Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Foundations Of Nursing > Test 4-Peds > Flashcards

Test 4-Peds Flashcards

1
Q

Motor vehicle accidents (MVAs) are the number one threat in which age group?

A

Adolescence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are two mechanisms that can provide protection in a MVA?

A
  • car seats

- seat belts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which age group is at the highest risk of drowning?

A

Infants and Toddlers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which population is vulnerable to choking?

A

Younger population

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Infants are most at risk for suffocation due to what?

A

Laying face down in a crib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who are at risk of choking on foods, balloons, or plastic bags?

A

young children

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What must a healthcare professional do as soon as they find an equipment is not working?

A

Label it as nonworking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Where should nonworking equipment be placed?

A

In a space specifically for repair; away from patient care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Any kind of outside electronic equipment brought in by the patient must have what happen to it?

A

Inspected by the engineering department before being plugged into a wall outlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the RACE response?

A

Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do sharps injuries typically take place?

A
  • In a high stress environment

- a place that has frequent use of needles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are three ways to prevent a sharps injury?

A
  • use of a needless system
  • NEVER recap a needle once used on a patient
  • sharps awareness (know where needle is at all times)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Any stick on puncture injury carries risk of what?

A
  • Hep Viruses
  • HIV
  • Bloodborne pathogens
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What three ways can violence present itself in the workplace?

A
  1. verbal
  2. making threats
  3. physical attack (often last resort)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the key prevention in workplace violence?

A

Recognizing behavioral patterns (identifies opportunities to intervene early)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are 5 things you should do to prevent workplace violence?

A
  • remain calm/provide reassurance
  • validate frustrations by hearing concerns
  • be mindful of body language
  • speak cautiously (gentle)
  • have boundaries
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are 5 things you should NOT do in the event of workplace violence?

A
  • respond with anger
  • be defensive
  • turn your back
  • touch an unrestrained patient
  • wear loose jewelry or things hanging from body
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In RACE, what should you do in R?

A

Rescue- The very first step of your emergency evacuation plan is ensuring all people inside the premises are taken to safety.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

In RACE, what should you do in A?

A

Alarm- Informing emergency services and sounding all internal alarms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In RACE, what should you do in C?

A

Contain- Once people are evacuated and the authorities are informed, your focus should move to containing the fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In RACE, what should you do in E?

A

Extinguish- Staff who are trained should operate fire extinguishers and other fire fighting equipment and attempt to put out the blaze as best as possible, without putting themselves in danger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is does the fall risk acronym of DAME stand for?

A

D- Drugs and Alcohol
A- Age Related Changes
M- Medical Factors
E- Environmental Factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

In DAME, what assessment should be done in D?

A

D-Drugs and Alcohol

  • look and see what meds the patient takes; how many
  • side effects of meds
  • med interactions
  • does the patient drink alcohol?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In DAME, what assessment should be done in A?

A

A-Age Related Changes

  • Evaluate patient’s gait
  • Do they have sensory impairment?
  • Any vision/hearing loss?
  • Urinary frequency/incontinence
  • is neuropathy present?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

In DAME, what assessment should be done in M?

A

M- Medical factors

  • Review pt’s med hx
  • Look at reason for being admitted
  • What they’re being treated for
  • Any dysfunctions?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In DAME, what assessment should be done in E?

A

E- Environmental Factors

  • Do their shoes fit well?
  • Evaluate cleanliness of home
  • Evaluate for spills or trip hazards
  • Lightening of living environment should be assessed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is are the three levels of fall risk?

A
  • Low
  • Moderate
  • High
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How is the level of fall risk determined?

A

By what kind and how many interventions are needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name 5 HOSPITAL fall risk preventions

A
  1. keep call light within reach
  2. use fall mats next to patient’s bed
  3. use visual cues to alert staff of pt’s fall risk (colored socks/signs)
  4. Manage medications to reduce side effects
  5. Use a bed/chair alarm to alert if patient gets up
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Name 5 HOME fall risk preventions

A
  1. Keep assistive devices nearby
  2. Reduce clutter/clear pathways
  3. Encourage use of home-installed assistive devices
  4. Educate pt to not rush getting up
  5. Evaluate pt for proper fitting shoes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

If a patient begins to fall, what should a person do?

A

Help the patient safely complete fall (protect their head)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What kind of restraints are the standard of care?

A

No restraints; a restraint-free environment is the standard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

When should restraints be applied?

A
  • If the patient’s behavior is interfering with their ability to receive medical treatment
  • Pt is attempting to cause harm to self or others
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When are behavioral restraints used?

A

Used for patients who are threat to themselves or others’ safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Example of a patient who needs behavioral restraints?

A

Patient experiencing psychotic episode

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When are medical restraints used?

A

When a patient is confused and is interfering with medical interventions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Example of a patient who needs medical restraints

A

A patient pulling out IVs or tubes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What kind of intervention are restraints?

A

Dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How often does an order for restraints need renewed?

A

Every 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When can the application or removal of restraints be delegated?

A

Only for short periods of time (ex: if pt needs to use restroom)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Skin assessment while restrained and need for restraints is whose responsibility?

A

Nurse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the primary defenses of the immune system?

A
  • the skin
  • normal flora of the skin and GI tract
  • cilia (in the respiratory tract)
  • chemical composition of tears and saliva
  • acidity of vaginal fluids or urine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the secondary defenses of the immune system?

A

-Immune cells within our body (ex: WBCs or systemic responses that are activated by inflammation pathway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are the tertiary defenses of the immune system?

A

-things we provider our patients in order to provide immunity (ex: immunizations) [external interventions]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What PPE is required for contact precautions?

A
  • standard precautions
  • hand hygiene
  • gloves
  • gown
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What PPE is required for droplet precautions?

A
  • *standard precautions
  • hand hygiene
  • gloves
  • gown
  • mask
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What PPE is required for airborne precautions?

A
  • private room with negative pressure

- N95 mask

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Tuberculosis requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Private room
  • Immunization can be offered
  • Airborne droplet precautions (N95 mask/room with negative pressure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Lice requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Contact precautions (gloves, gown)

- can be cohorted with pt with same condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Measles requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Private room
  • Immunization can be offered
  • Airborne droplet precautions (N95 mask/room with negative pressure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Influenza requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Droplet precautions (gloves, gown, mask)
  • Remain 3 feet away if possible
  • Can be cohorted with pt with same condition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

MRSA requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Contact precautions (gloves, gown)

- can be cohorted with pt with same condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Chicken pox requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Private room
  • Immunization can be offered
  • Airborne droplet precautions (N95 mask/room with negative pressure)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

CDiff requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Contact precautions (gloves, gown)

- can be cohorted with pt with same condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Meningitis requires what kind of isolation precautions?

A
  • Droplet precautions (gloves, gown, mask)
  • Remain 3 feet away if possible
  • Can be cohorted with pt with same condition
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do objective assessments of infection include? (4)

A
  • Physical appearance
  • Physical assessment findings
  • Vital Signs
  • Labs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does a CBC look for in an infection?

A

WBC count- elevated if infection is present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What do cultures look for in an infection?

A

presence of bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What do titers look for in an infection?

A

Previous exposure to a pathogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What does C-reactive protein (CRP) and Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) look for in an infection?

A

Chronic inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What two age groups are at the highest risk of infections?

A
  • infants

- elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What risk factor will inhibit the secondary defenses of the immune system intentionally?

A
  • chemotherapy
  • immunosuppressants
  • steroids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What two vital signs will be elevated as part of the immune system?

A
  • Temperature

- Heart rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What actually cleans the hands when using soap and water?

A

Friction and rinsing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is a never event?

A

An event that is preventable, but presents serious risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

The freedom to choose and make decisions

A

autonomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Actions that will benefit others

A

beneficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Avoid causing harm (intentionally or unintentionally)

A

Non-maleficence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Acting fairly to all

A

Justice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Telling the truth

A

Veracity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Keeping promises; maintaining confidentiality

A

Fidelity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

T/F: Informed consent must be witnessed

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Children over what age may sign an assent form

A

8 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Affirms the child’s participation and helps the child understand his or health- ensures the child is not unduly influenced

A

Assent form

75
Q

Teaching and rewarding desirable behavior and decreasing or eliminating undesirable behavior

A

Discipline

76
Q

A negative consequence applied for undesirable behavior

A

Punishment

77
Q

What are three appropriate discipline strategies?

A
  1. maintain a positive/supportive child/caregiver relationship
  2. use positive reinforcements
  3. remove positive reinforcements for negative behaviors
78
Q

Freud’s oral passive stage is typically geared to what age group?

A

1-6 months

79
Q

Freud’s oral aggressive stage is geared to what age group?

A

6 months-1 year

80
Q

What happens in the oral passive stage?

A

Infant receives gratification through sucking/eating

81
Q

What happens in the oral aggressive stage?

A

Infant bites for pleasure

82
Q

Erikson’s Trust Vs Mistrust

A
  • Birth to One Year
  • “Hope”
  • Quality of Caregiver (biggest impact)
  • Negative: Fear or suspicion
83
Q

Erikson’s Autonomy Vs Shame and Doubt

A
  • Ages 1-3
  • “Will”
  • Begins to assert independence
  • Encourage child to problem solve
  • Negative: shame
84
Q

Erikson’s Initiative Vs Guilty

A
  • Ages 4-6
  • Learns to take initiative
  • “Purpose”
  • Can feel guilt if not living up to expectations
  • Negative: Inadequacy
85
Q

Erikson’s Industry vs Inferiority

A
  • Ages 6-12
  • Learns difference of work/play
  • “Competence”
  • Negative: Inferiority
86
Q

Erikson’s Identity vs Role Confusion

A
  • Ages 12-20
  • “Fidelity”
  • Role confusion can occur
  • Explores independence
  • Negative: Rebellion
87
Q
  • Behavior and judgements based on experience
  • Obedience=reward
  • Withholding love leads to guilt
  • Obedience vs Punishment
  • Ages 3-7
A

Kohlberg’s Premoral or Preconventional Stage

88
Q
  • Wants to follow rules (8-10) “Good Boy”

- Believes in rules for good relationships (10-12) “Law and Order”

A

Kohlberg’s Conventional Level

89
Q
  • View of morality transcends laws and rules
  • Believes in higher rules/values
  • Self acceptable principles
  • Adult
A

Kohlberg’s Post conventional Level

90
Q
  • Ethical principles and conscience governs acts
  • Not everyone reaches this stage
  • Adult
A

Kohlberg’s Human Rights Concept

91
Q
  • Cognitive ability
  • Sensorimotor 0-2 years
  • Reflexes: Birth to 4 months
A

Piaget Sensorimotor: Cognitive Abilitiy

92
Q
  • 1-4 months
  • Coordinating sensation and then repeating them for pleasure
  • Voluntary activity replaces reflex
  • Object permanence begins at 4 months
A

Piaget Sensorimotor: Primary Circular Reactions

93
Q
  • 4-12 months
  • Focused more on the words/repeats action (4-8 mo)
  • Intentional actions (8-12 mo)
  • Associates acts with response
  • Object permanence by 9 months
A

Piaget Sensorimotor: Secondary Circular

94
Q
  • Early representational thought
  • Mental operations done by trial and error
  • Judges right from wrong by amount of damage done
A

Piaget’s Preoperational

95
Q
  • Connects things that are unrelated if they occur together or appear similar
  • Egocentric
  • Transductive Reasoning
  • Ages 2-4
A

Piaget’s Preoperational Though

96
Q
  • No logical thinking/magical thinking
  • Centration (look at one thought at a time)
  • Animism
  • Intuitive Thought
  • Time—poor concept of time
  • Ages 4-7
A

Piaget Preoperational Thought

97
Q
  • Starts to think logically but no abstract though
  • Begins to understand cause and effect
  • Considers alternative solutions
  • Can articulate processes
  • Learns different view points
  • Ages 7-11
A

Piaget Concrete Operational Thoughts

98
Q
  • Deductive logic
  • Considers themselves to be exceptional
  • Hypothetical reasoning
  • 11 years-adult
A

Piaget Formal Operations/Abstract Thought

99
Q

What are the four types of parenting styles?

A
  1. Authoritative
  2. Authoritarian
  3. Permissive
  4. Rejecting/neglecting
100
Q

Signs and symptoms of lead poisoning

A
  • blood levels 5ug/ml or higher
  • headaches
  • irritability
  • cognitive impairments
  • stomach pain
  • problems with coordination
  • problems with language and speech
  • inattentiveness
  • hearing problems
  • seizures
101
Q

What are 4 toilet training tips?

A
  1. Use gentle approach (no criticism)
  2. Remain calm and positive
  3. If potty is unavailable, face forward on toilet
  4. Use potty after meal
    * Diaper may still be needed at night
102
Q

Tripod sits

A

6 months

103
Q

Sits from standing position; walks independently

A

12 months

104
Q

Pulls to stand; “Cruises”

A

10 months

105
Q

Sits unsupported

A

8 months

106
Q

Sits alone with some use of hands

A

7 months

107
Q

Crawls; abdomen off the floor

A

9 months

108
Q

What age does stranger anxiety typically begin to develop?

A

8 months

109
Q

Coos, other vocalizations, and demonstrates differentiated crying

A

1-3 months

110
Q

Simple vowel sounds, laughs aloud, performs “raspberries,” responds to his or her name and “no”

A

4-5 months

111
Q

Squealing and yelling; may express joy or displeasure

A

6 months

112
Q

Attaches meaning to mama and dada; tries to imitate sounds

A

9-12 months

113
Q

1-3 recognizable words, recognizes objects by name, may say “ugh-oh”

A

12 months

114
Q

Begins to babble

A

8 months

115
Q

Improves head control

A

2 months

116
Q

Fists mostly clenched

A

1 month

117
Q

First real smile

A

2 months

118
Q

Holds hands in front of face; hands open

A

3 months

119
Q

Bats at objects, lifts head and looks around; rolls from prone to supine

A

4 months

120
Q

By ____ months, infant should double their birthweight.

A

6

121
Q

Grasps rattles; rolls from supine to prone and back

A

5 months

122
Q

Releases object to grasp another object

A

6 months

123
Q

Transfers objects from one hand to another and enjoys interactive games

A

7 months

124
Q

Offers objects to others and releases them

A

11 months

125
Q

Fine pincer grasp; puts objects in container and takes them out

A

10 months

126
Q

Infants typically triple their birthweight by which age?

A

1 year old

127
Q

Cups, bowls, buckets, large building blocks, balls, dolls, board books with large pictures, and toy telephones are all great toys for which age group?

A

12 months

128
Q

Bangs objects together

A

9 months

129
Q

Climbs upstairs with help; pulls toys while walking

A

18 months

130
Q

Can begin to run; knows how to kick a ball; climbs up and down furniture without assistance

A

24 months

131
Q

Stacks blocks, puts things in slots, turn pages, remove shoes/socks, can build four blocks

A

18 months

132
Q

Can build tower of 6/7 blocks, turns knobs, puts pegs in holes

A

24 months

133
Q

Can follow a one-step command without gesture; understands 100-150 words; repeats words they hear

A

15 months

134
Q

Vocabulary of 40-50 words

A

24 months

135
Q

Understands “no,” can comprehend 200 words, uses 5-20 words

A

18 months

136
Q

Can stand on tiptoe

A

24 months

137
Q

Vocabulary of 150-300 words

A

2 years old

138
Q

Climbs well, pedals tricycle, runs easily, walks up and down stairs with alternate feet, bends easily without falling

A

3 years

139
Q

Can build tower of 9-10 blocks

A

3 years

140
Q

Has a 1000 word vocabulary

A

3 years

141
Q

Throws ball overhead, draws circles and squares, can speak in complete sentences

A

4 years

142
Q

Counts to 10

A

5 years

143
Q

Somersaults and swings well; can understand most speech-vocabulary of 2100 words

A

5 years

144
Q

Stands on one foot for 5+ seconds

A

4 years

145
Q

How long should a car seat face backward?

A

Until at least 2 years old

146
Q

What are three things to consider when installing a car seat?

A
  • Correct type
  • Position of the child in the carseat
  • Properly securing carseat to vehicle
147
Q
  • Mobiles with contrasting colors
  • Unbreakable mirror
  • Soft music via tape or music box
  • Soft, bright colored toys
A

0-1 months

148
Q
  • Bright mobile
  • Unbreakable mirror
  • Rattles
  • Singing by parent/caregiver
  • High contrast patterns in books or images
A

1-4 months

149
Q
  • Plastic cups, bowls, or buckets
  • Large building blocks
  • Busy boxes
  • Balls
  • Dolls
  • Board books
  • Toy telephone
  • Push-pull toys
  • Stacking toys
A

8-12 months

150
Q
  • Fabric or board books
  • Different types of music
  • Easy to hold toys (fancy rattles)
  • Floating, squirting bath toys
  • Soft dolls or animals
A

4-7 months

151
Q
  • familiar household items (bowls, cups, utensils, ect)
  • child-size household item toys (kitchen, broom, ect)
  • blocks, cars, trucks, animals, plastic figures
  • manipulative toys with handles and knobs
  • Gross motor toys
  • tapes or cd players
  • chalk, crayons, finger paints
  • bath toys
A

Toddler toys

152
Q
  • Blocks
  • Jigsaw puzzles
  • Creativity supplies (chalk, paint, ect)
  • Puppets
  • Dress up clothes
  • Bath toys
  • Sandbox
  • Dolls
  • Blocks, legos, cars/trucks, plastic animals
  • Simple board games
  • Dollhouse
A

Preschool toys

153
Q

Breastmilk or formula until how old?

A

6 months of age

154
Q

Soft and mashed food for infants until when

A

teeth erupt

155
Q

Food can be introduced when _______

A

tongue extrusion reflex disappears

156
Q

What foods should an infant avoid?

A
  • honey
  • popcorn
  • small hard foods
  • foods that can cause allergic reactions
157
Q

What should be the total daily fat intake for toddlers?

A

20-30% of total calories

158
Q

What should be the total fat intake for preschoolers?

A

10-35% of total calories

159
Q

What should the nutritional breakdown of carbs, proteins and fats be for school age children and adolescents?

A
  • 45-65% carbs
  • 10-30% proteins
  • 25-35% fats
160
Q

Infants usually engage in this kind of play

A

Solitary

161
Q

What is solitary play?

A

Play where the infant does not share or directly play with other infants

162
Q

What type of play do toddlers usually engage in?

A

Parallel play (play alongside other children rather than cooperatively)

163
Q

What type of play do preschoolers engage in?

A
  • Associative play (engaged in mutual activity, but not working towards a common goal)
  • Cooperative play (using imagination to play with friends)
164
Q

What type of play do school aged children and adolescents usually engage in?

A
  • Cooperative play
  • Team play (sports)
  • Solitary play (video games)
165
Q

Which age group should be offered 3 full meals and two snacks a day?

A

Toddlers

166
Q

What is the least effective disciplining method?

A

Spanking

167
Q

Adolescents engage in what kind of behavior?

A

Risky

-Education about substance abuse, sexual health, and tobacco is important for this age group

168
Q

What are the five barriers to care?

A
  1. Financial
  2. Ethnic
  3. Sociocultural
  4. Health Care Delivery System
  5. Personal Biases
169
Q

Follows a series of two independent commands; 150-300 word vocabulary

A

30 months

170
Q

Follows a 3-part command; speech understood by family; asks “why?”; 3-4 word sentences; 1000 words

A

3 years

171
Q

Teens require what increased nutrients

A

Calcium, Zinc, Iron

172
Q

Preschooler up until the age of 4, should sit in what kind of car seat?

A

Forward-facing with harness and top tether

173
Q

What are the booster seat recommendations?

A
  • Up until 4’9” (57 inches)

- And ages 8-12 are reached

174
Q

Children should not sit in the front seat of a car until what age?

A

13 years old

175
Q

When can a child sit with only a seatbelt?

A

-After he/she reaches 57 inches

176
Q

What are the common fears of a toddler?

A
  • Loss of parents
  • Fear of strangers
  • Toddlers may also be afraid of loud noises or afraid of the dark
177
Q

What are common fears of preschoolers?

A
  • Loud noises
  • Imaginary monsters
  • Afraid of people they do not know
  • Afraid of the dark
  • Body mutilation
178
Q

What are common fears of school age children?

A
  • Real life things (death, natural disasters, getting hurt)
  • Fear of being kidnapped
  • Dogs or other animals
179
Q

When punishing an adolescent, what should the parent/caregiver do?

A

Incorporate autonomy with the teen

180
Q

Which theorist is based on the concept of rule-following?

A

Kohlberg

181
Q

A child cries out that the CT scan is going to eat her, what kind of behavior is the child displaying?

A

Animism

182
Q

What is the major challenge of formation to an adolescent’s identity?

A

Changing bodies

183
Q

What is the most important consideration when a nurse is educating a child?

A

Their developmental level

Foundations Of Nursing (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions