and remodeling
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62
Q

What time of wound helping occurs with clear wound edges with no missing tissue?

A

Primary intention

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63
Q

What kind of wound healing happens when there is extensive loss of tissue?

A

Secondary intention

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64
Q

What kind of wound healing is missing a large amount of tissue and often left open?

A

Tertiary

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65
Q

What type of wound healing may need a skin graft?

A

Tertiary

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66
Q

What time of wound healing needs granulation and fibrous tissue to heal?

A

Secondary intention

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67
Q

What kind of wound healing is a surgical incision?

A

Primary intention

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68
Q

What is the number one cause of delayed wound healing?

A

Infection

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69
Q

What kind of medication delays wound healing?

A

Corticosteroids

70
Q

What disease delays wound healing?

A

Diabetes

71
Q

Carried pathogen to a host

A

Vector

72
Q

Ability of the immune system to protect against infection

A

Immunocompetence

73
Q

Blood stream infection

A

Septicemia

74
Q

Common organisms that cause infection due to a weakened immune system

A

Opportunistic infections

75
Q

Performs advantageous function in the host

A

Normal flora

76
Q

Organisms that can lead to disease

A

Pathogens

77
Q

Healthcare acquired infections

A

Nosocomial (HAI)

78
Q
  • Free living in the environment
  • Can be treated with antibiotics
  • Can be advantageous
A

Bacteria

79
Q
  • Depends on the host cell
  • Can cause acute or chronic infections
  • Antibiotics do not work
A

Viruses

80
Q
  • Moldlike
  • Can cause local or systemic infections
  • Most common is yeast
A

Fungi

81
Q
  • Protozoa worms and insects

- Transmitted by contaminated water, soil, food, or insects

A

Parasites

82
Q
  • Can change host cell proteins in the brain

- Leads to spongiform encephalopathy

A

Prions

83
Q
  • Half of the strains are MRSA

- requires strict isolation

A

Antibiotic-resistant S. Aureus

84
Q
  • invades the lower respiratory tract and causes inflammation
  • created exudative fluid that hinders oxygen exchange at the alveoli
  • fluid (consolidation) shown on X-ray
A

Bacterial pneumonia

85
Q
  • inflammation of meningeal layers of the brain/spinal cord
  • often caused by a pneumonia, neisseria meningitidis and h influenzae
  • diagnosis is done via lumbar puncture
A

Bacterial meningitis

86
Q
  • commonly caused from undercooked meat or fecal contamination
  • infants and elderly are most at risk
  • can cause HUS
A

E Coli

87
Q
  • airborne
  • causes diarrhea
  • often caused from long term antibiotic usage
A

C diff

88
Q
  • Most common upper and lower respiratory infection

- contains antigens called hemagglutinin and neuraminidase

A

Influenza

89
Q

How does chickenpox (varicella) reactive?

A

Shingles

90
Q

What condition is treated with an anti fungal medication for disruption of the normal flora?

A

Candida

91
Q

You can get this infection by consuming contaminated food or water by ingesting the cyst form.

A

Giardiasis

92
Q
  • brain has spongy appearance
  • progressive death of brain’s nerve cells
  • fatal within weeks or months
A

Creurzfeldt-Jakob

93
Q

What is type I hypersensitivity?

A

Immediate hypersensitivity

94
Q

What are allergies? (Can include anaphylaxis)

A

Type I hypersensitivity

95
Q

What type of hypersensitivity is cytotoxic (incorrect blood transfusion)?

A

Type II

96
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity is delayed? (Ex: poison ivy)

A

Type IV

97
Q

What kind of hypersensitivity is type III?

A

Immune complex (ex: autoimmune disorders)

98
Q

What autoimmune disorder is characterized by a butterfly rash on the face and damage to the kidneys?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematous

99
Q

What autoimmune disorder attacks the synovial fluids in the joints?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

100
Q

What autoimmune disorder is characterized by splayed appearance of fingers?

A

RA

101
Q

What autoimmune disorder is known as systemic sclerosis?

A

scleroderma

102
Q

What autoimmune disorder can CREST syndrome occur?

A

Scleroderma

103
Q

What autoimmune disorder causes abnormal accumulation of fibrous tissue in the skin and organs?

A

Scleroderma

104
Q

How many stages does HIV have?

A

3 (Acute, chronic, aids)

105
Q

HIV attacks what?

A

CD4 (Helper T Cells) and macrophages

106
Q

HIV does what to the immune system?

A

Slowly depletes it

107
Q

What is the period in HIV where the antibody goes from negative to positive?

A

Seroconversion

108
Q

When does the seroconversion period of HIV take place?

A

2 weeks to 6 months after exposure

109
Q

What is the period called from the contraction of the virus to the antibody development?

A

Window period

110
Q

What is the period of HIV called where the virus particles increase in the blood and the Helper T Cells decrease?

A

Latent period

111
Q

As helper T Cells decrease, patients are more vulnerable to what?

A

Opportunistic infections

112
Q

How long can the latent period of HIV take place?

A

6 months-10 years

113
Q

What WBC responds due to bacterial infection?

A

Neutrophils

114
Q

What WBC responds due to inflammation, chronic infection, malignancy, or autoimmune disorders?

A

Monocytes

115
Q

What WBC responds due to an allergic reaction?

A

Eosinophils

116
Q

What WBC responds due to parasitic infection or allergic reaction?

A

Basophils

117
Q

What responds due to viral infection?

A

Lymphocytes

118
Q

What is the normal WBC count?

A

4100-10900

119
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

WBC less than 4100

120
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

WBC count more than 10,900

121
Q

What is a WBC greater than 50000 not related to leukemia called?

A

Leukemoid reaction

122
Q

What is the elevated levels of neutrophils called?

A

Neutrophilia

123
Q

What is the deceased levels of neutrophils called?

A

Neutropenia

124
Q

Where can hematologic neoplasms be found?

A
  • Blood (leukemia)
  • lymph (lymphomas)
  • bone marrow
125
Q

What is a Philadelphia chromosome?

A

Abnormality in chromosomes 9 and 22 where translocation has occurred

126
Q

Cancer of developing WBCs in the bone marrow leading to an over proliferation of cells that do not function

A

Leukemia

127
Q

Most leukemia symptoms are a result of overproduction of WBCs that do what to other blood cells?

A

Crowd them out

128
Q

A leukemia arising from cancerous myeloid WBCs

A

Myelocytic leukemia

129
Q
  • cause by a proliferation of undifferentiated blast myeloid cells
  • normal cell production of other blood cells is reduced
  • cells can infiltrate spleen, liver, lungs and skin
  • risk includes precious cancer tx and radiation exposure
A

Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)

130
Q
  • caused by an overproduction of mature myeloid cells

- arises from oncogene mutation or exposure to radiation

A

Chronic Myelocytic Leukemia (CML)

131
Q

What are the three stages of CML?

A
  1. Chronic
  2. Accelerated
  3. Blast
132
Q

A leukemia arising from cancerous lymphoid WBCs

A

Lymphocytic Leukemia

133
Q
  • more common in children
  • survival rates better in children
  • the stem cell precursors for t and b lymphocytes do not function so cells do not mature past lymphoblastic stage
  • lymphoblasts crowd out other cells
A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

134
Q
  • most common leukemia in the US
  • effects mostly B cells
  • common in adults and elderly
  • looks like mature B cells, but does not function as such
  • 80% caused by chromosomal abnormality
A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

135
Q

What is the most common blood cancer in the US?

A

Lymphomas

136
Q
  • 17% of all lymphoma cases
  • most common in young adults
  • malignancy of b lymphocytes
  • cause unk, 50% have ebv
  • presence of Reed Sternberg cells
  • solid non painful lymph engorgement
A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

137
Q
  • 83% of all lymphomas
  • more common in adults
  • over 30 subsets
  • can be relayed to b, t, or nk cells
  • chromosomal abnormality linked to cause
A

Non-hodgkins lymphoma

138
Q

What stage of lymphoma is characterized by two or more lymph nodes above and below the diaphragm?

A

Stage 3

139
Q

What stage of lymphoma is characterized by a localized disease; single lymph node region or single organ?

A

Stage 1

140
Q

What stage of lymphoma is characterized by two or more lymph node regions on the same side of the diaphragm?

A

Stage 2

141
Q

What stage of lymphoma is characterized by widespread disease; multiple organs with or without lymph involvement?

A

Stage 4

142
Q
  • A generalized disorder that leads to bone distraction, bone marrow failure, renal failure, and neurological complications
  • Excess of synthesized abnormal immunoglobulin and I G fragments referred to monoclonal proteins or m-proteins
  • Lytic lesions on bones may be present
A

Multiple myeloma

143
Q

What are the two major categories of red blood cell disorders?

A

overabundance and Deficiency

144
Q

Over abundance of red blood cells have how many forms?

A

2 (primary and secondary polycythemia)

145
Q

An excess of all blood cell types which is characterized by low erythropoietin

A

Primary polycythemia

146
Q

Caused by prolong hypoxia as in chronic obstructive pulmonary disorder, it is characterized by high erythropoietin

A

Secondary polycythemia

147
Q

What are the ways anemia can occur?

A
  • Acute/chronic blood loss
  • problems with bone marrow RBC production
  • lack of erythropoietin or maturation defects of RBC (related to low iron, folate, and B12)
148
Q

What type of anemia is due to RBC formation not able to keep with RBC breakdown?

A

Increased Hemolysis

149
Q

What is an example of increased hemolysis?

A

Hemoglobinopathies (sickle cell anemia and thalassemia)

150
Q

Renal failure does what to erythropoietin production?

A

Deceased it

151
Q

An increase in RBCs in the body that causes blood to be thicker increasing the risk of clots

A

Polycythemia

152
Q

What are the normal values for RBCs for men and women?

A

Men: 4.5-5.5
Women: 4.0-4.9

153
Q

What are the normal HGB values of men and women?

A

Men: 13-18
Women: 12-16

154
Q

What is the normal HCT for men and women?

A

Male: 45-55%
Female: 37-48%

155
Q

The three RBC values typically sit how close with one another?

A

1/3rd

156
Q

What is low levels of RBCs called?

A

Anemia

157
Q

What can primary polycythemia cause?

A

Thrombosis formation

158
Q

Which Polycythemia is more common?

A

Secondary

159
Q

What are the normal platelet levels?

A

150,000-400,000

160
Q

What is thrombocytosis?

A

Platelet levels greater than 750,000

161
Q

Where does primary thrombocytosis occur?

A

Bone marrow

162
Q

How does secondary thrombocytosis occur?

A
  • bleeding
  • removal of spleen
  • trauma
  • infections
  • hemolysis
163
Q

How does Increased coagulation activity happen?

A
  • stasis of blood

- coagulation factors

164
Q

Bleeding disorders happen how many ways?

A

2 (deceased platelet numbers or defective coagulation)

165
Q

What is thrombocytopenia?

A

Platelet levels below 100,000

166
Q

What is characterized by an abnormality in von Willebrand factor which causes platelet adhesion and results in vascular occlusion?

A

Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (TTP)

167
Q

What is an X linked disorder in which the clotting cascade is disrupted?

A

Hemophilia

168
Q

What lack of factors are involved in hemophilia?

A

Factors 8 and 9

169
Q

What typically results in renal failure, hemolysis, and thrombocytopenia (commonly preceded by e coli infection)?

A

HUS (hemolytic uremic syndrome)

170
Q

What condition results when fibrin clots are formed rapidly, using up coagulation factors, and increasing risk of bleeding?

A

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

171
Q
  • More than 1500 meds are associated with this

- antibody attack on platelets in the presence of certain drugs

A

Drug-induced thrombocytopenia

172
Q

Which medications are most commonly associated with drug-induced thrombocytopenia?

A

Heparin and aspirin

Pathophysiology (8 decks)

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