A+ Final (MC) Flashcards

(100 cards)

1
Q

Which Windows tool allows an administrator to decrypt a file that is not available because the user account that encrypted the file is no longer accessible?

a. Windows Defender
b. Windows File Protection
c. Cipher
d. Backup and Restore

A

c. Cipher

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2
Q

What is another name for a blue screen error which occurs when processes running in kernel mode encounter a problem ad Windows must stop the system?

a. stop error
b. kill error
c. break error
d. fault error

A

a. stop error

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3
Q

Which Windows tool can be used to identify a driver that is causing a problem by putting stress on selected drivers, causing the problem driver to crash?

a. File Signature Verification
b. Driver Verifier
c. Vista Memory Diagnostics
d. Problem Reports and Solutions

A

b. Driver Verifier

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4
Q

Which Windows tool monitors activity and alerts you if a running program appears to be malicious or damaging the system?

a. Event Viewer
b. Windows Defender
c. Reliability Monitor
d. Task Lister

A

b. Windows Defender

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5
Q

Which Windows utility can be used to view and modify partitions on hard drives and to format drives?

a. Disk Cleanup
b. Disk Defragmenter
c. Chkdsk
d. Disk Management

A

d. Disk Management

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6
Q

Which tool should be the first one to use when a blue screen error has occurred?

a. Memory Diagnostics
b. Action Center
c. System File Checker
d. Microsoft web site

A

d. Microsoft web site

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7
Q

What should be done if a system cannot boot from the hard drive?

a. Reinstall Windows
b. Boot from the Windows setup DVD
c. Run System File Checker
d. Replace the hard drive

A

b. Boot from the Windows setup DVD

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8
Q

What should be entered at a command prompt in order to scan all system files?

a. msinfo32 /verify
b. systeminfo /sysfiles
c. sfc /scannow
d. chkdsk /r

A

c. sfc /scannow

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9
Q

What is the most likely cause of an improper shutdown or system lockup?

a. hardware problem
b. Windows system error
c. memory leak
d. Application error

A

a. hardware problem

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10
Q

What should be tried whenever a system is caught in an endless cycle of restarts?

a. Run System File Checker
b. Reinstall Windows
c. Change the BIOS setup
d. Boot into Safe Mode

A

d. Boot into Safe Mode

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11
Q

Which of the following is true about moving a hard drive from a non-working computer to a working computer for the purposes of accessing the data on the drive?

a. you must install the drive in a drive bay
b. you must manually assign a drive letter
c. you must have an Administrator password before you can access the data on the drive
d. the drive must be initialized before you can access it

A

c. you must have an Administrator password before you can access the data on the drive

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12
Q

Which of the following is NOT a symptom of a problem with the electrical system?

a. there are no indicator lights
b. error codes or beeps come and go during booting
c. you see events in event viewer
d. the PC powers down unexpectedly

A

c. you see events in event viewer

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13
Q

Which of the following is NOT a solution to an overheating problem?

a. verify that cables are not obstructing airflow
b. remove the covers from empty expansion slots
c. be sure the case is not sitting on a carpet
d. remove dust from the power supply, vents, and cooler fans

A

b. remove the covers from empty expansion slots

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14
Q

What can you conclude if you heard one short beep during system boot?

a. a video problem
b. a memory error
c. all POST tests passed
d. a keyboard controller problem

A

c. all POST tests passed

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15
Q

Which of the following is NOT an FRU on a motherboard?

a. processor
b. RAM
c. CMOS battery
d. chipset

A

d. chipset

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16
Q

Which message are you likely to see if the BIOS cannot find a hard drive at POST?

a. Fixed disk error
b. Blue screen of death
c. Error in ntoskernel
d. Error loading Windows

A

a. Fixed disk error

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17
Q

Under what circumstances might you need to rebuild a RAID volume?

a. after you format the disk for the first time
b. after you replace a failed disk
c. when you restore a backup
d. when you add a new disk to the system

A

b. after you replace a failed disk

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18
Q

What is the likely problem if you see small white, black, or colored spots on your LCD screen?

a. brightness needs to be adjusted
b. the LCD is not getting sufficient power
c. the resolution it set too high
d. you have dead or stuck pixels

A

d. you have dead or stuck pixels

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT a recommendation for physically protecting your equipment?

a. install air filters over the front or side vents of the case
b. if you won’t be using the computer for several weeks, leave it turned off
c. make sure cables are tied up and out of the way
d. don’t turn on a computer that is much colder than room temperature

A

b. if you won’t be using the computer for several weeks, leave it turned off

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20
Q

What is the purpose of a zero-fill utility?

a. completely wipes a hard drive clean
b. removes dangerous charges from a CRT
c. ensures that RAM doesn’t retain data
d. provides a safe environment to dispose of equipment

A

a. completely wipes a hard drive clean

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21
Q

What is the name of the program that reads the settings in the Boot Configuration Data (BCD) file and manages the initial startup of the OS?

a. MBR program
b. Session Manager program
c. Windows Boot Loader
d. Windows Boot Manager

A

d. Windows Boot Manager

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22
Q

Which option should be enabled in order to view what did and did not load during the bootup?

a. Event Viewer
b. Boot Logging
c. Safe Mode with Networking
d. Windows Boot Manager

A

b. Boot Logging

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23
Q

Which Windows RE tool is considered to be the least intrusive?

a. Windows Memory Diagnostic
b. System Restore
c. Startup Repair
d. System Image Recovery

A

c. Startup Repair

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24
Q

Which Windows RE tool should be used if you suspect the hard drive is corrupted?

a. System Image Recovery
b. Command Prompt
c. System Restore
d. Startup Repair

A

b. Command Prompt

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25
Which diskpart command is used to remove any partition or volume information from the selected disk? a. format b. select partition c. clean d. create partition primary
c. clean
26
Which of the following Windows RE commands can be used to scan for Windows installations not stored in the BCD? a. bootrec /scanOS b. bootrec /fixmbr c. b ootrec /fix boot d. bcdedit
a. bootrec /scanOS
27
Which of the following keys will cause the Windows Boot Manager to appear as long as it is pressed during the boot process? a. F8 b. spacebar c. F5 d. Enter
b. spacebar
28
Which command is used to check and repair the hard drive? a. System Restore b. MSconfig c. sfc /scannow d. chkdsk c:/r
d. chkdsk c:/r
29
Which of the following symptoms might indicate that the MBR record is damaged? a. loud clicking noise b. Invalid partition table error c. RAID not found error message d. Invalid boot disk error
b. Invalid partition table error
30
The command _____ searches for and replaces corrupted system files. a. chkdsk /scannow b. sfc /scannow c. sfc /r d. chkdsk /r
b. sfc /scannow
31
What is the name of a 32-bit or 128-bit number that is used to identify a device? a. port number b. protocol number c. IP address d. IP version
c. IP address
32
How are IP addresses available to the Internet classified? a. public b. private c. non-routable d. standard
a. public
33
Which is used to identify the network portion and the host portion of an IP address? a. dynamic address b. DHCP address c. default gateway d. subnet mask
d. subnet mask
34
Which command can be used to display TCPIIP configuration information and refresh the IP address? a. msconfig b. netstat c. ipconfig d. netcfg32
c. ipconfig
35
Using a , packets are delivered to a single node on a network. a. anycast address b. default gateway address c. multicast address d. unicast address
d. unicast address
36
The solution for securing private data traveling over a public network, such as the Internet, is a a. public encrypted network b. virtual private network c. private encrypted network d. virtual prevention network
b. virtual private network
37
Which utility can be used to automatically diagnose a problem with a network connection? a. MyNetworkPlaces b. Device Manger c. Windows Network Diagnostics d. Control Panel
c. Windows Network Diagnostics
38
If the computer you are using is a laptop that moves from one network to another, you can click the ___ tab and configure static IP address settings for a second network. a. General Configuration b. Alternate Configuration c. Secondary Configuration d. Fallback Configuration
b. Alternate Configuration
39
What type of device can be used to block unwanted traffic initiated from the Internet and can also restrict Internet access from an internal network? a. hub b. switch c. firewall d. VPN
c. firewall
40
What is it called when a router is configured to open or close certain ports so they can or cannot be used? a. port triggering b. demilitarized zone (DMZ) c. port filtering d. port forwarding
c. port filtering
41
Which of the following network types covers a large campus or city? a. PAN b. WLAN c. MAN d. WAN
c. MAN
42
What type of network can you set up to share files if you have two laptops with wireless NICs but there is no Wi-Fi hotspot available? a. ring network b. infrastructure network c. ad hoc network d. hybrid network
c. ad hoc network
43
Which network technology that is used to connect to the Internet has a maximum speed of 44 Mbps, uses dedicated lines, and is used by large companies? a. SDSL b. T3 c. Fast Ethernet d. OC-3
b. T3
44
Which of the following is true about cable Internet? a. you share the cable infrastructure with your neighbors b. you need filters on every phone jack c. fiber optic cabling is required d. provides up to 2.3 Mbps of bandwidth
a. you share the cable infrastructure with your neighbors
45
What does a NIC use to connect to wired network media? a. HDMI port b. RJ-45 port c. 10BaseT port d. Half duplex port
b. RJ-45 port
46
Which feature should you configure on a network adapter to control which applications have priority on the network? a. PoE b. WoL c. QoS d. PoTS
c. QoS
47
What is the unit of information called when a network adapter adds the source and destination MAC address to the segment of data before it is transmitted on the network? a. frame b. packet c. bit d. segment
a. frame
48
Which type of network device keeps a table of the MAC addresses of the devices connected to it? a. hub b. router c. NIC d. switch
d. switch
49
Which of the following provides multiple network ports for cables that converge in an electrical closet? a. patch panel b. RJ-45 jack c. terminal adapter d. loopback port
a. patch panel
50
Which of the following is true about a crossover cable? a. it's normally used to connect a computer to a hub or switch b. you use the T568B wiring standard on both ends c. it is required to connect two Gigabit Ethernet switches together d. it can be used to connect two PCs together
d. it can be used to connect two PCs together
51
Which of the following is a task you CAN'T do from the IE General tab? a. change the home page b. disable file downloads c. delete browsing history d. manage the IE cache
b. disable file downloads
52
If you want to be able to power up a computer remotely, what feature should you use? a. QoS b. RDP c. RemoteApp d. WoL
d. WoL
53
Which of the following is NOT true about Group Policy? a. policies can be applied to a computer b. all policies are applied before the logon screen appears c. Group Policy is available in Windows Professional edition d. you can set the QoS level for an application using Group Policy
b. all policies are applied before the logon screen appears
54
Which statement is true about controlling access to folders and files? a. permissions refer to the tasks an account is allowed to do in the system b. account configuration should keep in mind the principle of highest privilege c. rights are assigned to accounts d. in Windows, accounts have no rights assignments until you configure them
c. rights are assigned to accounts
55
Which built-in group might Windows automatically assign a user account to when determining its permissions? a. Administrators b. Guests c. Backup Operators d. Anonymous users
d. Anonymous users
56
To which group does Windows give access to folders that you create which are not part of your user profile? a. Power Users b. Guests c. Authenticated Users d. Anonymous Users
c. Authenticated Users
57
Which of the following is true about which folders to use to hold shared data when working with a workgroup? a. private data for each user should be kept in their C:\users folder b. all users have access to the folders in the C:\Users folder c. C:\Users\Public should only be used by the Guest account d. Only Administrators and Guest have access to C: \Users \Public
a. private data for each user should be kept in their C:\users folder
58
Which type of permission should you set to control access to files and folders by local and network users? a. Sharing on FAT32 volumes only b. NTFS on NTFS volumes only c. NTFS on exFAT or NTFS volumes d. Sharing on NTFS or exFAT volumes
b. NTFS on NTFS volumes only
59
When mapping a drive, you can type in the path to the shared folder on the host computer. What is the syntax for the path? a. \\sharedfolder\server b. \server\sharedfolder c. \\server\sharedfolder d. /sharedfolder/server
c. \\server\sharedfolder
60
When troubleshooting a live network cable, what should you use? a. a cable tester b. a DVM c. a loop back plug d. an LED indicator
c. a loop back plug
61
Which of the following is true about the Guest account in Windows 7? a. it is disabled by default b. it automatically has a complex password c. you cannot rename it d. it has administrative access
a. it is disabled by default
62
Which of the following is true about passwords? a. it's best to write your password down so you don't get locked out of your computer b. passwords cannot be longer than 14 characters c. by default, accounts with a blank password cannot logon remotely d. letters and numbers are allowed, but no symbols such as'@' or' !'
c. by default, accounts with a blank password cannot logon remotely
63
Which of the following is true about the Windows Encrypted File System? a. files can be marked for encryption, but not folders b. an encrypted file moved to an unencrypted folder remains encrypted c. EFS only works on NTFS and FAT32 d. you need to download special software to use EFS
b. an encrypted file moved to an unencrypted folder remains encrypted
64
One way to authenticate users on a computer is to use a small device that contains authentication information. What is this device called? a. retinal scanner b. LoJack token c. smart card d. TPM
c. smart card
65
An RFID badge is related to which type of authentication method?, a. smart card b. biometric scanner c. digital certificate d. privacy filter
a. smart card
66
A privacy filter is used for what aspect of security? a. theft of a laptop b. computer authentication c. data encryption d. screen viewing
d. screen viewing
67
You should beware of a person attempting to use your computer after you step away from it, a term referred to as which of the following? a. shoulder surfing b. tailgating c. social engineering d. session hijacking
b. tailgating
68
Which type of malware can hijack internal Windows components and often goes undetected because it is already loaded when the antivirus software loads? a. Trojan horse b. rootkit c. adware d. worm
b. rootkit
69
Which command can you perform at the Windows RE command prompt to repair the OS boot record on Windows 7? a. fixmbr b. bootrec /fixmbr c. fixboot d. bootrec /fix boot
d. bootrec /fix boot
70
If you need to understand the parent-child relationships between running processes and view parent processes as they call other processes, what tool should you use? a. Task Manager b. Search Indexer c. Process Explorer d. Windows Defender
c. Process Explorer
71
Which of the following is NOT true about notebook computers? a. different models have unique cases b. components tend to not be interchangeable c. on all models, the hard drive is always in the same place d. they use less power than desktops
c. on all models, the hard drive is always in the same place
72
Which of the following is true about notebook computer software? a. the OS is preinstalled at the factory b. they use a standard version of the OS c. you can buy off-the-shelf diagnostic software d. no drivers are required for notebook devices
a. the OS is preinstalled at the factory
73
Which of the following is NOT among the guidelines for handling and caring for a notebook computer? a. don't hold a notebook by the lid b. make sure the network location is Public before connecting to the Internet c. don't leave a notebook in a cold or hot car d. when traveling, pack the notebook tightly in a suitcase, between soft clothing
d. when traveling, pack the notebook tightly in a suitcase, between soft clothing
74
Which of the following is NOT a typical button or key combination function on a notebook computer? a. screen brightness b. CPU speed c. dual displays d. Wi-Fi on/off
b. CPU speed
75
Which PCMCIA standard uses the 32-bit PCI bus standards and has a bumpy strip on the edge? a. PC Card b. Card.Bus c. ExpressCard d. NoteCard
b. Card.Bus
76
Which ACPI power-saving state turns off the processor, hard drive, and monitor, but leaves all other devices on? a. S4 b. S3 c. S2 d. S1
c. S2
77
Under what circumstance should you always return a notebook to the manufacturer? a. for serious repairs and it is under warranty b. when you want to add memory c. if you need to replace the hard drive d. to use an external device in place of the failed component
a. for serious repairs and it is under warranty
78
Which type of memory are you likely to find in today's laptops? a. DDR3 RIMMs b. DDR2 SIMMS c. DDR3 SO-DIMMS d. Rambus SIMMs
c. DDR3 SO-DIMMS
79
Which type of hard drive is most likely found in a notebook computer? a. 5.25" FD b. 3.5" PATA c. 1" IDE d. 2.5" SATA
d. 2.5" SATA
80
Which of the following is NOT a consideration for a flickering or dim video display? a. verify Windows settings b. adjust the LCD brightness c. adjust the refresh rate d. no drivers are installed
d. no drivers are installed
81
Which of the following is based on open source code? a. Android b. Blackberry c. Windows Phone d. iOS
a. Android
82
Which company acquired Android code in 2005 and has a leadership role in its development? a. Apple b. Symbian c. Google d. Yahoo
c. Google
83
What does jailbreaking do? a. Allows you to download games for free from Google Play b. Allows you download music for free from iTunes c. give you administrative privileges to Android d. give you root privileges to iOS
d. give you root privileges to iOS
84
Which of the following is a screen that uses electrodes that sense the conductive properties of skin? a. dual-touch screen b. capacitive touch screen c. pressure-sensing screen d. resistive touch screen
b. capacitive touch screen
85
A SIM card is used for which of the following? a. holding data related to your cellular earner b. holding your iTunes music information c. controlling the sensitivity of your touch screen d. backing up your data and applications
a. holding data related to your cellular earner
86
What is the accelerometer used for in mobile devices? a. adjusting the screen orientation b. geotracking c. synchronizing data d. locating the nearest cell tower
a. adjusting the screen orientation
87
Which component on a smart phone requires pairing with another device? a. GPS b. WiFi c. Bluetooth d. SIM card
c. Bluetooth
88
Which of the following is NOT a function provided by iTunes for iOS devices? a. sync data to your computer b. install iOS updates c. back up data on Apple web sites d. restore from backup
c. back up data on Apple web sites
89
What should you configure on an iOS device if you want your data erased after ten failed logon attempts? a. Lock Screen b. Remote Wipe c. iOS Locator d. Passcode Lock
d. Passcode Lock
90
What can you do if you want to obtain administrator privileges to an Android device? a. delete the normal user account b. logon as Admin c. root the device d. reboot into recovery mode
c. root the device
91
A laser printer can produce better-quality printouts than a dot matrix printer, even when printing at the same dpi, because it can vary the size of the dots it prints, creating a sharp, clear image using a technology called __ . a. REt b. REx c. VART d. eRT
a. REt
92
How is a network printer identified on the network? a. by its MAC address b. by its IP address c. by the manufacturer name d. by a 16-bi t built-in identifier
b. by its IP address
93
Automatically printing on both sides of the page is called __ printing. a. duplex b. simplex c. duo d. complex
a. duplex
94
A __ printer connects directly to a computer by way of a USB port, parallel port, serial port, or wireless connection. a. network b. shared c. remote d. local
d. local
95
A dedicated device or computer called a print __ can control several printers connected to a network. a. queue b. server c. manager d. client
b. server
96
To know the IP address of a network printer, direct the printer to print a __ page. a. consumables b. configuration c. menumap d. device
b. configuration
97
What is the process called when Windows receives a print job from an application and places the job in a print queue? a. banking b. spooling c. storing d. pooling
b. spooling
98
Which of the following is true regarding cleaning a printer? a. for best results, use ammonia-based cleaners b. use compressed air to blow out loose toner c. wipe the rollers on a laser printer with a dry cloth d. use an antistatic vacuum cleaner to pick up toner
c. wipe the rollers on a laser printer with a dry cloth
99
How do you know if a printer needs routine maintenance? a. the number of days since the last maintenance b. the printer stops working if the maintenance period has expired c. the number of pages the printer has printed since the last maintenance d. the LED display shows the number of days before maintenance is required
c. the number of pages the printer has printed since the last maintenance
100
Which of the following is a program embedded in firmware that manages print jobs? a. print spooler b. print server c. printer cache d. printer proxy
b. print server