Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL2045 > Epigenetic control of development > Flashcards

Epigenetic control of development Flashcards

1
Q

LO

A

LO

Lecture 1

  • Epigenetics
  • What does epigenetics mean
  • Epigenetic modifications
  • DNA methylation
  • Histone modifications
  • Non-coding RNAs
  • Early Development
  • MZT

Lecture 2

  • Development & epigenetics
  • TE/ICM differentiation
  • establishment of Tissue specific gene expression
  • Effect of early life environment
  • Maternal environment
  • Paternal effects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What type of control do genes have in development?

A

They have temporal control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of tissue specific control do genes have?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Even though cells have the same DNA, what makes them different?

A
  • Cells all have the same DNA
  • It’s in the mRNA
  • Make sure right genes are switched on in the right cells
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does epigenetic gene regulation ensure?

A

That genes are expressed in the right place at the right time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the definition of epigenetics?

A

Definition: Processes that induced long term stable changes in gene activity without a change in gene sequence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why does a cloned cat show the importance of epigenetics?

A

A cloned cat shows the importance of epigenetics: although same DNA they are epigenetically distinct. Hence why carbon copy of animals shows physical differences

(look up photo of rainbow and Carbon copy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the major epigenetic processes?

A
  1. DNA methylation
  2. Histone modification
  3. non-codign RNAs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Tell me about where DNA methylation occurs?

A
  • Cytosine is methylated to 5-methyl cytosine
  • 90% of methylated cytosine is found as a dinucleotide CpG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How does DNA methylation affect gene transcription?

A
  • Methylation prevents the RNA polymerase binding and therefore transcription of gene occurring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the enzymes involved in DNA methylation and what is the role of each?

A

DNA methyl transferases (DNMTs)

  • DNMT1: maintenance DNMT (copies marks from old strand onto the newly synthesised ones)
  • DNMT3a and 3b: de novo DNMTs (establishes new methylation marks in the first place)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the DNA demethylase enzymes?

A

TET enzymes (ten-eleven translocation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What do the TET enzymes do?

A

DNA demethylases: TET enzymes

Tet converts 5- methyl Cytosine (5mC) to 5-hydroxymethylcytosine (5hmC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the state of histone govern?

A

The accessibility of DNA to RNA pol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is chromatin a combination of?

A

Chromatin= DNA + histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Whats a nucleosome and what is its structure?

A
  • They are the basic unit of chromatin
  • Have 4 different histone subunits: 2x H2a, 2xH2b, 2xH3 and 2x H4
  • Histones are positively charged in order to interact with the negatively charged DNA to create a tight binding site
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are nucleosome further packaged to form?

A

Nucleosomes are further packaged to form a 20nm fibre or solenoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A solenoid

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the type of binding in a solenoid and what does this determine?

A

The binding may be loose or tight (depends on state of histones)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What 2 domains does the histone have?

A
  1. Globular domain (C- terminal)
  2. Amino tail domain (N-terminal, lots of lysine’s)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The histone tails are subject to modification

What does the position and type of modification of the tail determine?

A

Whether binding is loose or tight DNA is in an open or condensed form Gene is active or repressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is histone acetylation associated with?

A

Gene activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What happens in histone acetylation to promote increased gene activity?

A
  • The acetyl groups are present on the histone ‘tails’
  • The histones are no longer tightly packed
  • The promoter and target gene are now accessible to transcription factors and RNA polymerase
  • Acetylation of the lysine’s in the tail neutralises their charge (lysine’s are positively charged)
  • This reduces the affinity of the tail for the DNA
  • Opens up DNA allows RNA pol to bind and the gene to be active
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What enzyme is involved in lysine acetylation?

A

HAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the histone methylation effect dependent on?

A

Which lysine is methylated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Tell me the types of histone methylation and what their methylation is associated with?

A

H3K4 (histone 3 and lysine number 4): methylation associated with open structure & gene activity

H3K9/K27 methylation: closed structure & gene silencing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the histone code?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the three types of epigenetic modifiers?

A
  1. Writers
  2. Readers
  3. Erasers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the primary role of each of the epigenetic modifiers?

A

Writers: add groups

Erasers: remove groups

Readers: molecules that read and interpret the mark

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Give some examples of writers and what they add?

A

Writers: add groups

  • Histone acetyl transferases (HATs) add acetyl groups
  • Histone methyl transferases (HMTs) add methyl groups
  • DNA methyl transferases (DNMTs) add methyl groups to DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Give some examples of erasers and what they remove

A

Erasers: remove groups

  • Histone deacetylases (HDACs) -remove acetyl groups
  • Histone demethylases (HDMs)- remove methyl groups
  • DNA demethylases – remove methyl groups from DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Provide some examples of readers

A
  • Reader of Histone acetylation - SWI/SNF
  • Clears nucleosomes from promoter region
  • Reader of histone methylation at K9/K27 –HP1
  • HP1 – heterochromatin protein 1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Epigenetic modifiers

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Histone acetylation- writer and eraser interaction

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name a complex which has a key role in epigenetic writers and development

What are types and what does it have a role in?

A

Polycomb repressive complex (PRC)

  • PRC1 and PRC2 work together
  • PRC2 is thought to be the most important as it has catalytic activity
  • Catalytic subunit of PRC2 is EZH2 - a HMT (writer)
  • Mediates trimethylation of H3K27
  • Readers of H3k27me3: HP1
  • Ensures the right genes are expressed in the right cell types

The polycomb repressive complex 2 (PRC2) is a transcriptional repressor complex best known as a “writer” of H3K27 methylation, a chromatin mark associated with transcriptional repression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the two types of non-coding RNAs?

Tell me about each type and give examples

A

Non-coding RNAs (don’t code for proteins)

  • Small non-coding RNAs
  • Less than 200 bases
  • eg miRNAs, piRNAs, tRFs
  • know the most about miRNA
  • Long non-coding RNAs (LncRNAs)
  • Greater than 200 bases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is miRNA and what is its role?

A
  • small single-stranded non-coding RNAs of 21-25 nts in length
  • Bind to mRNA and induce their degradation or inhibit their translation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Tell me the steps to miRNAs function

A
  1. miRNA gene is transcribed by RNA pol II into primary miRNA
  2. this is then processed by a complex called Drosha into a pre-miRNA
  3. the pre-miRNA is then transported into the cytoplasm of the cell where it is then cleaved by a dicer into a mature miRNA
  4. this is loaded onto a complex known as risk which then takes the miRNA to its target messenger
  5. if binds to 3’ to messenger RNA then it induces it degradation in that cell (of the messenger)
  6. if binds to 5’ of messenger then it inhibits translation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

DNA methylation is associated with:

a. gene silencing
b. gene activation

A

a. gene silencing

40
Q

Histone acetylation leads to:

a. closed condensed structure
b. open relaxed structure

A

b. open relaxed structure

41
Q

Methylation of lysine H3K4 is associated with:

a. gene silencing
b. gene activation

A

b. gene activation

42
Q

A HAT is a:

a. eraser
b. writer
c. reader

A

b. writer

43
Q

A HDM is a:

a. writer
b. reader
c. eraser

A

c. eraser

44
Q

HDACs:

a. add methyl groups
b. add acetyl groups
c. remove methyl groups
d. remove acetyl groups

A

d. remove acetyl groups

45
Q

HP1

a. reader
b. writer
c. eraser

A

a. reader

46
Q

DNA methyl transferase is considered:

a. reader
b. writer
c. eraser

A

b. writer

47
Q

Tell me about gene expression in early embryos and during early cleavage

A
  • Messages (mRNAs) inherited from the oocyte (maternally inherited) regulate embryo development early on.
  • During early cleavage:

MZT: maternal-zygotic transition (maternal messenger RNA are in control, but at 2 cell stage they are degraded and the zygotic RNA comes into control)

ZGA: zygotic genome activation

48
Q

Tell me about MZT levels

A
  • Initially, the destruction of maternal mRNAs is accomplished by maternally encoded products – destabilise the mRNAs
  • Zygotic transcription leads to the production of miRNAs (miRNAs-430/270)
49
Q

Does MZT occur at different times across species?

A

Yes

50
Q

Tell me about cleavage

A

Cleavage:

  • Once the zygote is formed, it begins mitotic divisions to produce more cells
  • Cells are totipotent (as can differentiate into any adult cells and also form the placenta)
51
Q

Tell me about compaction, differentiation and cavitation during development

what cells are involved in each stage?

A

Compaction:

  • cells on the outer part of the morula become bound tightly together with the formation of desmosomes and gap junctions

Differentiation:

  • epithelial trophectoderm (TE; will form extraembryonic tissues such as placenta and cord)
  • undifferentiated Inner cell mass (ICM; will form embryo proper)

Cavitation: to form the blastocyst

52
Q

What is Oct4 a key regulator of?

A

Pluripotency

53
Q

Tell me about Oct4 and other factors involved in maintaining pluripotency

A
  • POU domain transcription factor
  • Works in conjunction with nanog and sox2 to maintain pluripotency
  • High levels of maternal expressed Oct4 in oocyte and zygote then switch to zygote oct4 (MZT)
  • Levels of oct4 on ICM drop down to allow cell differentiation
  • Oct4 comes down only when you need to differentiate cells
54
Q

Tell me about CDX2 and TE differentiation

A
  • CDX2 is a caudal-related homeobox transcriptional factor (TF) essential for TE formation during preimplantation development
  • Overexpression of CDX2 in embryonic stem cells (ESCs) is sufficient to differentiate ESCs into TE cells
  • Cdx2 null embryos: no TE cells, no implantation
55
Q

Summary

A
  • Epigenetic regulation of genes

- Define Epigenetics

- Understand what mechanisms epigenetics include

- DNA methylation

- Histone modification

- Non-coding RNAs

  • Role of epigenetics in development

- MZT/ZGA

- ICM/TE differentiation

56
Q

LO II

A
  • ICM/TE differentiation
  • Tissue specific expression
  • Effect of the environment on the epigenome and development

- in vitro culture

- smoking

- Diet

57
Q

Tell me about the link between CDX2 cells and TE (tropoectoderm) cells differentiation

A
  • CDX2 is a caudal-related homeobox transcription factor (TF) essential for TE formation during preimplantation development
  • Overexpression of CDX2 in embryonic stem cells (ESCs) is sufficient to differentiate ESCs into TE cells
  • Cdx2 null embryos: no TE cells, no implantation
  • CDX2 also downregulates Oct4 and nanog in outer cells
58
Q

What signalling pathway determines TE/ICM fate?

A

The Hippo signalling pathway

59
Q

What two factors are associated in the Hippo signalling pathway?

A

TEAD4 (TF)

Co-activate Yap (an associated protein)

60
Q

What are the two models that are used for thr hippo signalling pathway?

A

Inside/out model

Cell polarity model

61
Q

Tell me about the inside/out model

A
  • Cell-cell adhesion means Hippo activated
  • Yap is phosphorylated and now cannot move into the nucleus of the cell
  • Meaning that the cells on the inside stay in an undifferentiated state
  • That’s why only cells on the outside differentiated and express Cdx2
62
Q

Tell me about the cell polarity model

A
  • Polarised have an apical and basal edge
  • Unphosphorylated Yat is only allowed into the nucleus to phosphorylate Cdx2
  • AMOT (angiomotin) interacts with polarity proteins to suppress LAT (linker of activated T cells) activity
  • Extensive cell adhesion activates LATS kinase to phosphorylate AMOT, in turn phosphorylates YAP
63
Q

In the ICM, what does Oct-4 maintain?

A

Pluripotency

64
Q

Tell me how Oct-4 maintains pluripotency, what involved thats important for this process?

A
  • Different cell types are produced due to the developmental control genes
  • These genes are controlled by dna methylation and histone regulation
65
Q

Tell me about differentiation and DNA methylation in maternal and paternal genome and how this changes from fertilisation to when they are able to differentiate

A
  • Following fertilization demethylation of the genome occurs
  • Methylation marks on the paternal genome removed 12-24 hours after fertilization
  • Removal of methylation marks on maternal genome complete by about 48 hours after fertilization
  • Totipotent cells at double black line
66
Q

Tell me about the potency in early embryonic cells, what’s switched on?

A

These cells are marked by both active and repressive markers

  • H3K4me3
  • H3K27me3
  • RNA Pol II
  • PRC2 complex
  • PRC1 complex

They are in a bivalent domain

67
Q

Tell me how bivalent domains are resolved

A
  • Keeps repressive marks if not needed for particular cell type
  • Genes permanently switch off when DNMT and HP1 binds
68
Q

Embryo and DNA methylation

A
69
Q

Change in potency during development

A
70
Q

Tell me about tissue specific expression

A
  • Embryonic cells
  • Neural cells
  • Cardiac muscle
  • No methylation across promotor region of gene (NT)
  • Contractile muscle are never required in this cell type (neurons), meth in promotor region, bound by HP1
71
Q

Early life environment can alter the epigenome

A
72
Q

When in the epigenome most susceptible?

A

In early life

73
Q

What type of processes can change epigenetic processes?

A

In vitro culture and assisted reproductive technologies can change epigenetic processes

74
Q

In, In vitro culture, tell me about the early phenotype and the offspring phenotype

A

Early phenotype

  • In vitro culture can affect mRNA expression in blastocysts
  • Expression of 5/11 genes involved in epigenetic and chromatin regulation was reduced

Offspring phenotype

In vitro culture can affect male offspring phenotype:

  • insulin resistance
  • aberrant testes gene expression
  • less sperm with reduced motility
  • reduced fertility
75
Q

In vitro culture…

A
76
Q

Large offspring syndrome

A

Abnormally large offspring observed after in vitro production or manipulation of farm animal embryos

77
Q

Are there epigenetic risks?

A

There is a substantial body of evidence that adversity in early life can lead to epigenetic changes associated with increased risk for disturbances of childhood mental health, more disordered developmental trajectories, poorer educational achievements, and lifelong risks of chronic disorders of health and well-being.

Risk of rare diseases such as Beckwith-Wiedemann and Angelmans syndrome increased 3.5-fold

78
Q

What two factors can be genetic risks?

A

Pollutants e.g., smoking

Nutrition

79
Q

Tell me about pollutants e.g., smoking and how this is a epigenetic risk

A
80
Q

Tell me about nutrition and the epigenome

A
81
Q

Methylation diet

A
82
Q

Maternal protein restriction induces a change in PPAR a methylation in foetal liver

A
83
Q

Tell me about the Dutch hunger winter

A
  • A period of severe food shortage in the Netherlands in 1944.
  • Energy intakes dropped from 1800 to between 400 and 800 kcal per day (equivalent 100 - 200g pasta).
  • Obesity, CVD, T2D (children born from pregnant mothers during this time was more at risk to these factors)
  • Alterations in DNA methylation has been shown in adult children from mothers who
  • Were exposed to famine during pregnancy compared to their non-exposed siblings
84
Q

Tell me effects of over nutrition

A

Over nutrition can also alter DNA methylation in the offspring

85
Q

What does maternal over nutrition lead to?

A

Maternal over nutrition leads to change in DNA methylation and increases adiposity in the child

86
Q

Tell me about the paternal effects

A
  • However recent studies have also suggested that paternal body composition or diet can also induce persistent metabolic changes in the offspring, suggesting sperm mediated epigenetic inheritance.
  • Studies in experimental models are beginning to identify the mediators of paternal intergenerational transmission
87
Q

What can the paternal environment affect

A
88
Q

Are the long term effects of paternal high fat diet mediated through non-coding RNAs?

A
89
Q

Does the sperm RNA transmit the signal about paternal environment to the offspring?

A
90
Q

Which RNA species contributes to the acquired metabolic disorder?

A
91
Q

tRFs- tRNA-derived small RNA fragments

A
92
Q

A mechanism to explain paternal effects?

A
93
Q

An adaptive process?

A
94
Q

The first 1000 days

A
95
Q

Summary II

A
  • Epigenetic regulation of genes

Define Epigenetics

Understand what mechanisms epigenetics include

DNA methylation

Histone modification

Non-coding RNAs

  • Role of epigenetics in development

MZT/ZGA

ICM/TE differentiation

establishment of Tissue specific gene expression

  • Effect of early life environment on the epigenome

IVF

Maternal nutrition

Paternal effects

BIOL2045 (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions