A-Fib Flashcards

1
Q

this is the dominant pacemaker in the heart as it has the fastest rate of depolarization

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

what is the path of conduction in the heart

A

SA node –> AV node –> bundle of HIS (left and right bundle branches) –> Purkinje fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

this wave on a normal ECG represents ventricular depolarization where the pressure inside the ventricles increase and the atrioventricular values shut

A

QRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

this wave on a normal ECG represents atrial depolarization where the valves between the atria and ventricles open

A

P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

this wave on a normal ECG represents ventricle depolarization where the ventricle walls relax and recovers from the contraction

A

T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are the two ways arrhythmias can form

A
  1. abnormal impulse formation
  2. abnormal impulse conduction (due to ischemic tissue)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

with a normal sinus rhythm, where does the impulse originate from?

A

SA node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

this represents a normal rate

A

60-100bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

this represents a normal rhythm

A

normal ECG pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

this occurs when the atria are contracting too fast, thus the ventricles are not being filled properly resulting in a decreased cardiac output. this occurs above the ventricles. it results in unsynchronized atrial contractions and irregular activation of the ventricles. it is usually characterized by an “irregularly irregular” pulse (irregular rate and irregular rhythm)

A

AFib / supra ventricular tachycarida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

in AFib, erratic electrical impulses in the upper chambers of the heart (atria) cause those chambers to fibrillate or quiver. this results in an irregular and frequently rapid heart rate. the irregular, __________ pattern in the ECG show these impulses

A

sawtooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

true or false: AFib is the most common arrhythmia and the risk increases with age

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

true or false: routine screening is recommended for AFib

A

false

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

true or false: if a patient is over 65 and they present to someone in the healthcare system, screening for A-fib should be done

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

if there are any abnomarlaities in pulse palpitation, blood pressure monitoring, Apple Watch/smartphone readings, etc. the patient should be referred to have this done

A

12-lead EKG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

this is a continuous AFib episode lasting longer than 30 seconds but terminating within 7 days of onset

A

paroxysmal AFib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

this is a continuous AFib episode lasting longer than 7 days but less than 1 year

A

persistant AFib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

this is continuous AFib > 1 year in duration in patients in whom rhythm control management is being pursued

A

“longstanding” persistant AFib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

this is continuous AFib for which a therapeutic decision has been made not to pursue sinus rhythm restoration (just doing rhythm control and leave them with abnormal ECG pattern)

A

permanent AFib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

AFib in the presence of any mechanical heart valve, or in the presence of moderate to severe mitral stenosis (Enlargement of the mitral valves)

A

valvular AFib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are the established risk factors for AFib

A
  • advancing age
  • male
  • HTN
  • HF with reduced ejection fraction
  • valvular heart disease
  • hyperthyroidism
  • obstructive sleep apnea
  • obesity
  • excessive alcohol intake
  • congenital heart disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the most common symptom of AFib

A

palpitations!!!!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are some other signs and symptoms of AFib

A
  • lightheaded
  • dyspnea
  • chest pain
  • fatigue
  • weakness/reduced exercise tolerance
  • syncope (fainting)
    *increased HR usually leads to these symptoms due to decreased cardiac output
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are some complications of AFib

A
  • angina
  • heart failure
  • cardiogenic stroke (atria are quivering and blood pools in the atria b/c not getting fully expelled; this can form a clot which can then be passed down into the ventricle which can go to the aorta and then the brain and get into a vessel that it cannot pass through causing a stroke)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
true or false: AFib related stroke are more fatal than non-AFib related strokes
true
25
what are the two main management strategies for AFib
rate control and rhythm control
26
how should a patient who is hemodynamically unstable (e.g. AF with hypotension, ACS or pulmonary edema) be treated?
direct current cardioversion (DCCV) / aka paddles
27
is rate or rhythm control normally used in these patients? < 65
rhythm control
28
is rate or rhythm control normally used in these patients? anti-arrhythmic ADRs
rate control
29
is rate or rhythm control normally used in these patients? > 65
rate control
30
is rate or rhythm control normally used in these patients? new onset AF (within a year)
rhythm control
31
is rate or rhythm control normally used in these patients? less symptomatic
rate control
32
is rate or rhythm control normally used in these patients? hypertension present
rate control
33
if a patient has paroxysmal AF (spastic episodes of AF / < 7 days), what are the treatment options?
if not frequent episodes: observation or PRN dose of anti-arrhytmic drug if experience frequent episodes: maintenance anti-arrhythmic drug *may lead to catheter ablation*
34
if a patient (hemodynamically stable) presents to the ER with sx's of AFib (increased HR), what is always the first step?
initiate rate control (e.g. beta-blocker, CCB) * KNOW THAT EVERYONE THAT COMES IN GETS RATE CONTROL*
35
what should you do if a patient is already on a beta-blocker and present with sxs of AFib
- make sure their dose of beta-blocker is correct - could add on another rate control agent (e.g. CCB) - switch to rhythm control
36
these two agents are the first-line agents for acute AFib rate control in patients without significant LV dysfunction (e.g. patients with an LVEF > 40%)
beta blockers or nondihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (e.g. diltiazem or verapamil)
37
what is used for acute AFib rate control in patients that have LVEF < 40%
bisoprolol, carvedilol or metoprolol
38
how is the choice between beta blockers and ND-CCBs made for acute rate control
based on comorbidities, contraindications and s/e profile
39
if IV rate control is given upon ER presentation for rapid control, why does the oral med need to be co-administered?
to avoid rebound tachycardia as IV formulation wears off
40
these two agents are only used for acute rate control in patients with significant LV dysfunction (LVEF < 40%), decompensated HF or hypotension when immediate electrical cardioversion is not indicated
IV amiodarone or IV digoxin *note: IV amiodarone not normally used for rate control and digoxin is usually an adjunct to beta-blocker or CCB if HR is not controlled
41
what's the target when titrating acute rate control
achieve a resting heart rate of < 100 bpm
42
true or false: long term rate control depends on whether or not there is inadequate symptom or heart rate control (resting heart rate > 100 bpm)
true
43
true or false: diltiazem has worse s/e than verapamil
false - verapamil has worse s/e profile
44
this is a method of acute rhythm control; an electrical shock synchronized with the intrinsic activity of the heart
direct current cardioversion (DCCV) / aka paddles
45
what is a disadvantage of DCCV
requires sedation/analgesia pt is usually fasting
46
this method of acute rhythm control is immediately feasible in a non-fasting patient and avoids delays and risks withs sedation
anti-arrhythmic drugs (AAD)
47
what is a main s/e of AAD
ventricular arrhythmias, torsades de pointes, hypotension
48
this class Ia agent is the most common AAD used for acute rhythm control. it is more effective for recent onset of AFib
Procainamide IV
49
when should Procainamide be avoided?
- hypotension - ischemic heart disease - HF - conduction system disease
50
should the following patients be given cardioversion as soon as possible or oral anticoagulation tx first? - valvular AF or - NVAF duration < 12 hrs and recent stroke/TIA or - NVAF duration 12-48 hrs and CHADS2 score of at least 2 or - NVAF duration > 48 hrs
therapeutic OAC for at least 3 weeks before cardioversion (need to reduce clot risk)
51
should the following patients be given cardioversion as soon as possible or oral anticoagulation tx first? - hemodynamocially unstable acute AF or - NVAF duration < 12 hrs and no recent stroke/TIA or - NVAF duration 12-48 hrs and CHADS2 score less than 2
cardioversion right away
52
what treatment should be initiated for ALL patients post cardioversion
anticoagulation for 4 weeks *note: Long term anticoagulation is based on CHADS-65 score*
53
describe the CHADS2 score
C - congestive heart failure (1 point) H - hypertension (>140/90) (1 point) A - age > 75 (1 point) D - diabetes mellitus (1 point) S2 - prior stroke or TIA (2 points)
54
what is the main reason cardioversion may be delayed in specific patients?
cadioversion could dislodge a formed clot causing a stroke
55
this is an alternative to the 3 week OAC treatment prior to cardioversion; the tip of the probe is inserted near the heart to see if there is a clot present. if there is no clot there, cardioversion may be done
transesophageal echocardiogram (TEE)
56
true or false: anticoagulation should be given just before cardioversion in all patients
false - given to patients who are hemodynamically unstable - give either a DOAC or if that is contraindicated, a dose of heparin or low molecular weight heparin with bridging to warfarin
57
when should maintenance AAD therapy be considered
in patients who remain symptomatic with rate control or in whom rate control does not work
58
which two AAD are contraindicated in CAD and HF
felcanide and propafenone
59
which AAD can be used in a patient with HF with LVEF < 40%
amiodarone
60
which AAD can be used in a patient with HF with LVEF > 40%
amiodarone & sotalol
61
which AAD can be used in patients with CAD
amiodarone, sotalol and dronedarone
62
which AAD can be used in patients that DONT have HF or CAD
amiodarone, sotalol, dronedarone, flecanide and propafenone
63
these are sodium channel blocking drugs. need to use concomitant AV nodal blocking drugs (e.g. beta0blockers) to prevent drug induced arrhythmia
flecanide and propafenone
64
what are the side effects of amiodarone
*THINK C THE GILLS* C - CNS (tremor, neuropathy) T - Thyroid H - heart (bradycardia, TdP) E - Eyes (photosensitivity) Gi - GI upset L - liver (hepatic toxicity) L - lungs (pulmonary toxicity) S - skin (photosensitivity)
65
this works on potassium channels and is also a beta-blocker. exhibits "reverse-use dependance" meaning at faster HR when potassium channels are being used more, the antiarryhtmic effect is less. biggest concern with use is QT prolongation and TdP
sotalol
66
when should sotalol be avoided?
- pre-existing QT prolongation - AV conduction disorder - renal impairment - LVEF < 40% - significant risk factors for TdP (women > 65 on diuretics or with renal impairment)
67
this is a multichannel blocking drug. has the highest efficacy of AAD but large s/e profile
amiodarone
68
when should amiodarone be avoided>
- AV node disorders - hepatitis/chornic liver disease - interstitial lung disease - QT prolongation - iodine hypersensitivity + many drug interactions
69
what should be monitored and how often if a patient is on amiodarone
monitor liver and thyroid function test every 6 months
70
this AAD is similar to amiodarone but has a shorter half life and less tissue accumulation
dronedarone
71
true or false: DOAC is preferred over warfarin for long term thromboprophylaxis
true
72
is long term thromboprophlyaxis needed in the following patient? over 65 y/o
yes: DOAC
73
is long term thromboprophlyaxis needed in the following patient? any of the CHADS2 risk factors
yes: DOAC
74
is long term thromboprophlyaxis needed in the following patient? CAD or peripheral arterial disease
yes: anti platelet therapy
75
what are some non Pharm therapy for arrhythmias
1. ablation 2. pacemakers 3. automatic implantable cardio-defibrillator