A+ Warm-Up Flashcards

1
Q

A motherboard failed on a desktop PC with an Intel Core i7-8700K processor. When looking for a replacement motherboard, which CPU socket does it need to have?

A) LGA 1366
B) LGA 1150
C) LGA 1151
D) LGA 2066

A

C. LGA 1151

The Core i7-8700K is a Coffee Lake-series processor, which uses the LGA 1151 socket. LGA 1150 sockets are for older i7s, and the LGA 1366 socket is for even older ones than that. The LGA 2066 socket is for processors with a capital X at the end of their model number.

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2
Q

You install a new NIC for a user, and he asks what it does. Which of the following best characterizes the functions of this device?

A. Multimedia
B. Communications
C. Input/Output
D. Storage

A

B. Communications

A network interface card (NIC) is used as a communications device. It enables the computer to talk to other computers on a network. It does not provide multimedia, input/output (such as a USB port does), or storage capabilities.

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3
Q

You are installing peripherals on a new computer. Which of the following devices provides both input and output?

A. Webcam
B. Projector
C. Touch screen
D. KVM switch

A

C. Touch screen

A touch screen provides video output, and users can touch the screen to provide input as well. A webcam is for video input, and a projector is for video output. A KVM switch lets users connect one keyboard, video, and mouse set to multiple computers and switch between them.

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4
Q

Your network uses thin clients. A new technician is amazed that the computers have no hard drives and asks, “If the operating system is not resident on the client, where is it found?”

A. On a DVD inserted at bootup
B. On a USB flash drive
C. On the server for session-by-session client use
D. Embedded in a flash module on the motherboard

A

C. On the server for session-by-session client use

Clients request services of servers. Thin clients can request software services from their servers, whether in the form of running the software and passing the results to the client or passing the code of the software to the client to be executed by its processor and kept only in RAM.

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5
Q

What happens during the developing stage of laser printing?

A. An electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner particles.
B. Heat is applied to the paper to melt the toner.
C. The laser creates an image of the page on the drum.
D. An electrostatic charge is applied to the paper to attract toner particles.

A

A. An electrostatic charge is applied to the drum to attract toner particles.

After a laser has created an image of the page, the developing roller uses a magnet and electrostatic charges to attract toner to itself and then transfers the toner to the areas on the drum that have been exposed to the laser. The toner is melted during the fusing stage. The laser creates an image of the page on the drum in the exposing stage. An electrostatic charge is applied to the paper to attract toner in the transferring stage, which happens immediately after the developing stage.

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6
Q

You have just found out that a new BIOS upgrade exists for your computer, and you obtain a copy to install it. Which of the following is most helpful when flashing the BIOS on a desktop computer system?

A. DVD-ROM
B. Uninterruptable power supply
C. Internet connection
D. Windows administrator password

A

B. Uninterruptable power supply

None of the options are required, but a UPS is by far the most helpful among the answers in that loss of power during this procedure can range from annoying to devastating.

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7
Q

You are installing a new hard drive and want to know if the operating system will be able to support it. What is the largest NTFS volume size supported, assuming a 64 KB cluster size as maximum?

A. 1 TB
B. 2 TB
C. 128 TB
D. 256 TB

A

D. 256 TB

A fixed number of clusters is supported by each operating system, leading to a corresponding maximum volume size. If the maximum NTFS cluster size of 64 KB is used, NTFS can support a single-volume size of 64 KB less than 256 TB. When a cluster size of one sector, or 512 bytes (1/2 KB), is used, the maximum volume size reduces to 2 TB. Because of this math, 1 TB and 128 TB are incorrect answers.

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8
Q

What kind of peripheral is used to read credit cards to initiate financial transactions? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Barcode reader
B. Signature pad
C. Magnetic reader
D. Chip reader

A

C. Magnetic reader
&
D. Chip reader

Magnetic readers and chip readers can read credit and debit card information to initiate a financial transaction. Barcode readers read barcodes on packages. Signature pads allow for the digital input of someone’s signature.

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9
Q

A video editor at your company wants a second monitor, claiming that having only one monitor limits her ability to work. Why do A/V editing workstations benefit from more than one monitor?

A. Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped.
B. While one graphics adapter works on one rendering project, the other can simply display a normal desktop.
C. Once the editing is complete, the second monitor is used to present the results to others on the team.
D. Additional monitors are used for remote collaboration among other editors.

A

A. Their software often has enough controls across their width that one monitor seems cramped.

Editors of this type of media have numerous controls and timelines to track. These constructs often lie along the bottom of the application and run horizontally. Subsequent monitors allow the editor to spread out her work without shrinking the view excessively.

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10
Q

Which printer part gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper?

A. Laser-scanning assembly
B. Fusing assembly
C. Corona assembly
D. Drum

A

C. Corona assembly

The transfer corona assembly gets the toner from the photosensitive drum onto the paper. For some printers, this is a transfer corona wire; for other printers, it is a transfer corona roller.

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11
Q

A technician asks you how to get a computer’s processor to run faster than it currently does. What is he trying to achieve?

A. Hyperthreading
B. Overclocking
C. Virtualization
D. Multicore support

A

B. Overclocking

Overclocking is when someone sets the speed of the processor to run faster than it was rated for. While overclocking can make a computer faster, it can also cause the processor to overheat, and it voids the warranty. Hyperthreading allows for a processor core to handle multiple processes simultaneously. Virtualization is when you create multiple virtual machines on a computer. Multicore means that the processor has more than one core—it’s not a configurable option.

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12
Q

Your goal is to build the fastest computer possible. Which of the following hard drive technologies should you choose for the fastest read performance?

A. M.2 PCIe
B. M.2 SATA
C. NVMe PCIe
D. NVMe SATA

A

C. NVMe PCIe

M.2 and NVMe are both relatively new SSD options, and both are incredibly fast. NVMe is slightly faster, though. SATA is limited to 600 MBps transfer speeds, whereas PCIe is not. An NVMe PCIe card can sustain data read rates of about 3,500 MBps.

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13
Q

Which of the following is not an example of a connector for a standard peripheral input device?

A. 1/8” jack
B. Molex
C. D-sub
D. USB

A

B. Molex

Peripherals most often use USB today, but they can also use D-sub connectors (rarely), and audio devices such as microphones and speakers use 1/8” jacks. Molex connectors are power connectors for PATA hard drives and optical drives.

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14
Q

Which of the following descriptions most closely matches that of a thin client?

A. A high-resolution monitor, keyboard, and mouse
B. A computer with a low-profile case
C. A laptop
D. A dumb terminal with a NIC

A

D. A dumb terminal with a NIC

Although not all thin clients are devoid of local processing capability, some are. High-resolution graphics are not a requirement, but thin clients do require a system unit with a NIC.

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15
Q

Most printers that use the electrophotographic process contain how many standard assemblies?

A. Five
B. Six
C. Four
D. Nine

A

D. Nine

There are nine standard assemblies in an electrophotographic process printer. Early laser printers using the electrographic process contained the nine standard assemblies. Newer laser printers do not require an ozone filter and contain only eight standard assemblies.

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16
Q

You need to replace memory in a desktop PC and to go purchase RAM. When you are at the store, you need to find the appropriate type of memory. What memory chips would you find on a stick of PC3-16000?

A. DDR-2000
B. DDR3-2000
C. DDR3-1600
D. PC3-2000

A

B. DDR3-2000

Remember the 8:1 rule. Modules greater than but not including SDR SDRAM are named with a number eight times larger than the number used to name the chips on the module. The initials PC are used to describe the module; the initials DDR are used for the chips; and a single-digit number after PC and DDR is used to represent the level of DDR. The lack of a single-digit number represents DDR as long as the number that is present is greater than 133 (such as PC1600). Otherwise, you’re dealing with SDR (such as PC133). This means that PC3-16000 modules are DDR3 modules and are populated with chips named DDR3 and a number that is one-eighth of the module’s numeric code: 2000.

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17
Q

Of the following voltage pairings, which one accurately represents the input and output, respectively, of power supplies and AC adapters?

A. AC in, AC out
B. DC in, DC out
C. AC in, DC out
D. DC in, AC out

A

C. AC in, DC out

Power supplies and AC adapters use standard wall outlets for an input of AC voltage, which they convert to the DC voltages required by the components to which they supply power.

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18
Q

What type of pointing device features a ball and buttons on the top and a flat, steady surface on the bottom?

A. Mouse
B. Touch pad
C. Trackball
D. Track pad

A

C. Trackball

A trackball is a sort of stationary upside-down mouse that has the ball for movement detection on the top of the device along with the keys. The ball is actuated by the thumb or fingers, not by moving the device along a flat surface or mouse pad. Trackballs are ideal where desk space is limited. Touch pads feature a touch-sensing surface with no ball for movement, while track pad is a more rare term meaning the same.

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19
Q

Marcus, a network technician, has been asked to build a virtualization workstation for his manager. Which of the following are not common requirements that Marcus should consider for this custom configuration? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Surround sound
B. Maximum RAM
C. Large, fast hard drives
D. Multiple CPU cores

A

A. Surround sound
&
C. Large, fast hard drives

Virtualization workstations need to maximize the amount of RAM as well as CPU cores. Each virtualized instance of an operating system will be assigned its own memory and processor resources, and those resources are essentially reserved and off-limits to other virtual operating systems. Therefore, maximize both of them. Audio isn’t required on a virtualization workstation, so surround sound is not needed. Large fast hard drives will be nice but are not a primary requirement.

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20
Q

Which printer contains a wheel that looks like a flower with raised letters and symbols on each “petal”?

A. Inkjet printer
B. Daisy-wheel printer
C. Dot-matrix printer
D. Laser printer

A

B. Daisy-wheel printer

The daisy-wheel printer gets its name because it contains a wheel with raised letters and symbols on each “petal.”

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21
Q

You are assembling a new computer and are looking at new cooling systems. Which of the following cooling systems requires the use of a pump?

A. Liquid
B. Thermal paste
C. Heat sink
D. Heat sink plus fan

A

A. Liquid

Liquid cooling systems require a reservoir of liquid and a pump to circulate the liquid. It’s possible that the system could malfunction, causing a mess inside the computer. Thermal paste is used to adhere a heat sink to a processor. Heat sinks and fans do not use pumps.

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes the concept of hot-swappable devices?

A. Power does not need to be turned off before the device is inserted or removed.
B. The device can be removed with power applied after it is properly stopped in the operating system.
C. Care must be taken when swapping the device because it can be hot to the touch.
D. The device can be swapped while still hot, immediately after powering down the system.

A

A. Power does not need to be turned off before the device is inserted or removed.

Hot-swappable devices can be removed while the power to the system is still on. Warm-swappable devices need to be stopped in the operating system before being removed. The term has nothing to do with the heat level of the device.

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23
Q

Why might you use a KVM switch?

A. You have multiple Ethernet devices that need to communicate with one another.
B. You need to be able to switch the voltage supplied to a particular device.
C. You have a printer that is not attached to the network but you want multiple computers to be able to print to it.
D. You have more than one server and don’t want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each.

A

D. You have more than one server and don’t want to buy certain external peripherals separately for each.

KVM switches are ideal when you have multiple computers situated near one another and do not want to commit the extra desk space to each computer having its own keyboard, mouse, and monitor. KVMs are not designed for Ethernet devices or printers, and do not switch voltage.

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24
Q

Peter is configuring a NAS. Which of the following should be his least-important priority to include in his NAS?

A. File sharing
B. Maximum RAM
C. Gigabit NIC
D. Media streaming
E. RAID array

A

B. Maximum RAM

A NAS should support file sharing and media streaming, and have a Gigabit NIC card and a RAID array. Additional RAM in a NAS offers no advantage for the performance of the NAS past a certain point. The tasks the NAS is asked to perform do not require high performance.

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25
Q

Which types of printers are referred to as page printers because they receive their print job instructions one page at a time? (Choose two.)

A. Daisy-wheel
B. Dot-matrix
C. Inkjet
D. Laser
E. Thermal

A

C. Inkjet
&
D. Laser

A page printer is a type of computer printer that prints a page at a time. Common types of page printers are the laser printer and the inkjet printer.

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26
Q

You press the front power button on a computer and the system boots. Later, you press it briefly and the system hibernates. When you press it again, the system resumes. You press and hold the button and the system shuts down. What is this feature called?

A. Programmable power
B. Soft power
C. Relay power
D. Hot power

A

B. Soft power

Soft power is the feature whereby the front power button acts as a relay to initiate various system power changes, depending on the duration that the button is held. Programmable power, relay power, and hot power are not valid power options.

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27
Q

You are installing a new graphics adapter in a Windows 10 system. Which of the following expansion slots is designed for high-speed, 3D graphics adapters?

A. USB
B. FireWire
C. PCI
D. PCIe

A

D. PCIe

Although technically PCI could be used for graphics adapters, PCIe supports high-speed, 3D graphic video cards. PCIe offers better performance than older graphics adapters. USB and FireWire can stream video, but they are not used for attachment of internal graphics adapters.

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28
Q

You are installing a new video card that has an HDMI port. Which of the following is true about HDMI cables? (Choose all that apply.)

A. They can transmit analog or digital signals.
B. They can transmit audio as well as video.
C. They are not used to connect to projectors.
D. They can use HDMI or mini-HDMI connectors.

A

B. They can transmit audio as well as video.
&
D. They can use HDMI or mini-HDMI connectors.

HDMI cables transmit digital video and audio signals. They can be used to connect to projectors or monitors. HDMI cables can have standard HDMI connectors, mini-HDMI connectors, or micro-HDMI connectors.

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29
Q

You have been hired as a consultant for a video editing company that needs all new workstations for its six editors. Which of the following is required when constructing an A/V editing workstation?

A. Gigabit NIC
B. Powerful processor
C. Maximum RAM
D. Fast hard drive

A

D. Fast hard drive

A/V editing workstations require specialized audio and video cards and large and fast hard drives; they also benefit from dual monitors. A fast NIC, extra RAM, and a faster than normal processor do not support the requirements of A/V editors.

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30
Q

You have just installed a new printer, but it prints only garbled text. Which of the following is likely the problem?

A. Wrong IP address
B. Worn print head
C. Incorrect printer drivers
D. Unsupported printer

A

C. Incorrect printer drivers

If a printer is using out-of-date or incorrect printer drivers, the printer may produce pages of garbled text. The solution is to ensure that the most recent printer drivers are downloaded from the manufacturer’s website.

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31
Q

Your Core i5 fan has a four-pin connector, but your motherboard only has a single three-pin header with the CPU_FAN label. Which of the following will be the easiest solution to get the necessary cooling for your CPU?

A. Plug the four-pin connector into the three-pin header.
B. Buy a four-pin to three-pin adapter.
C. Leave the plug disconnected and use only the heat sink.
D. Add an extra chassis fan.

A

A. Plug the four-pin connector into the three-pin header.

The easiest solution that works to cool your CPU is to connect the four-pin connector into the three-pin header. The missing pin allows you to control the speed of the fan. Without it, the fan will run at top speed, which is fine, albeit a little noisier. There is no four-pin to three-pin power adapter. The heat sink alone should not be relied upon for proper cooling of modern CPUs, and an extra chassis fan isn’t designed to specifically help cool the CPU.

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32
Q

When installing multiple add-on cards of the same type, which type of cards might you need to bridge together to function as a single unit?

A. Video
B. Sound
C. USB
D. eSATA

A

A. Video

PCIe video cards may be bridged together, enabling two cards to function as one system. Sound cards and I/O expansion cards such as USB and eSATA cards do not have bridging capabilities.

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33
Q

How do you connect a DVI-A interface on a peripheral to a DVI-D interface on the computer?

A. With a DVI-I cable
B. With a cable that is terminated on one end with a DVI-A connector and on the other end with a DVD-D connector
C. You wouldn’t interconnect those two interfaces
D. With a standard DVI cable

A

C. You wouldn’t interconnect those two interfaces

Such a connection should not be made. DVI-I cables act like universal cables; they can connect two DVI-A interfaces or two DVI-D interfaces with adapters. Natively, they are used to connect two DVI-I interfaces, both of which are configured as either analog or digital. They are unable to convert the analog signal to a digital one, however. Analog and digital DVI interfaces are too disparate to interconnect.

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34
Q

You have recently installed a NAS in your home so that all your family members could share media. You have a router and network cabling that supports Gigabit Ethernet. Why should you equip a NAS with a Gigabit NIC?

A. All systems, including the NAS, should communicate at the same speed.
B. The NAS should not be allowed to communicate at the higher speeds of the rest of the network or it will be overused.
C. The NAS should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck.
D. The operating system that a NAS runs is not compatible with Gigabit Ethernet.

A

C. The NAS should exceed the communication speed of the clients to avoid a bottleneck.

Optimally, the NAS should communicate across a link that is the aggregate of all client links, but at the very least, the NAS’s link should be a faster one to alleviate the potential bottleneck when all clients try to access the server simultaneously.

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35
Q

Which step in the laser printer printing process occurs immediately after the exposing phase?

A. Charging
B. Fusing
C. Transferring
D. Developing

A

D. Developing

Developing happens after exposing. The correct order is processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning.

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36
Q

Which computer component contains all the circuitry necessary for other components or devices to communicate with one another?

A. Motherboard
B. CPU
C. RAM
D. Expansion bus

A

A. Motherboard

The spine of the computer is the system board, otherwise known as the motherboard. All other computer components plug into the motherboard. On the motherboard, you will find the CPU, underlying circuitry, expansion slots, video components, RAM slots, and various other chips.

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37
Q

You are purchasing a new video card in a desktop computer. For the best performance, which type of video card should you purchase?

A. PCI x16
B. PCI x128
C. AGP
D. PCIe x128
E. PCIe x16

A

E. PCIe x16

For a video card, the best standard currently available is PCIe, and the widest channel width is x16. There are no PCI x16 or PCI x128 slots, nor is there a PCIe x128 slot. AGP is an older video expansion standard that is now obsolete.

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38
Q

VGA cables use what type of signal between the adapter and monitor?

A. Digital
B. Analog
C. Composite
D. Compressed

A

B. Analog

VGA signals are analog, uncompressed, component signals that carry all of the video information for all three components of the original RGB signal. VGA signals are not digital, composite, or compressed.

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39
Q

You are configuring a virtualization workstation for your home use. Which of the following is required for your new system?

A. Multiple host operating systems
B. Maximum RAM allowed
C. File sharing services
D. Multiple NICs

A

B. Maximum RAM allowed

Maximum RAM and CPU cores are the primary requirements for such systems. Although there are multiple guest operating systems, generally there is but one host to those guests. File sharing may be a service the administrator decides to offer, and multiple NICs might prove advantageous with virtual machines that are popular among the clients, but these workstations do not require either.

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40
Q

What voltage does the corona wire or corona roller hold?

A.  +600VDC
B. –600VDC
C. 0VDC
D. –100VDC

A

A.  +600VDC

For the toner (which has a charge of –600VDC) to be transferred from the print drum (which has a charge of –600VDC) to the paper, there must be a positive, or opposite, charge of greater difference to break the –600VDC charge from the drum.

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41
Q

A client wants you to build a new PC for her, with a smaller case and lower power requirements. When selecting a motherboard, which form factor should you choose for a smaller size and lower power consumption?

A. ATX
B. AT
C. Micro ATX
D. ITX

A

D. ITX

The ITX motherboard family consists of smaller boards that fit in standard or miniature cases and use less power than their larger counterparts. ATX are “standard” sized motherboards in today’s world. AT is a legacy form factor that was bigger than ATX. Micro ATX is smaller than ATX, but larger than ITX motherboards.

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42
Q

You have been asked to install a new hard drive for a client. Which of the following is not a consideration when installing an internal storage device?

A. You should match the form factor of the drive or adapt it to an available drive bay or slot.
B. You should secure the drive with at least two screws on one side and preferably two on each side.
C. Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity.
D. You need to be sure that the routing of the drive’s data cable, if applicable, does not obstruct the engineered flow of air across internal components.

A

C. Due to the high revolutions at which modern hard drives spin, you must secure an external power source because the internal power supplies do not have the capacity.

Today’s hard drives, regardless of their rpm, have standard internal power connections. The other options are valid concerns when installing an internal drive.

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43
Q

You are interested in purchasing a new monitor and notice the contrast ratio specification. What does that refer to?

A. The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be displayed
B. A term that was used with LCDs but is not a valid specification for OLEDs
C. The ratio of luminance between two adjacent pixels
D. A feature that changes based on the resolution setting

A

A. The ratio of luminance between the darkest and lightest colors that can be displayed

Contrast ratio is a selling point for LCDs and is relevant for all monitor types, including OLEDs. Higher contrast ratios mean the monitor displays darker blacks and brighter whites. The measure of luminance between adjacent pixels is known as contrast, not contrast ratio. Contrast ratio is not dependent upon resolution.

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44
Q

All of the following systems benefit from increased RAM except ___________________. (Choose two.)

A. Network-attached storage device
B. Virtualization workstation
C. Graphic design workstation
D. Gaming PC

A

A. Network-attached storage device
&
D. Gaming PC

Virtualization and graphic design workstations benefit from as much RAM as can be installed. Network-attached storage devices and gaming PCs do not require a large amount of temporary storage of instructions and data. They are more about the rapid movement of graphical data toward an output device.

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45
Q

Which device in an inkjet printer contains the print head?

A. Toner cartridge
B. Ink cartridge
C. Daisy wheel
D. Paper tray

A

B. Ink cartridge

In an inkjet printer, the ink cartridge is the actual print head. This is where the ink is expelled to form letters or graphics. Toner cartridges are used by laser printers to store toner. A daisy wheel is the device that impacts the letters on the paper in a daisy-wheel printer. Paper trays are the storage bins in laser printers and inkjet printers that allow the pickup rollers to feed the paper into the printer.

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46
Q

Intel and AMD have integrated which of the following into their Atom and APU processor lines that had not been integrated before?

A. GPU
B. Math coprocessor
C. FSB
D. RAM controller

A

A. GPU

These CPUs integrate the graphics processing unit (GPU). The Core i7 before them integrated the memory controller, eliminating the FSB. Math coprocessors have been integrated since the 80486DX.

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47
Q

You have a motherboard with integrated video, and the video fails. You install a video add-on card. Which of the following statements are the most accurate? (Choose two.)

A. The add-on card will not function properly because of the integrated video.
B. The add-on card will function if it is bridged to the integrated video chipset.
C. The add-on card will be detected automatically and function properly if it’s PCIe.
D. For the card to work properly, you might need to disable the integrated video in the BIOS.
E. The add-on card will work properly by using the integrated card’s video driver.

A

C. The add-on card will be detected automatically and function properly if it’s PCIe.
&
D. For the card to work properly, you might need to disable the integrated video in the BIOS.

Most likely, the new card will be detected and function properly once the computer is booted up. However, the driver will need to be installed. Odds are the new card will be a different model from the integrated card, which will require a new driver. On some systems, you will need to go into the BIOS and disable the integrated adapter. Bridging happens between two PCIe video adapters, not an integrated video chipset.

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48
Q

You are attaching an external hard drive to a computer with USB 2.0 ports. The user is concerned about data transfer speed. What is the maximum speed of USB 2.0?

A. 480 Mbps
B. 5 Gbps
C. 10 Gbps
D. 20 Gbps

A

A. 480 Mbps

USB 2.0 has a maximum speed of 480 Mbps. USB 3.0 is 5 Gbps; USB 3.1 is 10 Gbps; and USB 3.2 is 20 Gbps.

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49
Q

Danielle has been asked to configure virtualization at her company. She recommends that her manager buy multicore processors. What justification should she give as to why virtualization workstations require as many CPU cores as possible?

A. Each virtual machine has one or more cores installed directly in it.
B. Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data.
C. Fault tolerance dictates that if one CPU core fails, there should be one or more in line to take its place.
D. Because each guest operating system runs in its own space, multiple cores are required to store the collective data.

A

B. Each virtual machine makes use of actual CPU resources for processing instructions and data.

Virtual machines do not imply virtual processing. The data storage, processing cycles, and RAM usage are all real. The separate hard drive and chassis for each operating system are virtual. The other answers all have at least one fundamental problem with their logic. CPU cores are not installed in virtual machines but in CPU packages within physical machines. CPU cores do not take over for each other. There is no fault tolerance among them. Storing data is the job of RAM, which should also be maximized for virtualization workstations.

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50
Q

What part of a laser printer supplies the voltages for charging and transferring corona assemblies?

A. High-voltage power supply (HVPS)
B. DC power supply (DCPS)
C. Controller circuitry
D. Transfer corona

A

A. High-voltage power supply (HVPS)

The high-voltage power supply (HVPS) is the part of the laser printer that supplies the voltages for charging and transferring corona assemblies.

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51
Q

You have been asked to configure a full mesh network with seven computers. How many connections will this require?

A. 6
B. 7
C. 21
D. 42

A

C. 21

In a mesh network, the number of connections is determined by the formula x × (x – 1) ÷ 2. With seven computers, that amounts to 21 connections.

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52
Q

Which of the following protocols was designed to access information stored in an information directory, such as employee phone books?

A. FTP
B. LDAP
C. RDP
D. CIFS

A

B. LDAP

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is designed to access information stored in an information directory typically known as an LDAP directory or LDAP database. This typically includes employee data and network configuration data. FTP is designed to transfer files. RDP is a remote desktop protocol, and CIFS is used to share files and printers.

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53
Q

Which of the following security standards was the first to introduce a dynamic 128-bit per-packet security key?

A. WEP
B. TKIP
C. AES
D. CCMP

A

B. TKIP

WEP could use a 64-bit or 128-bit security key, but it was a static key. TKIP introduced a dynamic per-packet key. AES and CCMP came after TKIP

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54
Q

You have been asked to configure a client-side virtualization solution with three guest OSs. Each one needs Internet access. How should you configure the solution in the most cost-effective way?

A. Three physical NICs
B. One physical NIC, three virtual NICs, and one virtual switch
C. One physical NIC, one virtual NIC, and three virtual switches
D. One physical NIC, three virtual NIC, and three virtual switches

A

B. One physical NIC, three virtual NICs, and one virtual switch

Each virtual machine will use its own virtual NIC. The virtual NICs will communicate with a virtual switch managed by the hypervisor. The virtual switch will communicate with the physical NIC.

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55
Q

You need to replace defective DDR4 memory in a laptop. How many pins will the replacement memory module have?

A. 200
B. 204
C. 260
D. 288

A

C. 260

DDR4 SODIMMs have 260 pints. DDR2 SODIMMs have 200 pins, and DDR3 SODIMMs have 204 pins. No SODIMMs currently have 288 pins, but DDR4 DIMMs do.

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56
Q

Which of the following is a type of connector used with coaxial cable?

A. RG-6
B. RG-59
C. BNC
D. SC

A

C. BNC

Coaxial cable can use BNC connectors and F connectors. RG-6 and RG-59 are coaxial standards. SC is a fiber-optic connector.

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57
Q

Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 80?

A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. Telnet
D. POP3

A

A. HTTP

HTTP uses port 80. HTTPS uses port 443; Telnet uses port 23; and POP3 uses port 110.

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58
Q

You have just installed a wireless router on your home network. Which of the following should you do to make it highly secure? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Change the default administrator name and password.
B. Change the SSID.
C. Enable WEP.
D. Configure it to channel 11.

A

A. Change the default administrator name and password.
&
B. Change the SSID.

You should always change the default administrator name and password as well as the default SSID when installing a new wireless router. Enabling encryption is also a good idea, but WPA and WPA2 are better options than WEP. The channel has nothing to do with security.

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59
Q

You have been asked to set up client-side virtualization on a computer at work. The manager asks for a Type 2 hypervisor. What is the disadvantage of using that type of hypervisor?

A. The guest OS will compete for resources with the host OS.
B. The guest OS will be forced to a lower priortity with the CPU than the host OS.
C. The guest OS will be forced to use less RAM than the host OS.
D. The virtual guest OS will not be able to get on the physical network.

A

A. The guest OS will compete for resources with the host OS.

A Type 2 hypervisor sits on top of an existing OS, meaning that OSs installed in VMs will compete for resources with the host OS. The amount of resources available to a guest OS can be configured. Virtual OSs can get on the physical network if configured properly.

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60
Q

You need to replace a failed AC adapter for a client’s laptop. When replacing the adapter, which of the following purchases is acceptable to obtain the same or better results?

A. An AC adapter with a higher voltage rating than the original
B. An AC adapter with a higher wattage rating than the original
C. A DC adapter with the same voltage rating as the original
D. An AC adapter with a lower voltage and wattage rating than the original

A

B. An AC adapter with a higher wattage rating than the original

Think of wattage as a “bucket” of power that the attached device can draw from. A bigger bucket simply holds more power but does not force the power on the device. Less wattage is not advised, however. Voltage can be thought of as the pressure behind the power to the device. Anything but the proper voltage is dangerous for the device. When you replace a laptop’s AC adapter, you should match the voltage ratings of the original adapter. This also means that you should use an adapter with a fixed voltage if that matches the characteristics of the original; otherwise, obtain one that automatically switches voltages at the levels needed.

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61
Q

Transmitting at 10 Gbps, how far can signals on an MMF cable travel?

A. 100 meters
B. 550 meters
C. 1 kilometer
D. 40 kilometers

A

B. 550 meters

Multimode fiber (MMF) can transmit up to 550 meters, depending on the Ethernet specification. Other standards using MMF can transmit only up to 300 meters. If you need to transmit up to 40 kilometers, you will need to use single-mode fiber (SMF).

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62
Q

Your network is running IPv4. Which of the configuration options are mandatory for your host to communicate on the network? (Choose two.)

A. IP address
B. Subnet mask
C. Default gateway
D. DNS server address

A

A. IP address
&
B. Subnet mask

The only mandatory IPv4 configuration items are an IP address and a subnet mask. If you are not connecting to another network, you do not need a default gateway. DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses, but they are not mandatory.

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63
Q

You are setting up a small office network for a client. Which Internet service would you recommend to provide the best speed?

A. DSL
B. Dial-up
C. Satellite
D. BRI ISDN
E. PRI ISDN

A

A. DSL

Of the options listed, DSL provides the fastest speed. DSL can easily provide 12 Mbps downloads. Dial-up is limited to 56 Kbps, and BRI ISDN (128 Kbps) and PRI (about 1.5 Mbps) don’t even come close. Satellite is also much slower than DSL.

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64
Q

You have been asked to identify the right type of cloud service to help the team of developers to provide programming elements such as runtime environments. Which service do you recommend?

A. PaaS
B. IaaS
C. SaaS
D. DaaS

A

A. PaaS

Platform as a Service (PaaS) is probably the right level of service for the developer team. It provides infrastructure, like IaaS, and also supplies needed programming elements.

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65
Q

A user complains that his mouse cursor randomly jumps to different places on the screen when he types. Which device might you want to disable to prevent this from happening?

A. Touchpad
B. Mouse
C. Point stick
D. Trackball

A

A. Touchpad

The touchpad sits below the keyboard, where a user’s palms may rest when he is typing. That contact may cause the mouse cursor to appear to jump on the screen. Disabling the touchpad should prevent this from happening.

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66
Q

What devices transfer packets across multiple networks and use tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination?

A. Routers
B. Bridges
C. Hubs
D. Switches

A

A. Routers

Routers are designed to route (transfer) packets across networks. They are able to do this routing, determining the best path to take, based on the internal routing tables that they maintain.

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67
Q

Which of the following is the name of a secure point-to-point connection made over a public network?

A. NAT
B. APIPA
C. VLAN
D. VPN

A

D. VPN

A virtual private network (VPN) is a secure point-to-point connection made over a public network. NAT translates private IP address to public IP addresses. APIPA is an automatic IP address assignment if a client computer can’t reach a DHCP server. VLANs are virtual local area networks configured through switches.

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68
Q

Besides 802.11 standards, which wireless communication methods work in the 2.4 GHz range? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Bluetooth
B. Z-Wave
C. Satellite
D. 5 G mmWave
E. Zigbee
F. NFC

A

A. Bluetooth
&
E. Zigbee

Bluetooth and Zigbee also operate in the 2.4 GHz range. Z-Wave operates in the 800 MHz and 900 MHz ranges; satellite uses satellite waves; 5 G cellular mmWave is between 24 GHz and 86 GHz; and NFC uses 13.56 MHz.

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69
Q

Your manager wants to use the cloud because everyone seems to be talking about it. What should you include when you are listing the benefits of using the cloud? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Increased security
B. Increased scalability
C. Lower cost
D. Improved reliability

A

B. Increased scalability
C. Lower cost
D. Improved reliability

Cloud solutions are great for enhancing scalability and reliability while generally lowering costs. The biggest issue with cloud computing is security.

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70
Q

One of your network users has an older laptop with no Bluetooth support. He recently received a Bluetooth headset that he needs to use with his laptop. What is the quickest and cheapest way to make the headset compatible with his laptop?

A. Buy a Wi-Fi–compatible headset
B. Buy a USB Bluetooth adapter
C. Buy a Mini PCIe Bluetooth adapter
D. Replace the laptop

A

B. Buy a USB Bluetooth adapter

A USB Bluetooth adapter should do the trick. There are Mini PCIe Bluetooth adapters, but installing one is trickier than inserting a USB device. There aren’t really any Wi-Fi compatible headsets on the market—headsets are exactly what Bluetooth was designed for. Replacing the laptop is a much more expensive proposition.

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71
Q

You need to put a connector on the end of an Ethernet crossover cable. The existing end has a white and green colored wire at pin 1. What color do you need to make pin 1 on the new end?

A. White/green
B. Green
C. White/orange
D. Orange

A

C. White/orange

A crossover cable will flip pins 1 and 3 on each end. Therefore, this end needs to have the white/orange wire as pin 1. The correct order for this cable should be white/orange, orange, white/green, blue, white/blue, green, white/brown, brown.

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72
Q

Which of the following are valid examples of IPv6 addresses? (Choose all that apply.)

A. 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab
B. ::ffff:c0a8:173
C. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab
D. 2001::1ab4::5468

A

A. 2001:0db8:3c4d:0012:0000:0000:1234:56ab
B. ::ffff:c0a8:173
C. 2001:db8:3c4d:12::1234:56ab

An IPv6 address contains 128 bits, written in eight 16-bit fields represented by four hexadecimal digits. Option A contains all eight fields expressed in full. Option B is an IPv4 address expressed in IPv6 form. Option C is the same address as Option A, but written in accepted shorthand. Option D is not valid because the double colons (::) can be used only once within an address.

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73
Q

You are setting up a wireless network. Which wireless standards would give the users over 40 Mbps throughput? (Choose all that apply.)

A. 802.11ac
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11 g
D. 802.11n

A

A. 802.11ac
C. 802.11 g
D. 802.11n

Three standards listed—802.11ac (1,300 Mbps), 802.11 g (54 Mbps), and 802.11n (600 Mbps)—give users the required throughput.

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74
Q

Your manager wants you to install a networked Internet appliance that prevents network traffic–based attacks and includes anti-malware and anti-spam software. What should you install?

A. NIPS
B. NIDS
C. UTM
D. Endpoint management system

A

C. UTM

It sounds like the manager wants a unified threat management (UTM) device. They are designed to be one-stop network protection devices. Networked intrusion detection and prevention systems will detect network attacks but do not have anti-malware or anti-spam capabilities. An endpoint management system is not a security appliance.

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75
Q

The process by which the processor slows down to conserve power is officially called ____________.

A. Underclocking
B. Cooling
C. Disengaging
D. Throttling

A

D. Throttling

The processor can reduce how fast it’s working, which is called throttling, to help conserve battery life. CPUs do not perform underclocking, cooling, or disengaging.

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76
Q

What type of device will block unwanted traffic from your network using a set of rules called an ACL?

A. Router
B. Firewall
C. Bridge
D. NAS

A

B. Firewall

The job of a firewall is to block unwanted network traffic. Firewalls do this by using a list of rules called an access control list (ACL). Routers connect networks to each other, as do bridges. A network attached storage (NAS) device is like a dedicated file server.

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77
Q

What port does the RDP protocol work on?

A. 53
B. 143
C. 389
D. 3389

A

D. 3389

Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) works on port 3389. DNS works on port 53; IMAP4 works on port 143; and LDAP works on port 389.

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78
Q

You are running an 802.11 g wireless router in mixed mode. You have three 802.11 g wireless NICs using the router. A new user connects using an 802.11b wireless NIC. What will happen?

A. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11 Mbps, while the users with 802.11 g will access the network at 54 Mbps.
B. The user with 802.11b will not be able to communicate on the network.
C. The user with 802.11b will access the network at 11 Mbps. The users with 802.11 g will access the network at 54 Mbps, unless they are communicating with the 802.11b device, which will be at 11 Mbps.
D. All users will access the network at 11 Mbps.

A

D. All users will access the network at 11 Mbps.

The good news is that 802.11 g is backward compatible with 802.11b. The bad news is, if you run in a mixed environment, all devices that communicate with the WAP (or router) will be forced to slow down to accommodate the older technology.

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79
Q

You have been asked to advise a group of several universities that want to combine research efforts and store data in the cloud. Which type of cloud solution might be best for them?

A. Public
B. Private
C. Community
D. Hybrid

A

C. Community

When multiple organizations with similar objectives want to combine efforts in a cloud, the best choice is generally a community cloud. This allows for the flexibility and scalability normally found in a public cloud, but it also limits the number of users to a smaller, trusted group.

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80
Q

A user complains that his 2-in-1 laptop screen does not properly detect where he places his finger on the screen. What should you do first to resolve the issue?

A. Replace the touchscreen.
B. Replace the touchpad.
C. Recalibrate the touchscreen.
D. Recalibrate the touchpad.
E. Degauss the touchscreen.
F. Degauss the touchpad.

A

C. Recalibrate the touchscreen.

If the touchscreen is not responding properly, the first step is to recalibrate it. If it continues to have problems, the screen may be defective and might need to be replaced. Degaussing is a process used on old CRT monitors and is not relevant to touchscreens.

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81
Q

You are installing a network at a friend’s house, and it’s impossible to run a network cable from one point in the house to another. He does not want to use wireless networking. Which of the following is the best option to get network connectivity between the two points?

A. Power over Ethernet injector
B. Power over Ethernet switch
C. Ethernet over Power
D. Bridge

A

C. Ethernet over Power

Ethernet over Power can transmit network signals over power lines within a closed circuit, such as a house. It’s the best choice. PoE devices provide power to devices that only have an Ethernet connection available. A bridge is for connecting disparate network segments and dividing collision domains.

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82
Q

Which of the following is an IPv6 broadcast address?

A. ::1
B. FE80::
C. FF00::
D. ::FFFF
E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

IPv6 does not have broadcasts. IPv6 does have multicasts, which are a bit like targeted broadcasts. FF00:: is the first part of a multicast address.

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83
Q

Which of the following technologies can operate in the 125 kHz to 134 kHz range?

A. Bluetooth
B. RFID
C. NFC
D. LTE

A

B. RFID

Radio frequency identification (RFID) can operate in three frequency bands: 125 kHz to 134 kHz, 13.56 MHz, or 856 MHz to 960 MHz. Bluetooth is 2.4 GHz; NFC is 13.56 MHz; and LTE is between 600 MHz and 6 GHz.

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84
Q

You are configuring two email servers on your company’s network. Which network protocol do the servers use to transfer mail to each other?

A. POP3
B. IMAP4
C. SNMP
D. SMTP

A

D. SMTP

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used to transfer email between servers. POP3 and IMAP4 are used to download email. SNMP is Simple Network Management Protocol and not related to email.

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85
Q

There has recently been a string of hardware thefts in your office building. What should you recommend that your users implement to help avoid this problem?

A. Enable GPS tracking.
B. Use a docking station.
C. Use a cable lock.
D. Use the screensaver lock.

A

C. Use a cable lock.

Sometimes the only way to ensure that equipment doesn’t walk away is to lock it down physically. Laptops come equipped with holes for cable locks that can be used to secure them to a desk or other workstation. GPS tracking might help after the device is stolen, but it’s best to prevent that in the first place. A docking station does not prevent physical theft, nor does a screensaver with a password.

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86
Q

____________________ is the type of media access method used by NICs that listen to or sense the cable to check for traffic and send only when they hear that no one else is transmitting.

A. Token passing
B. CSMA/CD
C. CSMA/CA
D. Demand priority

A

B. CSMA/CD

Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD) specifies that the NIC pause before transmitting a packet to ensure that the line is not being used. If no activity is detected, then it transmits the packet. If activity is detected, it waits until it is clear. In the case of two NICs transmitting at the same time (a collision), both NICs pause to detect and then retransmit the data.

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87
Q

Which of the following protocols is responsible for resolving IP addresses to hardware addresses?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. ARP
D. RARP

A

C. ARP

The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) resolves IP addresses to hardware (MAC) addresses. RARP does the reverse—it resolves MAC addresses to IP addresses. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures TCP/IP clients.

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88
Q

What level of QoS is designated for interactive voice and video?

A. 1
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

A

C. 5

QoS level 5 is designated for interactive voice and video, with less than 100 ms delay. Level 1 is for background applications and is low priority. Level 4 is known as controlled load, which is lower priority than interactive voice and video. Level 6 only has 10 ms latency but is reserved for control traffic.

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89
Q

You have been asked to set up client-side virtualization on an office computer. The host OS is Windows 7, and there will be three Windows 7 guest OSs. Which of the following is true about the need for antivirus security?

A. The host OS needs an antivirus program, but virtual machines can’t be affected by viruses.
B. The host OS antivirus software will also protect the guest OSs on the VMs.
C. Installing antivirus software on the virtual switch will protect all guest OSs.
D. The host OS and each guest OS need their own antivirus software installed.

A

D. The host OS and each guest OS need their own antivirus software installed.

Each instance of the OS you are running requires its own security software.

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90
Q

A user wants her laptop to have a full-sized optical drive and external hard drive. Which of the following accessories is most likely to have full-sized bays for these devices?

A. Laptop base
B. Port replicator
C. Docking station
D. Mini PCIe dock

A

C. Docking station

A docking station is a device that a laptop can be plugged into that replicates common laptop ports, and may also have full-sized bays for PC desktop expansion cards and storage devices, such as hard drives and optical drives. A port replicator will replicate laptop ports but does not usually have expansion bays. There is no specific laptop base accessory or a Mini PCIe dock. (Mini PCIe is an internal laptop technology.)

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91
Q

Which of the following wireless communication standards is often described in terms of a wireless personal area network?

A. Bluetooth
B. Infrared
C. Cellular
D. Ethernet

A

A. Bluetooth

Bluetooth networks are often called wireless personal area networks (WPANs).

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92
Q

You are manually configuring a TCP/IP host. Another administrator gives you the router’s IP address. What is the TCP/IP term for this?

A. Default gateway
B. Subnet mask
C. DNS server
D. DHCP server

A

A. Default gateway

The router is your doorway out into other networks, and it is known in TCP/IP terms as the default gateway. Without this configuration option, you would not be able to get to external networks. The subnet mask tells a host which network it’s on. The DNS server resolves hostnames to IP addresses, and a DHCP server provides IP configuration information to hosts.

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93
Q

What is the primary function of the SSID?

A. To secure communication between a web server and a browser
B. To secure communication between a server and a remote host
C. To serve as a parameter used to identify a network and configure a wireless connection
D. To serve as a type of password used to secure a wireless connection

A

C. To serve as a parameter used to identify a network and configure a wireless connection

A service-set identifier (SSID) is the unique name given to the wireless network. All hardware that is to participate on the network must be configured to use the same SSID. Essentially, it is the network name. When you are using Windows to connect to a wireless network, all available wireless networks will be listed by their SSID.

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94
Q

What does a DHCP server need to be configured with to operate properly?

A. DNS server
B. Scope
C. Range
D. DHCP relay agent

A

B. Scope

Every DHCP server needs to have a scope, which is the range of addresses available to clients, as well as other options that it can give to client computers. A DHCP server can optionally provide clients with the address of a DNS server. There is no DHCP range. A DHCP relay agent is a system configured on a subnet with no DHCP server that relays DHCP requests to the DHCP server.

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95
Q

Your manager tells you to replace the inverter on a broken laptop. Where will you find this component?

A. Underneath the keyboard
B. In the display
C. Next to the heat sink and fan
D. Near the CPU

A

B. In the display

The inverter, which transforms AC power into DC power for an LCD backlight, is found in the display. It’s not underneath the keyboard, next to the heat sink and fan, or near the processor, which are all located in the bottom half of the laptop.

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96
Q

What is the lowest grade of UTP that is rated for 100 Mbps transmission?

A. CAT-5
B. CAT-5e
C. CAT-6
D. CAT-6a

A

A. CAT-5

CAT-5 was the first UTP standard ratified for 100 Mbps transmissions. Before that, CAT-3 was popular but only supported 10 Mbps. CAT-5e, CAT-6, and CAT-6a all support at least 1 Gbps and came after CAT-5.

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97
Q

Which of the following IP addresses would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet?

A. 10.25.11.33
B. 18.33.66.254
C. 155.118.63.11
D. 192.186.12.2

A

A. 10.25.11.33

DNS servers resolve hostnames to IP addresses. On the Internet, a DNS server needs to have a public IP address. The address 10.25.11.33 is in a private address space, so that address would not be valid for a DNS server on the Internet.

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98
Q

You are installing a single 802.11 g wireless network. The office space is large enough that you need three WAPs. What channels should you configure the WAPs on to avoid communication issues?

A. 2, 5, and 7
B. 1, 8, and 14
C. 1, 6, and 11
D. 3, 6, and 9

A

C. 1, 6, and 11

There are 14 communication channels in the 2.4 GHz range, but only the first 11 are configurable. The three non-overlapping channels are 1, 6, and 11.

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99
Q

You are setting up a cloud contract with a provider. Your team needs the ability to increase capacity without intervention from the provider. What do you request?

A. Rapid elasticity
B. On-demand self-service
C. Resource pooling
D. Measured service

A

B. On-demand self-service

The ability to expand services without provider intervention is called on-demand self-service. Rapid elasticity means you can quickly increase capacity, but it usually requires supplier intervention. Resource pooling is taking resources from multiple machines and making them available as one pool. Measured service is how many suppliers track usage and charge accordingly.

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100
Q

A user has requested a laptop memory upgrade. The technician attempts to put in new memory, but the memory module is barely too wide for the slot. What is the most likely scenario?

A. The technician is trying to install DDR4 into a motherboard with DDR3 slots.
B. The technician is trying to install DDR3 into a motherboard with DDR4 slots.
C. The technician is trying to install MicroDIMMs into SODIMM slots.
D. The technician is trying to install DIMMs into SODIMM slots.

A

A. The technician is trying to install DDR4 into a motherboard with DDR3 slots.

Laptops use SODIMMs (or possibly MicroDIMMs), which are much smaller than standard DIMMs used in desktops. DDR2 and DDR3 SODIMMs are 67.6 millimeters wide, whereas DDR4 SODIMMs are 69.6 millimeters wide. It’s likely that the technician has DDR4 SODIMMs and the motherboard supports DDR3 SODIMMs.

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101
Q

Apps for Android-based smartphones and tablets can be downloaded from which store?

A. App Store
B. Google Play
C. Android Store
D. Microsoft Store

A

B. Google Play

The app store for Android-based devices is Google Play. iOS devices download apps from the App Store. Windows-based apps can be downloaded from the Microsoft Store.

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102
Q

A technician is configuring a mobile client to use email through an ISP. Which port number should he configure to use SMTP?

A. 25
B. 110
C. 143
D. 995

A

A. 25

SMTP sends mail to the server on TCP port 25. POP3 uses port 110. IMAP4 uses port 143. POP3 uses port 995 securely over SSL or TLS.

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103
Q

You have fixed a printer problem and verified full functionality. What is the next step to take in the best practice methodology?

A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
B. Conduct internal or external research.
C. Review system and application logs.
D. Establish a theory of probable cause.

A

A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

After verifying full system functionality and implementing preventive measures as needed, the final step in the best practice methodology is to document findings, actions, and outcomes.

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104
Q

You boot up a Windows 10 desktop computer. The Windows splash screen flashes briefly, and then there is no display. What is the best next step to take to troubleshoot the issue?

A. Replace the failed monitor
B. Replace the failed video card
C. Reboot and enable low-resolution video mode
D. Try a second monitor

A

C. Reboot and enable low-resolution video mode

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105
Q

Multi-touch refers to which feature of a touch screen device?

A. The ability to touch multiple parts of the screen at once to provide input
B. The ability to touch the screen multiple times consecutively as part of the same input stream
C. The ability for multiple people to use the touch screen device
D. The ability to use a stylus or a finger as an input device

A

A. The ability to touch multiple parts of the screen at once to provide input

Multi-touch simply means that the touch screen can accept multiple inputs from different parts of the screen at the same time. This allows for functionality such as pinch to zoom. It could mean that multiple people are using the touch screen at once, but it does not have to mean that.

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106
Q

Which of the following are disabled when airplane mode is switched on? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Cellular
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth
D. Settings app
E. Lock screen

A

A. Cellular
B. Wi-Fi
C. Bluetooth

Airplane mode disables all radio communications, including cellular, Wi-Fi, and Bluetooth (and NFC as well). It does not affect the opening of any other apps or the lock screen.

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107
Q

You are troubleshooting a Windows-based desktop computer that is experiencing unexpected shutdowns. Which of the following would be a good next step to resolve the issue? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Replace the motherboard, CPU, and RAM to see if it resolves the problem.
B. Replace the RAM to see if it resolves the problem.
C. Reinstall Windows to see if it resolves the problem.
D. Replace the CPU to see if it resolves the problem.

A

B. Replace the RAM to see if it resolves the problem.
&
D. Replace the CPU to see if it resolves the problem.

Intermittent shutdowns are hard to troubleshoot but are most likely hardware related. When troubleshooting, always make one change at a time to try to resolve the issue. Replacing the RAM or the CPU to see if it resolves the problem could be a good next step, but replacing three components at once is too many changes unless you have specific reason to believe it is all three. Reinstalling Windows is probably overkill as well. Narrow down the issue before implementing sweeping solutions such as that.

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108
Q

You have an inkjet printer. Recently, papers are being printed with excessive amounts of ink, and the ink is smearing. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. A faulty ink cartridge
B. A corrupt print driver
C. A faulty fuser
D. Too much humidity in the air

A

A. A faulty ink cartridge

If an ink cartridge is faulty or develops a hole, it can release excessive amounts of ink, which will lead to smearing. A corrupt print driver would result in printing garbage. Inkjet printers do not have a fuser. Excessive humidity may cause smearing, but it wouldn’t cause the disbursement of too much ink.

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109
Q

Which of the following is the name of the protocol used to transmit data in NFC peer-to-peer mode?

A. NDEF
B. NFCP
C. LLCP
D. SNEP

A

D. SNEP

NFC uses Simple NDEF Exchange Protocol (SNEP) in peer-to-peer mode. It’s based on LLCP (Logical Link Control Protocol).

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110
Q

Which of the following are universally common items that are synced between a mobile device and a larger computer? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Office documents
B. Contacts
C. Operating system files
D. Email
E. Configuration settings
F. Apps

A

B. Contacts
D. Email
F. Apps

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111
Q

When a desktop computer boots up, there is no video on the LCD monitor, just a blank screen. The system makes one beep when it powers on, and air is coming out of the case fan. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. The motherboard has failed.
B. The video card has failed.
C. The monitor is disconnected.
D. The CPU or RAM has failed.

A

C. The monitor is disconnected.

When troubleshooting, always question the obvious. In this case, the system beeps once, which is usually a signal from the BIOS that POST completed successfully, and air is coming from the system fan. All of that appears to be normal. Check to see that the monitor is connected properly to the desktop computer and that it’s receiving power.

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112
Q

You are having problems with the video card in one of your computers. Where could you check for troubleshooting information?

A. Another computer with the same video card
B. The video card manufacturer’s website
C. The manual that came with the card
D. The server log

A

B. The video card manufacturer’s website

The manufacturer’s website is the first place you should go for information on your products, including troubleshooting information. Many years ago, manufacturers would provide paper manuals with their products, but that’s almost unheard of today, unless you download a PDF version from the website. Server logs can show error codes, but they won’t tell you how to fix anything.

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113
Q

You need to provide users with memory cards that hold enough data for their needs. How much data can a microSDXC memory card hold?

A. 4 GB
B. 32 GB
C. 128 GB
D. 2 TB

A

D. 2 TB

MicroSDXC cards can hold up to 2 TB. SDHC cards can hold up to 32 GB, and standard SD cards can hold up to 4 GB.

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114
Q

You are pairing a Bluetooth headset to a mobile device. On the mobile device, after finding the device for pairing, what is the next step to take?

A. Enable Bluetooth.
B. Test connectivity.
C. Enter the appropriate PIN code.
D. Enable pairing.

A

C. Enter the appropriate PIN code.

The next step is to enter the PIN code. The steps, in order, are as follows: enable Bluetooth, enable pairing, find a device for pairing, enter the appropriate PIN code, and test connectivity.

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115
Q

You have implemented a solution that resolved an audio problem on a laptop computer. Following the best practice methodology, what is the next step to take?

A. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.
C. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem
D. Review system and application logs.

A

B. Verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures.

The fourth step in the best practice methodology is to establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution, which was done already. The next step is to verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures. The final step is to document findings, actions, and outcomes. Reviewing system and application logs is part of identifying the problem, which is the first step.

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116
Q

A user tells you that his Android phone case is bulging, and the device has been hot to the touch lately. You suspect a swollen battery. Which of the following is a good next step?

A. Replace the device
B. Leave the device on to drain the battery, and then recharge the device
C. Turn the device off, let it cool to room temperature, and then recharge the device
D. Use the battery calibration utility
E. Freeze the system

A

A. Replace the device

With a swollen battery, the best solution is to replace the device. If you are experienced with mobile device batteries, you may be able to replace the battery, but be careful! You should not charge a swollen battery or freeze the system. A battery calibration utility will do no good.

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117
Q

Which of the following is the most common input method for mobile devices?

A. Stylus
B. Resistive touch screen
C. Capacitive touch screen
D. Keyboard and mouse

A

C. Capacitive touch screen

Most mobile devices today use capacitive touch screens, which allow the user to use their finger as an input device. Resistive touch screens sense pressure, and a stylus is commonly used with them. Keyboards and mice are too large for most mobile devices.

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118
Q

In a mobile device, which of the following are examples of RTOSs? (Choose two.)

A. SIM OS
B. Baseband OS
C. iOS
D. Android

A

A. SIM OS
&
B. Baseband OS

The two real-time OSs (RTOSs) that mobile phones have are the baseband OS and the SIM OS. iOS and Android are not RTOSs.

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119
Q

You have discovered a fix for a broken laptop. Before implementing changes, what should you consider, according to the best practice methodology?

A. The user’s budget
B. Company reputation
C. Upgrade feasibility
D. Corporate policies

A

D. Corporate policies

According to the best practice methodology, you should always consider corporate policies, procedures, and impacts before implementing changes. The user’s budget, company reputation, and upgrade feasibility are not mentioned in the best practice methodology to resolve problems.

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120
Q

If the video on your laptop is not working, what should you do to troubleshoot it? (Choose two.)

A. Toggle the video function key
B. Try using an external monitor
C. Remove the display unit and reattach it
D. Power the system off and back on

A

A. Toggle the video function key
&
B. Try using an external monitor

Two helpful things to try are toggling the video output function key (usually something like Fn+F8) and plugging an external monitor into the laptop. Removing the display is possible but not necessary yet. Powering the system off and back on isn’t likely to correct the problem.

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121
Q

You are configuring wireless communication for several smartphones. Which of the following wireless communication methods has the shortest operational range?

A. Wi-Fi
B. Bluetooth
C. NFC
D. IR

A

C. NFC

Near field communication (NFC) has a maximum range of about 10 centimeters. Wi-Fi depends on the standard, but it usually has a range of 30 meters or more. Bluetooth Class 2 devices can operate at about 10 meters, and infrared (IR) has a maximum range of about 1 meter.

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122
Q

You are enabling email on a mobile client. Which of the following is not a standard integrated commercial provider for email?

A. iCloud
B. Hotmail
C. Yahoo Mail
D. Exchange Online

A

B. Hotmail

Four commercial email providers to be familiar with are iCloud, Google/Inbox, Exchange Online, and Yahoo Mail. Hotmail used to be a commercial email provider, but it no longer exists; it’s now part of Outlook.com.

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123
Q

When you turn on a desktop computer, you hear a loud squealing noise coming from inside the case. Which components are potential culprits for making the noise? (Choose all that apply.)

A. CPU fan
B. Power supply fan
C. HDD
D. SSD
E. CPU
F. RAM

A

A. CPU fan
B. Power supply fan
C. HDD

Only components with moving parts can make ticking, clicking, or squealing noises. It’s probably a fan of some sort (such as the CPU fan or power supply fan), or it could be a conventional hard drive. SSDs, CPUs, and RAM do not have moving parts and therefore could not be causing this problem.

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124
Q

A network cable for a crucial server has failed. There are no pre-made Ethernet cables available, but there is bulk cable and connectors. Which tool do you need to use to make a new cable?

A. Crimper
B. Punch-down tool
C. Cable tester
D. Loopback plug

A

A. Crimper

A crimper is used to make network cables. Punch-down tools are used to connect the wires of a cable to a wiring rack, such as a 110-block. Cable testers are for verifying that a cable works properly (and may be handy after you complete the cable). A loopback plug is for testing the ability of a network adapter to send and receive.

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125
Q

You have a mobile touch screen device with a screen size of 11ʺ. What is the most likely classification of this device?

A. Tablet
B. Phablet
C. Smartphone
D. GPS

A

A. Tablet

Tablets generally have a screen size between 7ʺ and 13ʺ. Phablets were historically between 5ʺ and 7ʺ, and smartphones are smaller than phablets. GPS touch screens are usually around the same size as the screens on smartphones.

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126
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for installing iTunes on a Windows machine?

A. A 1 GHz processor or better
B. 1 GB of RAM or higher
C. 400 MB of available disk space
D. Broadband Internet connection

A

B. 1 GB of RAM or higher

iTunes will run on a computer with 512 MB of RAM. 1 GB is not required unless you want to play 720p high-definition videos. A 1 GHz processor, 400 MB disk space, and broadband Internet are required.

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127
Q

You are solving a problem with a desktop computer that was caused by human error. When is the appropriate time to implement preventive measures, according to the best practice methodology?

A. When documenting findings, actions, and outcomes
B. When testing the theory to determine cause
C. When verifying full system functionality
D. When questioning the user to identify user changes

A

C. When verifying full system functionality

The fifth step in the best practice methodology is to verify full system functionality and, if applicable, implement preventive measures. This step occurs after a plan of action to resolve the problem has been established and before findings, actions, and outcomes have been documented.

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128
Q

You turn a computer on and it doesn’t boot up properly. You hear a rhythmic ticking sound coming from inside the case. What is most likely the problem?

A. The motherboard
B. The power supply fan
C. The HDD
D. The video card

A

C. The HDD

The only components that make noise are the ones that have moving parts, such as fans and conventional hard disk drives. In most cases, a rhythmic ticking sound will be something that’s generated by a conventional hard disk drive (HDD).

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129
Q

Which iPhone version introduced the Lightning connector?

A. iPhone 4
B. iPhone 5
C. iPhone 6
D. iPhone 8

A

B. iPhone 5

The iPhone 5 was the first iPhone to use the Lightning connector. All newer iPhones use it as well.

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130
Q

A friend asks you why she would ever disable cellular data networking. Which of the following is not a valid reason to disable cellular data networking?

A. You have a limited amount of data in your monthly plan.
B. You have access to a reliable Wi-Fi signal.
C. You are about to download an update to your phone.
D. Your phone calls are going out over your carrier’s cellular network.

A

D. Your phone calls are going out over your carrier’s cellular network.

Whenever you have a reliable Wi-Fi signal available, which you do not pay for “as you go,” you should feel free to disable your cellular access to data networking. The wireless network is often faster and does not cost you anything to use. If data networking works better when you leave the cellular network available as a fallback, you can choose to disable it only for certain large downloads or disable it completely until the download is complete. Phone calls will continue to be sent over the cellular network. This does not imply that your data is not using an available Wi-Fi connection. Therefore, unless you are particularly sensitive to the situation or know that data is going out over your cell access, you might not need to disable the cellular data-networking feature.

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131
Q

You are identifying the problem while troubleshooting a network issue. Which of the following are proper steps to help identify the problem? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Inquire regarding infrastructure changes.
B. Conduct internal or external research based on symptoms.
C. Review the system and application logs.
D. Determine the next steps to resolve the problem.
E. Question the user and identify user changes to the computer.

A

A. Inquire regarding infrastructure changes.
C. Review the system and application logs.
E. Question the user and identify user changes to the computer.

The three sub-steps to identify the problem are: question the user and identify user changes to computer; inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes; and review the system and application logs. Conducting internal or external research is part of establishing a theory of probable cause. Determining the next steps to resolve the problem is part of testing the theory to determine cause.

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132
Q

A laptop user with an 802.11ac wireless network card just switched desk locations. In the new location, she says that her wireless drops connectivity intermittently and seems to have slow transfer speeds. Which of the following is most likely to resolve these issues?

A. Replace the network card
B. Run ipconfig to ensure that she is receiving the right IP address from the DHCP server
C. Install a new WAP closer to her new desk
D. Use a network monitor to ensure that there are no IP address conflicts

A

C. Install a new WAP closer to her new desk

Distance matters in wireless networks. Being too far away from an access point will result in a weaker signal, which can cause intermittent signal drops and poor performance. Moving closer to the wireless access point (WAP) or wireless router can help, as can installing additional WAPs or wireless routers. The IP address from the DHCP server won’t matter, and since she reported no error message, there is not likely to be an IP address conflict. Unless there are other issues, replacing the NIC seems to be overkill.

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133
Q

One of your friends wants to play a console-based game on her tablet. What type of accessory would you most recommend she connect and configure to help the experience?

A. VR headset
B. Game pad
C. AR headset
D. Extra battery pack

A

B. Game pad

For game players, a game pad or gaming controller may be a good accessory to have. VR headsets could also be good, but only for certain games. An AR headset isn’t likely to help with gaming. An extra battery pack could help extend the playing time, but it isn’t needed if the tablet is plugged in.

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134
Q

You need to enable clients to synchronize their mobile devices to their laptops. Which of the following are common connection types to enable laptop synchronization? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Cellular
B. Bluetooth
C. Wi-Fi
D. USB
E. Tethering

A

C. Wi-Fi
&
D. USB

The two most common connection types for synchronization to a desktop (or laptop) are Wi-Fi and USB. Cellular and Bluetooth are not used for desktop synchronization. Tethering is when a laptop or other device is granted cellular network access by connecting to a mobile device, such as a smartphone.

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135
Q

You have been troubleshooting a laptop for an hour and have established a theory of probable cause for the problem. What is the next step you should take?

A. Test the theory to determine the cause.
B. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
C. Verify full system functionality and implement preventive measures.
D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.

A

A. Test the theory to determine the cause.

The second step in the best practice methodology to resolve problems is to establish a theory of probable cause, which has been done here. The next step is to test the theory to determine cause. After that, establish a plan of action to resolve the problem, verify full system functionality, and document findings.

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136
Q

While troubleshooting a client computer, you decide to obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server. After releasing the existing address, which command do you use to get new IP information from the DHCP server?

A. ipconfig /refresh
B. ipconfig /renew
C. ifconfig /release
D. ifconfig /start

A

B. ipconfig /renew

The ipconfig command is perhaps the most-used utility in troubleshooting and network configuration. The ipconfig /renew command will send a query to the DHCP server asking it to resend and renew all DHCP information. For a more detailed look at the ipconfig command, type ipconfig /? at the command prompt. The ifconfig command is used with Linux and macOS clients. There are no /refresh or /startswitches for these commands.

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137
Q

You need to set up a Bluetooth headset for a user. He wants to know the farthest he can be away from his phone and still have it work. You do not have the documentation handy. What is the most likely maximum range that this Bluetooth accessory will have?

A. 10 centimeters
B. 10 meters
C. 100 meters
D. 1 kilometer

A

B. 10 meters

Most mobile Bluetooth accessories are Class 2 devices, which have a maximum functional range of 10 meters. The actual range will depend on the headset’s properties.

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138
Q

You need to configure email for a mobile client. His device has a setting referring to port 587. Which mail protocol is likely using this protocol?

A. SMTP with SSL
B. SMTP with TLS
C. IMAP4 with SSL/TLS
D. POP3 with SSL/TLS

A

B. SMTP with TLS

SMTP with TLS uses port 587 by default. With SSL, SMTP uses port 465. IMAP4 with SSL/TLS uses port 993, while POP3 with SSL/TLS uses port 995.

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139
Q

A user pushes the power button on her desktop computer but nothing happens. She double-checks that it is plugged in and that the wall outlet is working properly. Which components are most likely to cause this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Power supply
B. Motherboard
C. Power cord
D. CPU
E. RAM

A

A. Power supply
&
C. Power cord

If the wall outlet is functioning and the power cable is connected properly (always check the obvious), then the most likely culprits are the power supply or the power cord. The motherboard, CPU, and RAM are unlikely to cause a complete power failure in a computer.

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140
Q

The display on a laptop computer is continuously flickering. Which of the following are most likely to cause this problem? (Choose two.)

A. A failing display
B. Interference from a nearby fan
C. A failing backlight
D. A failing inverter
E. Incorrect video driver

A

C. A failing backlight
&
D. A failing inverter

Perpetually dim or flickering screens are most likely caused by a failing backlight or inverter, which supplies power to the backlight. LCD devices are not subject to interference from fans. An incorrect video driver will not cause a flickering image.

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141
Q

A user is concerned about security after setting up wireless communications on his tablet. Which wireless communication method has an operational range of about 1 meter and a viewing angle of about 30 degrees?

A. Wi-Fi
B. Bluetooth
C. NFC
D. IR

A

D. IR

Infrared has an operational range of about 1 meter. Near field communication (NFC) has a maximum range of about 10 centimeters. Wi-Fi depends on the standard, but it usually has a range of 30 meters or more. Bluetooth Class 2 devices can operate at about 10 meters.

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142
Q

You need to configure a mobile client to send encrypted emails. Which standard is used to encrypt and decrypt email messages on mobile devices?

A. SSL
B. TLS
C. IMAPS
D. S/MIME

A

D. S/MIME

Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) is the public key encryption standard used for encrypting and decrypting email. SSL and TLS can encrypt network traffic but not an email message. IMAP is an email protocol, but there is no IMAPS.

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143
Q

A desktop computer is experiencing continuous reboots. It gets to the BIOS screen and then reboots every time. Which two components are most likely to cause this problem? (Choose two.)

A. Power supply
B. RAM
C. CPU
D. Motherboard

A

C. CPU
&
D. Motherboard

Continuous reboots are most likely caused by the motherboard or CPU failing. It’s possible it’s the RAM, but less likely. The power supply is the least likely cause of the problem in this scenario.

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144
Q

You believe that a network card is beginning to fail. Which of the following tools should you use to see if the network card is capable of sending and receiving data from an RJ-45 port?

A. Tone generator and probe
B. Loopback plug
C. Multimeter
D. Cable tester

A

B. Loopback plug

A loopback plug is used to test the ability of a network adapter to send and receive. The plug gets plugged into the NIC, and then a loopback test is performed using troubleshooting software. A tone generator and probe is used to trace a cable. Multimeters test for electrical issues. Cable testers are for verifying that a cable works properly.

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145
Q

Which of the following are advantages of e-readers using E Ink over tablets? (Choose two.)

A. More vivid colors
B. Longer battery life
C. Easier to read in bright light
D. Better screen resolution

A

B. Longer battery life
&
C. Easier to read in bright light

E-readers that use electrophoretic ink (E Ink) have a longer battery life than tablets and are easier to read in bright light conditions. They do not have more vivid colors or better screen resolution.

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146
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes what an IMEI is?

A. The phone’s serial number
B. The description of the user and mobile network
C. The carrier code
D. The code used for NFC pay applications

A

A. The phone’s serial number

The international mobile equipment identity (IMEI) is a 15-digit serial number that is unique to each phone. The international mobile subscriber identity (IMSI) is a unique 15-digit identifier that describes a specific mobile user and their network. The secure element identifier (SEID) is a very long hexadecimal code that uniquely identifies the phone; it is used in security applications, NFC, and features like Apple Pay.

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147
Q

A Windows user complains that her computer keeps crashing. What is the proprietary crash screen she is most likely seeing?

A. Stop sign
B. Pinwheel
C. BSOD
D. Black screen

A

C. BSOD

When Windows-based systems crash, as can happen due to a memory, CPU, or motherboard problem, they will most likely display a Blue Screen of Death (BSOD). The good news is that the BSOD can often provide useful information, such as an error code, to help troubleshoot the problem. There is no stop sign proprietary crash screen, and the pinwheel is used in macOS and OS X. A black screen may indicate a system crash but is not proprietary to one operating system.

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148
Q

You support an old impact printer at work. When the printer prints, there is always a blank horizontal line in the middle of each line of output. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. The print ribbon is old and needs to be replaced.
B. The print ribbon is not advancing properly.
C. The print head needs to be replaced.
D. The wrong print driver is installed.

A

C. The print head needs to be replaced.

If there is a consistent blank space, it likely means that a pin is not firing properly and the print head needs to be replaced. If the print ribbon were old, you would have consistently faded printing. If the ribbon were not advancing properly, you would get light and dark printing. If the wrong driver were installed, you would get garbage.

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149
Q

A user wants to attempt to ensure that their boss can’t see where they are, based on tracking their iPhone. Which option should they disable?

A. Location Services
B. GPS
C. Tracking Services
D. Airplane Mode

A

A. Location Services

Apple calls its GPS services Location Services. For the phone to use GPS (and to be tracked), Location Services should be enabled. There is no Apple service called Tracking Services. Airplane Mode would turn off GPS (and Location Services), but it needs to be enabled, not disabled.

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150
Q

You need to pair two Bluetooth devices with each other. Which of the following is true regarding Bluetooth pairing?

A. Bluetooth connections support wireless device control but not file transfers.
B. Bluetooth is not yet a fully standardized protocol.
C. Bluetooth connections do not reach as far as Wi-Fi connections.
D. You must reboot the paired devices to complete the connection.

A

C. Bluetooth connections do not reach as far as Wi-Fi connections.

The range of Bluetooth connections is considered short compared to Wi-Fi connections. Bluetooth is a fully standardized protocol that supports file transfers using FTP. Rebooting, or even restarting, paired devices is not a requirement for Bluetooth connection.

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151
Q

You find out that a disgruntled ex-employee’s computer has a boot password that must be entered before the operating system is ever loaded. There is also a password preventing your access to the BIOS utility. Which of the following motherboard components can most likely be used to return the computer to a state that will allow you to boot the system without knowing the password?

A. Cable header
B. Power reset connector
C. Toggle switch
D. Jumper

A

D. Jumper

Most motherboards have a jumper or similar momentary closure mechanism that will allow you to clear the CMOS memory of any user settings and cause the BIOS to use factory defaults, including no user or supervisor passwords.

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152
Q

Which of the following is not a consideration when upgrading power supplies?

A. You might find that you do not have a matching motherboard connector on your new power supply.
B. You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply.
C. You might find that your power rating is not adequate on the new power supply.
D. You might find that you do not have enough of the appropriate connectors coming from the power supply for the devices that you have installed.

A

B. You might find that your case has a nonremovable power supply.

Personal computers do not have permanently installed power supplies. Like other electrical and electronic components, power supplies can and do fail on a regular basis. Permanently mounting a power supply to a chassis would be a disservice to the consumer. You should consider the cumulative power needs of your installed components, and you might have to obtain adapters and splitters if you do not have enough or you have the wrong types of connectors coming from the power supply.

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153
Q

You want to enhance your display capabilities. Which of the following is possible to do with multi-monitor settings?

A. Connect multiple monitors to your computer only by using a graphics adapter with two video interfaces.
B. Cause two different Desktops to merge onto the same monitor.
C. Connect two laptops together so they display the same Desktop
D. Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors.

A

D. Display different parts of your Desktop on different monitors.

The multi-monitor feature allows two monitors to display exactly the same thing (clone) or to extend your Desktop onto the second monitor. There is no need to use one adapter to achieve this result. In fact, the two adapters don’t even have to use the same expansion-bus architecture. The two cards must, however, use the same graphics-adapter driver. Multi-monitor settings do not cause two Desktops to merge, nor do they allow two laptops to display the same Desktop.

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154
Q

Which type of system simply needs to meet recommended requirements for standard versions of operating systems and support desktop applications?

A. Thin client
B. Thick client
C. Network-attached storage device
D. Virtualization workstation

A

B. Thick client

Thick clients are standard desktop PCs. They stand in contrast to systems with specialized requirements, such as the remaining options.

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155
Q

Which of the following is fed through an extruder on a 3D printer to create objects?

A. Plastic
B. Metal
C. Filament
D. Extrusion powder

A

C. Filament

3D printers use filament to create objects. Filament is often plastic, but it can contain metals too. There is no extrusion powder.

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156
Q

You are replacing a motherboard in a computer that uses an AMD Ryzen 3 processor. Which CPU socket type do you need to ensure that the motherboard has?

A. AM2
B. AM3
C. AM4
D. LGA 1151

A

C. AM4

The AMD Ryzen 3, Ryzen 5, and Ryzen 7 CPUs use Socket AM4. AM2 and AM3 are used for older processors, such as the Phenom II, Athlon II, Sempron, and Opteron. Any socket that starts with LGA in its socket name is for Intel processors.

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157
Q

You are choosing an optical drive format for a client. Which optical disc format supports a data capacity of 25 GB?

A. Double-sided, double-layer DVD+R
B. Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray Disc
C. Double-sided, single-layer DVD-R
D. Double-sided, single-layer DVD+R

A

B. Single-sided, single-layer Blu-ray Disc

Blu-ray discs have a single-sided, single-layer capacity of 25 GB. A double-sided, single layer DVD can store about 9.4 GB, and a double-sided, double-layer DVD can store about 171 GB.

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158
Q

Which of the following have been common methods to backlight an LCD monitor? (Choose two.)

A. RGB OLEDs
B. LEDs
C. Incandescent bulbs
D. Halogen bulbs
E. Fluorescent bulbs

A

B. LEDs
&
E. Fluorescent bulbs

Early LCD monitors featured one or more fluorescent bulbs that were used to produce light that shone through the LCD panel. Modern LCD monitors have LED panels to generate the light, the advantage being that there is now a separate LED for each picture element instead of a common light source for the entire monitor. OLEDs do provide light, but RGB OLEDs are not used. Incandescent and halogen bulbs are not used for backlighting.

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159
Q

Robin has been asked to lead training for new technicians at a local PC distributor specializing in gaming PCs. For which one of the following should she not recommend upgraded parts?

A. High-end cooling
B. A RAID array
C. High-end video
D. Better sound card

A

B. A RAID array

Gaming PCs are not known for requiring fault tolerance or data persistence. RAID arrays, therefore, are generally not included. The other components are a benefit for gaming PCs, however.

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160
Q

Which laser printer component permanently presses the toner into the paper?

A. Transfer corona
B. Fuser assembly
C. Printer controller circuitry
D. Paper transport assembly

A

B. Fuser assembly

The fuser assembly presses and melts the toner into the paper. The transfer corona transfers the toner from the drum to the paper. The printer controller circuitry converts signals from the PC into signals for the various printer assemblies. The paper transport assembly controls the movement of the paper through the printer.

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161
Q

You are installing a new computer, and the user wants to use virtualization. Which two hardware components need to support virtual technology for this to work properly? (Choose two.)

A. RAM
B. Motherboard
C. CPU
D. BIOS

A

C. CPU
&
D. BIOS

For virtualization to work, both the CPU and BIOS need to support it. The operating system does as well. Virtualization support may need to be manually enabled in the BIOS. RAM does not need to support virtualization, and neither does the motherboard (except for the BIOS).

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162
Q

You need to install a new hard drive into a desktop computer, Which of the following is not one of the three major components of a hard disk drive system?

A. Drive interface
B. Disk controller
C. Hard disk
D. Host adapter

A

A. Drive interface

A conventional hard disk drive system consists of the hard disk and its often-integrated controller as well as a host adapter to gain access to the rest of the computer system. The drive interface is a common component of the controller and host adapter.

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163
Q

A user with an iPhone 7 needs to charge her device and asks you to bring a cable. Which of the following connector types should you ensure that the cable has?

A. Thunderbolt
B. Lightning
C. USB-C
D. Micro-USB

A

B. Lightning

Starting with the iPhone 5, Apple products use the proprietary Lightning connector for charging and connecting peripherals. Thunderbolt connectors are on MacBooks for peripherals. iPhones do not have built-in USB connectors.

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164
Q

Which of the following uses would not require a custom configuration for a PC?

A. A computer running Windows 10 with 1 TB of data and 250 GB of applications installed
B. A computer running Windows IoT
C. A design computer used to drive a lathe that makes automotive rims
D. A computer to replace a Blu-ray player and DVR

A

A. A computer running Windows 10 with 1 TB of data and 250 GB of applications installed

The Windows 10 computer can be built as a normal system with a 2 TB or 3 TB drive. Windows IoT typically runs on a thin client. A type of CAD/CAM workstation capable of CNC would be used to create automotive wheel rims. A NAS is an ideal choice to take the place of both the Blu-ray player and DVR.

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165
Q

Which type of printers can be used with multipart forms?

A. Inkjet printers
B. Laser printers
C. Thermal printers
D. Dot-matrix printers

A

D. Dot-matrix printers

Dot-matrix printers are impact printers and therefore can be used with multipart forms. Daisy-wheel printers can be used with multipart forms as well.

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166
Q

You have just replaced a processor in a computer and now need to add a cooling mechanism. What should you use to attach the cooling system to the processor?

A. Heat sink
B. Thermal paste
C. Fan
D. Superglue

A

B. Thermal paste

Thermal paste is used to attach heat sinks and fans to processors. A heat sink usually gets attached to the processor using thermal paste, and then the fan is attached to the heat sink. Superglue would make it adhere, but it does not transfer heat properly—it would likely melt and cause a mess.

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167
Q

You are installing a new power supply in a desktop computer. Which of the following statements about power supplies is true?

A. You must make sure that the voltage selector switch on the back of the power supply is switched to the lower setting if the computer is going to be used in Europe.
B. SATA hard drives most often use the same type of power connector that PATA hard drives use.
C. Power supplies supply power to ATX-based motherboards with connectors known commonly as P8 and P9.
D. Power supplies convert AC input to DC output.

A

D. Power supplies convert AC input to DC output.

PC power supplies accept alternating current (AC) as input and produce direct current (DC) for the internal components. Europe requires the voltage selector switch be set at the higher setting. SATA drives most often use a specific power connector that is not compatible with the Molex connector used by PATA drives. Legacy AT-based motherboards called for P8 and P9 connectors; ATX motherboards have a newer 20- or 24-pin single power connector.

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168
Q

Which of the following display interfaces is equivalent to DisplayPort with PCIe added in?

A. Thunderbolt
B. HDMI
C. DVI
D. VGA

A

A. Thunderbolt

Intel and Apple collaborated on Thunderbolt to add PCIe to VESA’s DisplayPort and to make the resulting interface smaller and less expensive to connect. HDMI, DVI, and VGA are not equivalent to DisplayPort with PCIe added in.

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169
Q

Which of the following system types does not benefit from video enhancements?

A. CAD/CAM design workstation
B. Network-attached storage device
C. A/V editing workstation
D. Gaming PC

A

B. Network-attached storage device

CAD/CAM design workstations, A/V editing workstations, and gaming PCs can all benefit from video enhancements. A NAS does not benefit from enhanced video and might not use a monitor at all.

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170
Q

Which voltage is applied to the paper to transfer the toner to the paper in an EP process laser printer?

A. +600VDC
B. –600VDC
C. +6000VDC
D. –6000VDC

A

A. +600VDC

Because the toner on the drum has a slight negative charge (–100VDC), it requires a positive charge to transfer it to the paper; + 600VDC is the voltage used in an EP process laser printer.

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171
Q

You are training new technicians to install RAM and pointing out differences between packages. Which of the following are the numbers of pins that can be found on DIMM modules used in desktop motherboards? (Choose two.)

A. 180
B. 184
C. 200
D. 204
E. 232
F. 240

A

B. 184
&
F. 240

DIMMs used in desktop motherboard applications have one of four possible pin counts. SDR SDRAM is implemented on 168-pin modules. DDR SDRAM is implemented on 184-pin modules. DDR2 and DDR3 are implemented on 240-pin modules with different keying, and DDR4 DIMMs have 288 pins. Older dual-channel DIMM modules have 232 pins. Modules with 200 and 204 pins are used in the SODIMM line, and there are no modules with 180 pins.

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172
Q

You are choosing a flash standard for a client. They want the smallest flash cards possible. Which standard should you recommend?

A. SD
B. CompactFlash
C. microSD
D. miniSD
E. xD

A

C. microSD

The smallest of the options is microSD, at 15 mm × 11 mm. Perhaps “micro” gives it away, but that also makes it easy to remember. SD cards are 32 mm × 24 mm. CompactFlash cards are the largest, at 36 mm × 43 mm. MiniSD cards measure at 21.5 mm × 20 mm, and xD cards are 20 mm × 25 mm.

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173
Q

What is the single, fixed resolution of an LCD called?

A. Default resolution
B. Refresh rate
C. Burned-in resolution
D. Native resolution
E. Aspect ratio

A

D. Native resolution

An LCD’s native resolution is the single, fixed resolution that provides optimal clarity. There is no default or burned-in resolution. The refresh rate is how quickly the image is re-drawn on the screen, and the aspect ratio is the ratio of the resolution.

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174
Q

Which of the following is a common feature of a standard thick client?

A. Has enhanced video capabilities
B. Has a high-performance hard drive
C. Has as much RAM installed as possible
D. Can run a full version of Windows

A

D. Can run a full version of Windows

These standard systems do not have any special requirements, only that they can run Windows and desktop applications. Thick clients do not need enhanced video, hard drives, or RAM.

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175
Q

What is typically included in the EP laser printer toner cartridge? (Choose three.)

A. Toner
B. Print drum
C. Laser
D. Cleaning blade

A

A. Toner
B. Print drum
D. Cleaning blade

An electrophotographic (EP) laser printer toner cartridge includes the toner, print drum, and cleaning blade. The laser is usually contained within the printer, not within the toner cartridge.

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176
Q

Which of the following allows you to perform the most complete restart of the computer without removing power?

A. Start ➢ Restart
B. Start ➢ Hibernate
C. Reset button
D. Power button

A

C. Reset button

The reset button causes the computer to return to nearly the same point it is in when you power it on, but without the need for power cycling. Using Restart in the Start menu does not reboot as deeply as the reset button. Hibernation is a power state that completely removes power after saving the contents of RAM to the hard drive; pressing the power button is required to resume the session in the same manner as starting the computer after a complete shutdown. The power button cannot be used as a method of restarting the system.

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177
Q

What are the output voltages that have been commonly produced by PC power supplies over the years? (Choose five.)

A. +3.3VDC
B. –3.3VDC
C. +5VDC
D. –5VDC
E. +12VDC
F. –12VDC
G. +110VDC
H. –110VDC

A

A. +3.3VDC
C. +5VDC
D. –5VDC
E. +12VDC
F. –12VDC

A PC’s power supply produces +3.3VDC, +5VDC, –5VDC, +12VDC, and –12VDC from a 110VAC input.

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178
Q

Which of the following connector types are capable of conducting power and transmitting data? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Lightning
B. Molex
C. USB-C
D. DB-9
E. micro-USB

A

A. Lightning
C. USB-C
E. micro-USB

USB cables and eSATA cables can transmit power and data. You will find Lightning, USB-C, and micro-USB connectors on the ends of USB cables. A Molex connector is power-only. A DB-9 is for serial cables and is data-only.

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179
Q

Maria is setting up a gaming PC and wants to know which type of video cables to purchase. Which of the following is the recommended video output technology for a gaming PC?

A. DVI
B. VGA
C. HDMI
D. YCbCr

A

C. HDMI

Because of its exceptional capabilities of digital video and audio output, as well as its potential for support of future standards, HDMI is the video output technology of choice. VGA, DVI, and component video (YCbCr and YPbPr) can’t make the same claim.

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180
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes how to obtain a firmware upgrade for your laser printer?

A. Download the firmware upgrade for free from the manufacturer’s website.
B. Pay to download the firmware upgrade from the manufacturer’s website.
C. Have a certified laser printer technician come to your site and install a new firmware chip.
D. Contact the manufacturer of the printer, and they will send you the firmware upgrade on a DVD.

A

A. Download the firmware upgrade for free from the manufacturer’s website.

Firmware upgrades for laser printers are downloaded for free from the manufacturer’s website. A technician does not need to install a new chip, because firmware is upgraded via software. It’s unlikely that the manufacturer will send you the upgrade on a DVD; it will refer you to its website to download it.

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181
Q

You have just purchased a motherboard that has an LGA 1156 socket for an Intel Pentium processor. What type of memory modules will you most likely need for this motherboard?

A. DIP
B. SIMM
C. DIMM
D. SODIMM

A

C. DIMM

Pentium processors in a desktop always use DIMMs. DIPs and SIMMs are earlier forms of memory that have been obsolete for many years. SODIMMs are used in laptops.

182
Q

When replacing a power supply, which of the following tends to vary among power supplies and must be chosen properly to support all connected devices?

A. Wattage
B. Voltage
C. Amperage
D. Resistance

A

A. Wattage

Power supplies are rated in watts. When you purchase a power supply, you should make sure the devices inside the computer do not require more wattage than the chosen power supply can offer. The voltage is fairly standard among power supplies, and it has nothing to do with the devices connected to the power supply. Amperage and resistance are not selling points for power supplies. Another thing that could vary is the number of power connectors—make sure the new power supply has enough to support all installed peripherals.

183
Q

You are installing a replacement monitor on a desktop computer. Which of the following is true regarding a monitor’s refresh rate?

A. As long as the graphics adapter can refresh the image at a particular rate, the attached monitor can accommodate that refresh rate.
B. The refresh rate is normally expressed in MHz.
C. The refresh rate is normally selected by using the controls on the front panel of the monitor.
D. As you lower the resolution, the maximum refresh rate allowed tends to increase.

A

D. As you lower the resolution, the maximum refresh rate allowed tends to increase.

As you lower the resolution, the maximum refresh rate allowed tends to increase. The refresh rate is most often expressed in cycles per second (Hz), not millions of cycles per second (MHz). You must usually select the refresh rate that you want from the display settings dialogs, not through the monitor’s built-in menu system, although the monitor can often tell you the refresh rate that you’re using. Finally, both the monitor and adapter must agree on the refresh rate you select. If either device does not support a particular refresh rate, such a rate cannot be used.

184
Q

An engineer on your network is complaining that his CAD workstation is slow and he wants a GPU upgrade. Which of the following reasons is justification for having a powerful video card in a CAD/CAM workstation?

A. Only powerful GPUs can stream graphical information efficiently.
B. Manufacturing equipment is generally faster than design equipment, which needs faster GPUs to keep up.
C. On a CAD system, the CPU defers to the GPU for all system processing requirements.
D. The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be GPU-intensive.

A

D. The algorithms used in rendering graphics can be GPU-intensive.

Quite simply, the rendering of 2D and 3D graphics makes use of complex algorithms that need all of the GPU power they can get to remain usable. CAD workstations deal with static images, not streaming video. Manufacturing equipment is generally slower than computers used for the design phase. The CPU still does its job, but CAD workstations call for high-end video, which includes graphics adapters with GPUs often more powerful than the system’s CPU.

185
Q

What is the correct order of the steps in the EP imaging process?

A. Developing, exposing, transferring, fusing, charging, cleaning, processing
B. Charging, processing, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning
C. Processing, transferring, exposing, developing, charging, cleaning, fusing
D. Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning

A

D. Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning

The correct sequence in the EP imaging process is processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, and cleaning.

186
Q

You need to install a new video card into a desktop computer. What type of expansion slot is preferred today for high-performance graphics adapters?

A. AGP
B. PCIe
C. PCI
D. SATA

A

B. PCIe

PCIe is the newest and fastest slot for video cards. AGP and PCI are legacy technologies. SATA is for hard drives.

187
Q

You have been asked to configure a RAID 5 system for a client. Which of the following statements about RAID 5 is true?

A. It provides fault tolerance but no performance improvement.
B. It provides performance improvement but no fault tolerance.
C. If multiple drives in the array fail, the data can be saved provided that one drive is still operational.
D. It requires at least three drives to implement.

A

D. It requires at least three drives to implement.

RAID 5 arrays require a minimum of three hard drives to implement. If one drive fails, the data is fine and the system can still function, albeit slowly. If more than one drive fails, the system will be inoperable. RAID 5 provides both fault tolerance and a performance improvement.

188
Q

When purchasing a projector, which of the following is the most important characteristic to consider?

A. Aspect ratio
B. Maximum resolution
C. Lumens
D. Native resolution

A

C. Lumens

When evaluating a projector, understand how many lumens it produces. You need to ensure that it will be bright enough for the environment in which it will be used. Most projectors can support multiple aspect ratios and resolutions.

189
Q

You have been asked to set up a workstation for a new graphic designer at your company. Which of the following is not a requirement for a graphic design workstation?

A. Fast hard drive
B. Maximum RAM
C. Powerful CPU
D. High-end video

A

C. Powerful CPU

Graphic design and CAD/CAM design workstations do not require a powerful CPU. They can use a fast hard drive because the artist works with large images that can take a long time to load or save. Maximum RAM is needed to hold the highly detailed, sometimes 3D, artwork before saving. High-end video is necessary for assisting in the rendering and display of the images.

190
Q

Which step in the EP imaging process uses a laser to discharge selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum?

A. Exposing
B. Transferring
C. Developing
D. Cleaning

A

A. Exposing

The exposing step uses a laser to discharge selected areas of the photosensitive drum, thus forming an image on the drum.

191
Q

You are installing a new video card into a PCIe slot. What is the combined total throughput of a PCIe 2.0 x16 slot?

A. 500 MBps
B. 1 GBps
C. 16 GBps
D. 32 GBps

A

C. 16 GBps

The PCIe 1.1 specification provided 250 MBps of throughput per lane per direction. With the 2.x versions of PCIe, this rate was doubled to 500 MBps. As a result, each v2.0 lane is capable of a combined 1GBps. A x16 slot consists of 16 lanes, for a total bidirectional throughput of 16 GBps.

192
Q

Due to government regulations, a client wants to preserve data for a long period of time. What kind of media is most commonly used when large amounts of data need to be archived on a regular basis?

A. Tape
B. Optical disc
C. External hard drive
D. Network share

A

A. Tape

Although inefficient as an interactive medium, sequential tape-based storage continues to be developed in increasing capacities. Tape continues to be a good choice for frequently backing up large amounts of data for redundancy and archival purposes. Optical discs don’t have the same capacity, and neither do external hard drives. The cloud could be an option, but that is different from a network share.

193
Q

Which of the following resolutions is an example of a 16:10 aspect ratio?

A. 1280 × 1024
B. 1920 × 1200
C. 800 × 600
D. 2048 × 1536

A

B. 1920 × 1200

Dividing 16 by 10 produces a value of 1.6. Dividing the first number of a 16:10 resolution by the second number always results in 1.6. Therefore, the answer is 1920 × 1200. Resolutions with a 4:3 aspect ratio produce the value 1.33, while 5.4 resolutions such as 1280 × 1024 produce the value 1.25. 16:9 aspect ratios have a value of 1.78.

194
Q

Which of the following system types do not require a CPU enhancement of any sort? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A/V editing workstation
B. Gaming PC
C. Graphic design workstation
D. Virtualization workstation

A

A. A/V editing workstation
B. Gaming PC
C. Graphic design workstation

Virtualization workstations are the only custom configuration that requires CPU enhancements. For these types of systems, more cores are better. A/V editing workstations, gaming PCs, and graphic design workstations do not require CPU enhancements.

195
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of a Universal Serial Bus (USB) printer interface?

A. It has a higher transfer rate than a serial connection.
B. It has a higher transfer rate than a parallel connection.
C. It automatically recognizes new devices.
D. It allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.

A

D. It allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.

The rate of transfer and the ability to recognize new devices automatically are two of the major advantages that currently make USB the most popular type of printer interface. However, it is the network printer interface that allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.

196
Q

You are told by a technician over the phone that you need to bring replacement DDR SDRAM memory. What type of packaging is used for DDR SDRAM memory?

A. 168-pin DIMM
B. 224-pin DIMM
C. 184-pin DIMM
D. 240-pin DIMM

A

C. 184-pin DIMM

DDR SDRAM is manufactured on a 184-pin DIMM. DIMMs with 168 pins were used for SDR SDRAM. 224-pin DIMMs do not exist. DIMMs with 240 pins are used for DDR2 and DDR3 SDRAM.

197
Q

A client is looking for a desktop drive technology that saves money over SSDs but offers performance increases over HDDs and can be used to house the operating system. Which of the following is the best to recommend?

A. Dual-drive technology
B. SSHD
C. NVMe
D. Magnetic-only drive

A

B. SSHD

A solid-state hybrid drive incorporates the features of both conventional magnetic-only hard drives and solid-state drives. As a result, the performance of an SSHD exceeds that of a hard drive but costs less than the equivalent-sized SSD. A dual-drive option still requires the purchase of a full-sized SSD. Adding the cost of the SSD and the HDD, the dual-drive solution does not satisfy the requirement of an affordable technology. NVMe is a form of solid-state drive and does not save money.

198
Q

Which of the following connector types is typically not associated with hard drive use?

A. USB-C
B. eSATA
C. DB-9
D. SCSI

A

C. DB-9

DB-9 connectors are most often used with serial cables and are not associated with hard drives. USB-C, eSATA, and SCSI are examples of connectors used with hard drives.

199
Q

Your friend Joe plays video game tournaments online, and he read in an online forum that he should install multiple GPUs for better speed. You tell him that if he does that, he needs better cooling. Why is high-end cooling a requirement for gaming PCs?

A. Multiple GPUs generate more heat and can cause components to fail.
B. Gaming controllers have components for tactile realism that generate copious amounts of heat.
C. Digital sound cards generate more heat than analog sound cards.
D. Placing that many hard drives in such a small space generates too much heat.

A

A. Multiple GPUs generate more heat and can cause components to fail.

Multiple video cards (to get multiple GPUs) can be a way to increase video performance. Such a configuration may generate too much heat for conventional cooling to dissipate before the system is damaged. The cooling has no effect on external controllers, and sound cards don’t generate much heat, but analog would certainly generate more than digital.

200
Q

Which of the following are possible interfaces for printers? (Choose three.)

A. Parallel
B. SATA
C. USB
D. Network

A

A. Parallel
C. USB
D. Network

Printers can communicate via parallel, serial, USB, wireless, and network connections.

201
Q

Which type of coaxial cable is recommended for digital television cable signals?

A. RG-6
B. RG-8
C. RG-58
D. RG-59

A

A. RG-6

The two RG standards used for cable television are RG-6 and RG-59. Of the two, RG-6 is better because it can run longer distances and can handle digital signals. RG-59 is for analog signals only. RG-8 is thicknet coax, and RG-58 is thinnet coax.

202
Q

Which of the following protocols is responsible for sending email?

A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. SMTP
D. SNMP

A

C. SMTP

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is responsible for sending email. IMAP4 and POP3 both receive email. SNMP is a network management protocol.

203
Q

When enabled, which feature of a wireless router allows only specified computers to access the network?

A. Port forwarding
B. WPS
C. SSID
D. MAC filtering

A

D. MAC filtering

MAC filtering is a security option that can specify that only computers with specific MAC (hardware) addresses can access the network. Port forwarding is a feature of firewalls. WPS is an easy setup mechanism for wireless networks. SSID is the wireless network name.

204
Q

Which record type on a DNS server represents an IPv6 host?

A. A
B. MX
C. CNAME
D. AAAA

A

D. AAAA

The AAAA (quad A) record is used to represent IPv6 hosts. IPv4 hosts need an A record. The CNAME record is used if one host has alias (multiple) names. MX is for a mail server.

205
Q

Which of the following describes the job of an inverter in a laptop?

A. It changes the screen orientation when the laptop is rotated.
B. It converts AC power into DC power for the display backlight.
C. It converts DC power into AC power for the display backlight.
D. It allows the laptop display to function in tablet mode.

A

C. It converts DC power into AC power for the display backlight.

The laptop power supply converts AC power and into DC power for the laptop’s internal circuitry. The display backlight, if used, needs AC power. The inverter’s job is to convert (invert) the DC power into AC power for the backlight.

206
Q

If you are going to run a network cable in the space above the drop ceiling in your office, which type of cable should you use?

A. Plenum
B. PVC
C. Coaxial
D. Fiber-optic

A

A. Plenum

For areas where a cable must be fire retardant, such as in a drop ceiling, you must run plenum-grade cable. Plenum refers to the coating on the sleeve of the cable, not the copper or fiber within the cable itself. PVC is the other type of coating typically found on network cables, but it produces poisonous gas when burned.

207
Q

You are setting up a small network that will not connect to the Internet. You want computers to be able to locate each other by using hostnames. What service will do this?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. FTP
D. APIPA

A

A. DNS

DNS is typically known as a name resolver on the Internet, but it will work on private networks as well. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. DHCP automatically configures clients with IP address information. FTP is for file downloads. APIPA is a process used to assign clients a private IP address automatically when they can’t reach the DHCP server.

208
Q

Which of the following are advantages to using dial-up Internet service? (Choose two.)

A. High speed
B. Broad availability
C. Low cost
D. High security

A

B. Broad availability
&
C. Low cost

Dial-up Internet is archaic by today’s standards, but it is widely available (anywhere there is phone service), and it’s generally lower in cost than other Internet access methods. It’s definitely not high speed, and its security is really no different from that of broadband Internet access methods.

209
Q

You are installing a file server for the accounting department. Where should this file server be located on the network?

A. Outside of the firewall
B. In the DMZ
C. In the secure network
D. On the router

A

C. In the secure network

If the data on the server does not need to be accessed via the Internet, then the server should be in the most secure place possible, which is inside the firewall(s) in the secure network.

210
Q

What should you do for a Li-ion battery that appears to charge fully but does not last as long as the battery’s meter indicates that it will last?

A. Replace the battery.
B. Exercise the battery.
C. Calibrate the battery.
D. Short the terminals to discharge the battery.

A

C. Calibrate the battery.

Battery calibration for Li-ion batteries allows the powered device to drain the battery’s power before recharging. Battery exercising is the initial charging and discharging of nickel-based batteries so that they will function as expected. You should never short a battery’s terminals, and replacement is a last resort, used when any battery has reached the end of its life.

211
Q

Which of the following connector types is an MFF connector?

A. BNC
B. ST
C. SC
D. LC

A

D. LC

The local connector (LC) is a mini form factor (MFF) fiber-optic connector developed by Lucent Technologies. If it helps, think of LC as “Little Connector.”

212
Q

Which of the following protocols is used for secure delivery of email?

A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. POP3
D. IMAP4

A

D. IMAP4

IMAP4 and POP3 are the two protocols that are used for email delivery. Of the two, only IMAP4 provides security features. SMTP sends email. SNMP is a network management protocol.

213
Q

Which of the following broadband technologies provides two dedicated, digital data channels that can be combined for greater throughput?

A. DSL
B. Cable
C. Satellite
D. BRI ISDN
E. PRI ISDN

A

D. BRI ISDN

Basic rate interface ISDN (BRI ISDN) provides two separate 64 Kbps B channels for data transmissions. These channels can be combined to increase throughput. A PRI ISDN uses 23 B channels. DSL, cable, and satellite do not offer multiple dedicated digital channels.

214
Q

You have been asked to install Linux in a VM on a Windows 10 client. The Windows 10 client needs 4 GB RAM, and Linux needs 2 GB RAM. How much RAM does the system need at a minimum?

A. 4 GB
B. 6 GB
C. 8 GB
D. Unable to determine from the question

A

B. 6 GB

There needs to be enough RAM to support both OSs, so the answer is 6 GB. More is better, though!

215
Q

You are giving a seminar to new technicians on replacing laptop hard drives. A student asks how do laptop hard drives differ from desktop hard drives. What do you tell them?

A. Laptop hard drives use completely different standards from those used by desktop hard drives for communication with the host.
B. Laptop hard drives are solid-state, whereas desktop hard drives have spinning platters.
C. Laptop hard drives require a separate power connection, whereas desktop hard drives are powered through the drive interface.
D. The most common form factors for laptop hard drives is smaller than that of a desktop hard drive.

A

D. The most common form factors for laptop hard drives is smaller than that of a desktop hard drive.

Laptop hard drives commonly have a 2ʺ form factor, and smaller drives, such as M.2, are becoming more popular. The most common form factor for desktop hard drives is 3ʺ. Laptop hard drives use the same drive technologies as their desktop counterparts, such as serial and parallel ATA. As with desktop hard drives, laptop hard drives are available in both solid-state and conventional varieties. Unlike desktop hard drives, laptop hard drives do not have separate power connectors.

216
Q

____________________ is immune to electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference.

A. Twisted-pair cabling
B. CSMA/CD
C. Broadband coaxial cabling
D. Fiber-optic cabling

A

D. Fiber-optic cabling

Companies that want to ensure the safety and integrity of their data should use fiber-optic cable because it is not affected by electromagnetic or radio-frequency interference. Even though some copper cables have shielding, they are not immune to EMI or RFI. This eliminates twisted-pair and coaxial. CSMA/CD is an access method, not a cable type.

217
Q

Your friend is concerned about the security of making an online purchase. What should you tell her to look for in the address bar of the web browser?

A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. SSH
D. TLS

A

B. HTTPS

The HTTP protocol is inherently unsecure, but the HTTPS protocol is secure. (SSH and TLS are secure as well, but they are not protocols used to connect to websites.)

218
Q

Which service allows users with private IP addresses to access the Internet using a public IP address?

A. DHCP
B. DNS
C. DMZ
D. NAT

A

D. NAT

Network Address Translation (NAT) allows users to have a private IP address and still access the Internet with a public IP address. NAT is installed on a router and translates the private IP address into a public address for the user to access the Internet. DHCP assigns IP configuration information to clients. DNS resolves hostnames to IP addresses. A DMZ is an area on a network between an external router and an internal router.

219
Q

When configuring a DNS server, administrators must create which of the following?

A. Zone file
B. Hosts file
C. Scope file
D. DNS proxy

A

A. Zone file

DNS server records are contained in the zone file, which must be configured by administrators. A hosts file is an alternative to using DNS (but that does not work well when scaling to the Internet). A scope is created on DHCP servers. There is no DNS proxy.

220
Q

One of the users on your network needs to travel, and she wants to work on the airplane. Which laptop accessory will allow her to power her laptop from the airplane?

A. AC adapter
B. DC adapter
C. Battery converter
D. Airplane mode

A

B. DC adapter

A DC adapter converts the DC output from a car or airplane accessory power plug into the DC voltages required by your laptop. An AC adapter is used with standard wall electrical outlets. There is no battery converter. Airplane mode shuts off all wireless communications.

221
Q

Of all the network cabling options, ____________________ offers the longest possible segment length.

A. Unshielded twisted-pair
B. Coaxial
C. Fiber-optic
D. Shielded twisted-pair

A

C. Fiber-optic

Fiber-optic cable can span distances of several kilometers because it has much lower attenuation, crosstalk, and interference as compared to copper cables.

222
Q

The workstations on your network are configured to use a DHCP server. One of the workstations can’t communicate with other computers. Its IP address is 169.254.1.18. What could be the problem?

A. The subnet mask is wrong.
B. It has a private IP address.
C. The default gateway is wrong.
D. It can’t reach the DHCP server.

A

D. It can’t reach the DHCP server.

The address assigned to the computer is an APIPA address. Microsoft client computers (and others) will configure themselves with an address in this range if they are unable to reach a DHCP server.

223
Q

What is the most secure wireless encryption standard for 802.11 networks?

A. WEP
B. WPA
C. WPA2
D. SAFER+

A

C. WPA2

WEP was the original encryption standard developed for Wi-Fi networks, but it is easily hacked. WPA is an upgrade, but WPA2 is more secure and incorporates the entire 802.11i standard. SAFER+ is used to encrypt Bluetooth communications.

224
Q

You have been asked by your manager to brief the group on security appliances. What is the difference between IDS and IPS?

A. IDS is active, whereas IPS is passive.
B. IDS is passive, whereas IPS is active.
C. IDS monitors internal network traffic, whereas IPS monitors traffic coming from the Internet.
D. IDS monitors traffic coming from the Internet, whereas IPS monitors internal network traffic.

A

B. IDS is passive, whereas IPS is active.

IDS devices are passive. They will detect, log, and perhaps send an alert, but that’s it. An IPS can take active steps to shut down an attack if it detects one. Both devices will monitor internal network traffic as well as incoming traffic.

225
Q

A client has a laptop with which you are unfamiliar. You are asked to perform a memory upgrade. How can you obtain the service manual for this laptop computer?

A. By pressing F1 while in Windows
B. By pressing F2 while the system is booting up
C. By reading the paper copy that comes with the laptop
D. By searching the manufacturer’s website

A

D. By searching the manufacturer’s website

Laptop service manuals can be obtained from the manufacturer’s website. It’s very rare that paper service manuals are shipped with the laptop. Pressing F1 while in Windows will open Windows Help, and pressing F2 on many laptops during the system boot will take you into the BIOS.

226
Q

Which Ethernet specification would you be running if you needed to make a connection of 10 Gbps over a distance of 5 kilometers?

A. 10GBaseER
B. 10GBaseT
C. 10GBaseSR
D. 10GBaseLR

A

A. 10GBaseER

If you need to make a connection that is 5 kilometers long, then you are limited to fiber-optic cable—specifically, single-mode fiber (SMF). The two common SMF standards are 10GBaseER and 10GBaseEW. (Think of the E as extended.) A T designation in an Ethernet standard refers to twisted pair. SR and LR are fiber standards that do not stretch for 5 kilometers.

227
Q

Which of the following protocols uses TCP port 23?

A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. FTP
D. DNS

A

A. Telnet

Telnet uses port 23. SSH uses port 22; FTP uses ports 20 and 21; and DNS uses port 53.

228
Q

Which of the following are features that allow 802.11ac to achieve higher data throughput? (Choose two.)

A. MIMO
B. Beamforming
C. Channel bonding
D. Code division multiplexing

A

A. MIMO
&
C. Channel bonding

The two technologies that 802.11ac employs to achieve high throughput are channel bonding and MIMO. Channel bonding is the combination of multiple smaller channels into one large channel for greater bandwidth. MIMO is enhanced over 802.11n to allow for more multiple inputs and outputs. 802.11ac also uses beamforming, but that helps the range, not the throughput.

229
Q

Which of the following are services that a print server should provide? (Choose two.)

A. Accepting print jobs from clients
B. Turning off printers on demand
C. Providing clients with the appropriate printer driver during installation
D. Notifying users when the print job is complete

A

A. Accepting print jobs from clients
&
C. Providing clients with the appropriate printer driver during installation

Print servers should make printers available to clients and accept print jobs. They also process print jobs and manage print priorities. Finally, they provide client computers with the right print drivers when the clients attempt to install the printer. They do not turn printers off on demand nor provide notification that a job has printed.

230
Q

A user on your network wants to be able to draw images on a screen and have the laptop capture them. What type of device needs to be installed on his laptop?

A. Inverter
B. Capturer
C. Digitizer
D. Touchpad

A

C. Digitizer

The user needs a digitizer, which takes input from the device, such as drawn images, and converts them into electronic images on the computer. The user could also use a touchscreen for the same purpose. An inverter changes DC power into AC power for a display backlight. There is no capturer laptop device. A touchpad is a pointing device that allows a user to control the mouse cursor.

231
Q

A physical star topology consists of several workstations that branch off a central device called a ____________________.

A. NIC
B. Bridge
C. Router
D. Hub

A

D. Hub

A hub or a switch is at the center of a star topology. A NIC is a network card, which each computer must have to be on the network. Bridges and routers are higher-level connectivity devices that connect network segments or separate networks together.

232
Q

What is the maximum number of IPv6 addresses that can be assigned to one IPv6 interface?

A. One (unicast)
B. Two (unicast and anycast)
C. Three (unicast, anycast, and multicast)
D. None of the above

A

D. None of the above

An IPv6 interface is not limited in the number of addresses that it can be assigned, although there could be limitations based upon practicality.

233
Q

You have been asked to configure a network for a small office. The wireless router is installed, and now you need to connect the client computers. What do you enter on the client computers to connect to the router?

A. The administrator password
B. The security passphrase
C. The client’s MAC address
D. The default router password

A

B. The security passphrase

To join the network, client computers need to find the SSID, ensure that the security settings are correct (to match the router), and enter the security passphrase. As an administrator, you should have configured this passphrase to be different from the router’s administrator password.

234
Q

Your company wants to move to a cloud provider to be able to scale resources quickly, but it is concerned about the security of confidential information. Which of the following types of cloud models might be the most appropriate for your company?

A. Public
B. Private
C. Community
D. Hybrid

A

D. Hybrid

A hybrid cloud provides the best of public and private clouds. You get the scalability and cost effectiveness of a public cloud but the security that you need for important files on the private portion of the cloud.

235
Q

You are sitting in a coffee shop and using the public wireless network. You suddenly notice suspicious activity on your laptop. Which laptop feature should you use?

A. Wi-Fi function key
B. Cellular function key
C. Bluetooth function key
D. Laptop lock

A

A. Wi-Fi function key

Your best bet is to turn off your wireless connection immediately in order to sever the tie between your laptop and the public network. This is done using the Wi-Fi function key. Cellular and Bluetooth are different wireless connections. A laptop lock prevents a device from being physically stolen.

236
Q

Which of the following networking hardware devices is capable of creating VLANs?

A. Firewall
B. Repeater
C. Unmanaged switch
D. Managed switch

A

D. Managed switch

A managed switch can create virtual LANs (VLANs) using its management software. A firewall is a hardware or software solution that serves as your network’s security guard. Repeaters and unmanaged switches cannot create VLANs.

237
Q

You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want client computers to obtain IP configuration information automatically. Which type of server do you need for this?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. NAT
D. IP configuration server

A

B. DHCP

A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration information to hosts when they join the network. A Domain Name System (DNS) server resolves hostnames to IP addresses. NAT translates private IP addresses into public IP addresses. There is no IP configuration server.

238
Q

You have set up a wireless router on your network and configured it to use AES. What configuration option do you need to choose on the client computers?

A. WEP
B. WPA
C. WPA2
D. TKIP

A

C. WPA2

If your router is using AES, the clients will need to use WPA2. TKIP is a protocol utilized by WPA. WEP is the weakest of the encryption options.

239
Q

Your company hosts its own web server, and it allows consumers to make purchases via the server. The help line has been getting complaints that users are unable to access the secure portion of the website. You open the site and it seems fine, although the secure portion where transactions are completed is inaccessible. What is the most likely cause?

A. The firewall is blocking TCP port 80.
B. The firewall is blocking TCP port 443.
C. The security module of the web server is malfunctioning.
D. The web server is down.

A

B. The firewall is blocking TCP port 443.

For secure transactions, the web server should be using HTTPS, which uses port 443. If non-secure portions of the website work, then the server is fine. It’s most likely that the firewall is blocking inbound traffic on port 443.

240
Q

You need to replace an LCD on a defective laptop. Which of the following are components of an LCD? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Inverter
B. Screen
C. Wi-Fi card
D. Backdrop

A

A. Inverter
&
B. Screen

The components of an LCD screen are the inverter, screen, and backlight. LCD display units will also have a Wi-Fi antenna (not the card), webcam, and microphone. There is no backdrop component.

241
Q

Which of the following devices work with MAC addresses to determine what to do with network traffic? (Choose two.)

A. Hub
B. Router
C. Bridge
D. Switch

A

C. Bridge
&
D. Switch

Bridges and switches are Layer 2 devices; therefore, they work with hardware (MAC) addresses. Hubs operate at Layer 1 and deal with bits, and routers operate at Layer 3 and work with logical IP addresses.

242
Q

Which two TCP/IP protocols work at the Host-to-Host layer of the DoD model? (Choose two.)

A. IP
B. ARP
C. TCP
D. UDP

A

C. TCP
&
D. UDP

The two protocols that work at the Host-to-Host layer are TCP and UDP. IP and ARP both work at the Internet layer.

243
Q

A firewall operates by using a set of rules known as what?

A. SLA
B. ACL
C. Whitelist
D. DMZ

A

B. ACL

The set of rules for access on a firewall is called an access control list (ACL). An SLA is an agreement on service level for QoS. A whitelist may be part of an ACL but is not the set of rules. A DMZ is a subnet located between an external network router and an internal router.

244
Q

Which type of server is responsible for preventing users from accessing websites with objectionable content?

A. Proxy
B. Web
C. DHCP
D. DNS

A

A. Proxy

A proxy server can be configured to block access to websites that contain potentially dangerous or inflammatory material. Web servers host web pages, some of which may have objectionable content. DHCP servers provide clients with IP addresses, and DNS servers resolve host names to IP addresses.

245
Q

You have a user who needs to keep desktop devices such as keyboard, monitor, and mouse permanently connected so that they can be used by an attached laptop. What type of device do you recommend that they use?

A. Docking station
B. Keyboard, video, mouse (KVM) switch
C. Print server
D. USB hub

A

A. Docking station

A docking station made specifically for its associated brand and model of laptop can host desktop components permanently, regardless of whether the laptop is attached to the docking station. When the laptop’s portability is not required, but instead use of the desktop components is the priority, attaching the laptop to the docking station makes such components available to the laptop without separately attaching each component.

246
Q

Which of the following statements are not associated with a star network? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A single cable break can cause complete network disruption.
B. All devices connect to a central device.
C. It uses a single backbone computer to connect all network devices.
D. It uses a dual-ring configuration.

A

A. A single cable break can cause complete network disruption.
C. It uses a single backbone computer to connect all network devices.
D. It uses a dual-ring configuration.

In a star network, all systems are connected using a central device, such as a hub or a switch. The network is not disrupted for other users when more systems are added or removed. The star network design is used with today’s UTP-based networks.

247
Q

What are two advantages that TCP has over UDP? (Choose two.)

A. Acknowledged delivery
B. Faster delivery
C. Lower overhead
D. Virtual circuits

A

A. Acknowledged delivery
&
D. Virtual circuits

TCP is a connection-oriented protocol that establishes virtual circuits and acknowledges delivery of packets. Because of these features, it has higher overhead than UDP and is a little slower.

248
Q

Which of the following wireless IEEE standards operate on the 2.4 GHz radio frequency and are directly compatible with each other? (Choose two.)

A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11ac
D. 802.11 g

A

B. 802.11b
&
D. 802.11 g

Both 802.11b and 802.11 g operate in the 2.4 GHz range and use similar transmission standards. Many devices on the market are listed as 802.11b/g, meaning they will work with either system. Alternatively, 802.11a and 802.11ac operate in the 5 GHz range.

249
Q

A computer using which of the following would be considered a legacy device? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A 386 processor
B. The IPX/SPX protocol
C. An application developed in 1983
D. Only 1 GB RAM

A

A. A 386 processor
B. The IPX/SPX protocol
C. An application developed in 1983

Legacy systems are ones that use older hardware, software, or network protocols that are not commonly used today. A system with only 1 GB RAM might be underpowered, but that in and of itself does not make it a legacy system.

250
Q

Which of the following laptop features turns off all wireless communications?

A. Wireless function key
B. Cellular function key
C. Bluetooth function key
D. Airplane mode function key

A

D. Airplane mode function key

When enabled, Airplane mode turns off all wireless communications, including Wi-Fi, cellular, Bluetooth, and GPS. Wireless, cellular, and Bluetooth function keys will toggle on or off that particular communication method, but not all wireless communications.

251
Q

A technician who has been troubleshooting a computer tells you that the system is having problems with overheating. Which component is most likely to cause this issue?

A. Power supply
B. Motherboard
C. CPU
D. RAM

A

C. CPU

The processor runs the hottest of all computer components and is the most likely to overheat. Motherboards and RAM don’t generate a lot of heat. Power supplies most often have fans to help dissipate heat, and don’t run as hot as CPUs.

252
Q

You turn on a laptop computer and the hard drive is not recognized. Where should you go to troubleshoot the issue?

A. S.M.A.R.T. diagnostics
B. BIOS/UEFI
C. Windows Device Manager
D. Boot sector manager

A

B. BIOS/UEFI

If the hard drive is not recognized, the BIOS/UEFI is the place to check. Most systems do not come with built-in S.M.A.R.T. diagnostics software, even if the hard drive is capable of gathering S.M.A.R.T. data. And if there were one, it would give you potential errors on a working drive. Windows Device Manager is inaccessible without the drive being recognized. There is no boot sector manager, although this issue could be related to the boot sector.

253
Q

Which GPS component is responsible for triangulation?

A. Satellites
B. Ground control network
C. Receiver
D. All three combined

A

C. Receiver

It’s the receiver’s job to perform triangulation to determine its position based on data received from the satellites. Satellites send signals to the GPS receiver to help it determine its location. The ground control network monitors the status of the satellites and signal strength.

254
Q

A mobile device is having intermittent communications issues. Which software component of a mobile phone is most likely responsible for these issues?

A. Either iOS or Android OS
B. SIM OS
C. Baseband OS
D. Wireless OS

A

C. Baseband OS

Each mobile phone has a separate processor that manages wireless communications, also known as radio communications or baseband communications. There is a baseband OS that manages this, and it works with the primary OS on the phone. A SIM OS is for managing data transfers between the phone and the SIM chip. There is no wireless OS.

255
Q

You are training a class of new technicians on troubleshooting motherboard issues. Which of the following are issues most likely caused by a failing CMOS battery? (Choose two.)

A. BIOS time and setting resets
B. Attempts to boot to the incorrect device
C. Intermittent device failure
D. BSOD/pinwheel errors

A

A. BIOS time and setting resets
&
B. Attempts to boot to the incorrect device

When the system is powered off, BIOS settings on a motherboard are maintained by the CMOS battery. If the battery fails, the system will likely forget the BIOS time and date settings and the boot order configuration. Replacing the CMOS battery will resolve the issue.

256
Q

You are troubleshooting a server and discover that one of the hard drives in the RAID 0 array has failed. Which statement is true?

A. You need to replace the failed drive, but the data is okay because the drive is configured as a mirror.
B. You need to replace the failed drive, but the data is okay because the drive is configured as a disk stripe with parity.
C. You need to replace the failed drive, and the data on the array is lost.
D. You do not need to replace the failed drive; the system will function normally.

A

C. You need to replace the failed drive, and the data on the array is lost.

A RAID 0 array is also known as disk striping. RAID 0 actually decreases your fault tolerance versus one hard drive because there are more points of failure. You need to replace the drive, and hopefully you had it backed up so that you can restore the data.

257
Q

You are configuring NFC for a smartphone user. He is concerned about the maximum data transfer rates of the technology. What is the fastest data transfer speeds currently supported by NFC?

A. 106 Kbps
B. 212 Kbps
C. 424 Kbps
D. 636 Kbps

A

C. 424 Kbps

The fastest NFC can transfer data is 424 Kbps. The three speeds supported by NFC are 106 Kbps, 212 Kbps, and 424 Kbps. NFC does not currently support 636 Kbps.

258
Q

A user needs to synchronize her mobile device to another platform. She wants to be able to access the synchronized data from any location with just her phone. What should she synchronize to?

A. Automobile
B. Email
C. Desktop
D. Cloud

A

D. Cloud

Synchronizing to the cloud allows the user to access the synched data from anywhere. Syncing to the automobile isn’t generally used for data storage—in any case, the user would need to attach to the automobile to get to the data. There is no sync to email option. Syncing to a desktop can happen, but the data is not available unless the user’s mobile device is connected to that desktop.

259
Q

When a user turns on his desktop computer, nothing appears on the screen. He hears three long beeps, followed by three short beeps, and three long beeps. What should you do as a next step?

A. Replace the motherboard.
B. Replace the RAM.
C. Replace the CPU.
D. Look up the beep code on the manufacturer’s website.

A

D. Look up the beep code on the manufacturer’s website.

This system is producing a beep code and not completing the POST process. Different BIOS manufacturers use different beep codes. Look up this beep code on the manufacturer’s website before replacing any hardware.

260
Q

Troubleshooting a network connectivity issue takes you into the wiring closet, where you realize that none of the cables are properly labeled. Several are disconnected. Which tool should you use to determine where the cables run to?

A. Loopback plug
B. Punch-down tool
C. Cable tester
D. Tone generator and probe

A

D. Tone generator and probe

A tone generator and probe is used to trace a cable from one location to another. A loopback plug is for testing the ability of a network adapter to send and receive. Punch-down tools are used to connect the wires of a cable to a wiring rack, such as a 110-block. Cable testers are for verifying that a cable works properly.

261
Q

You are explaining various connection types to new corporate smartphone and tablet users. Which of the following best describes the concept of tethering?

A. When a cellular device uses another device’s Wi-Fi connection to get on the Internet
B. When a Bluetooth device uses another device’s Wi-Fi connection to get on the Internet
C. When a Wi-Fi device uses another device’s Bluetooth connection to get on the Internet
D. When a Wi-Fi device uses another device’s cellular connection to get on the Internet

A

D. When a Wi-Fi device uses another device’s cellular connection to get on the Internet

Tethering is when a Wi-Fi enabled device attaches to a cellular device to get on the Internet. The cellular device is usually called a mobile hotspot.

262
Q

A mobile user is having cellular connectivity problems when roaming but not when near his home. He is told by his carrier that he needs to update his settings. Which of the following settings does he most likely need to update?

A. PRI
B. PRL
C. Baseband
D. IMEI

A

B. PRL

When roaming, the mobile device will use the Preferred Roaming List (PRL) to connect to the proper cell phone tower. The Product Release Instruction (PRI) contains settings for configuration items on the device that are specific to the network that it’s on. Baseband refers to all wireless communications. The international mobile equipment identity (IMEI) is a 15-digit serial number that is unique to each phone, and is not relevant to this issue.

263
Q

You turn on a desktop computer and it fails to boot. You hear a rhythmic ticking coming from inside the case. What is most likely the problem?

A. Failed hard drive
B. Failed motherboard
C. Failed CPU
D. Failed RAM
E. A bomb

A

A. Failed hard drive

Only components with moving parts can make ticking or clicking noises. (Bombs can too, but hopefully you recognized that as a fake answer!) This question assumes that the hard drive is an HDD and not an SSD, but none of the other components would make a ticking noise.

264
Q

The display on your laptop appears warped and fuzzy. You plug in an external monitor, and the image on it is fine. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. The video card
B. The LCD display
C. The motherboard
D. The video driver

A

B. The LCD display

It has to be a problem with the LCD display. If it were the video card, the display would appear warped and fuzzy on the external monitor as well. While many motherboards contain video circuitry, this answer is not specific enough. If the video driver were corrupted, you would have the same problem on all displays.

265
Q

Which of the following is the operating system used by Apple Watch?

A. watchOS
B. iOS
C. macOS
D. AppleOS

A

A. watchOS

Apple created a new OS for its watch called watchOS. It’s very similar to iOS but designed for the smaller screen. macOS is Apple’s desktop OS, and there is no current AppleOS.

266
Q

You are looking for configuration information for a smartphone. Which code identifies the specific mobile user and their network?

A. IMEI
B. IMSI
C. ICCID
D. SEID

A

B. IMSI

The international mobile subscriber identity (IMSI) is a unique 15-digit identifier that describes a specific mobile user and their network. The international mobile equipment identity (IMEI) is a 15-digit serial number that is unique to each phone. The integrated circuit card identifier (ICCID) is the identifier for the SIM card. The secure element identifier (SEID) is a very long hexadecimal code that uniquely identifies the phone; it is used in security applications, NFC, and features like Apple Pay.

267
Q

You are using the best practice methodology to troubleshoot a printer. During which phase of the methodology should you use external research based on the symptoms?

A. Identify the problem.
B. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.
C. Establish a theory of probable cause.
D. Implement preventive measures.

A

C. Establish a theory of probable cause.

The second step in the best practice methodology is to establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). As part of that, if necessary, conduct external or internal research based on symptoms.

268
Q

A user brings in an iPhone and the touchscreen is not responding. What should you do to try first to get the device functioning again?

A. Hold the power button and the sleep/wake button for 10 seconds to reset the device
B. Restore the device to factory settings
C. Replace the battery in the device
D. Hold the power button for 10 seconds to force the device to power off

A

D. Hold the power button for 10 seconds to force the device to power off

The first step should be to try to reboot the device. In most cases with a frozen smartphone, holding the power button down for about 10 seconds will force it to power off. If that doesn’t work, then you can move to trying to reset the phone by holding down the power button and the sleep/wake button for 10 seconds. There is no need to restore the device to factory settings (yet) or replace the battery.

268
Q

What is the number of active satellites used by GPS?

A. 12
B. 24
C. 30
D. 36

A

B. 24

GPS uses 24 satellites. There are 32 GPS satellites in space, but the extra 8 are backups.

269
Q

Which of the following statements about configuring email access on a mobile device is true?

A. Most Internet mail services offer an Exchange option.
B. The TCP ports used for configuring access are usually standard port numbers.
C. Most ports used for access are UDP ports.
D. You must download third-party apps for connecting to email services.

A

B. The TCP ports used for configuring access are usually standard port numbers.

Mail access uses standard secure or unsecure TCP ports, not UDP ports. Exchange access to such mail services is not unheard of, but it is exceedingly rare. Mobile devices tend to have email clients built in.

270
Q

You are using the best practice methodology to troubleshoot a video problem. During which step should you question the obvious?

A. Test the theory to determine cause.
B. Establish a theory of probable cause.
C. Identify the problem.
D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem.

A

B. Establish a theory of probable cause.

The second step in the best practice methodology is to establish a theory of probable cause (question the obvious). While it makes sense to question the obvious at all times during troubleshooting, it officially falls under this step in the best practice methodology.

271
Q

Your laser printer keeps printing vertical black lines on its output pages. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. There is a groove or scratch in the EP drum.
B. The EP drum-cleaning blade is broken.
C. The printer is low on toner.
D. The transfer corona wire is not working properly.

A

A. There is a groove or scratch in the EP drum.

The most likely cause is a groove or a scratch in the EP drum. Toner is collecting in that groove or scratch, and then it is being deposited onto the page. A broken drum-cleaning blade would result in unreadable images (too much toner). Low toner would cause faded images, and a bad transfer corona wire would cause blank images.

272
Q

Which of the following devices was the first commercial tablet computer in the marketplace?

A. Microsoft Surface Pro
B. Tablet PC
C. iPad
D. GRiDPad

A

D. GRiDPad

Released in 1989, GRiDPad was the first commercial tablet. None of the others were released until at least the year 2000.

273
Q

Which two communications technologies can you use to create a VPN connection? (Choose two.)

A. Bluetooth
B. Wi-Fi
C. Cellular
D. NFC

A

B. Wi-Fi
&
C. Cellular

You can create virtual private network (VPN) connections on a mobile device using Wi-Fi or cellular network connections. Bluetooth and NFC are not used to create VPNs.

274
Q

A user complains of smoke and a foul odor coming from his desktop computer, so he shut it down. Which component is most likely causing the problem?

A. Power supply
B. RAM
C. CPU
D. Motherboard

A

A. Power supply

275
Q

Users are complaining that their print jobs are not printing. You open the print queue and see 50 jobs lined up. The printer is connected properly and online. What should you do?

A. Open Printer Troubleshooting and have it diagnose the problem
B. Stop and restart the print spooler
C. Delete and reinstall the printer
D. Delete and reinstall Windows

A

B. Stop and restart the print spooler

If print jobs are seemingly getting “stuck” in the printer queue, you should stop and restart the print spooler service. There is no Printer Troubleshooting utility. Deleting and reinstalling the printer and/or Windows is not necessary.

276
Q

The type of display that Google Glass presents to its users is called what?

A. Retinal projection
B. VR
C. AR
D. OCR

A

C. AR

Google Glass uses augmented reality (AR) technology, which is common on heads-up types of displays. Virtual reality (VR) is provided by devices such as Oculus Rift. There is no retinal projection display used with mobile devices. OCR stands for optical character recognition, which is not a technology covered in this chapter or on the A+ exam. (It’s used to translate documents after they’ve been scanned in on a scanner.)

277
Q

You connect two Bluetooth devices together that have been previously connected. What is the process called that each device uses to verify the other’s identity?

A. S/MIME
B. Synchronization
C. SSO
D. Pairing

A

C. SSO

The devices verify each other’s identity via mutual authentication for multiple services (SSO). Pairing is done for the initial connection. S/MIME is used to send and receive encrypted email. Synchronization is used between a mobile device and a desktop/laptop or the cloud.

278
Q

A field technician reports back that the computer she is troubleshooting has exposed distended capacitors. Which component has most likely failed?

A. Power supply
B. Motherboard
C. CPU
D. RAM

A

B. Motherboard

Capacitors store energy and are located on the motherboard and inside the power supply. Since the capacitors are exposed, it likely means the technician is seeing the problem on the motherboard. CPUs and RAM do not have capacitors.

279
Q

When you print documents on your laser printer, you see residue from previous images on the output. Which two things are the most likely causes of this problem? (Choose two.)

A. A faulty transfer corona wire
B. An overheating printer
C. A bad erasure lamp
D. A broken cleaning blade

A

C. A bad erasure lamp
&
D. A broken cleaning blade

Seeing images from previous print jobs is a phenomenon called ghosting (or ghost images). It’s most likely due to a bad erasure lamp or a broken cleaning blade. If the transfer corona wire were faulty, there would likely be blank pages. An overheating printer will not necessarily leave residue behind.

280
Q

Which of the following is not considered a system component that can be found inside a computer?

A. CPU
B. RAM
C. PCIe graphics adapter
D. Motherboard

A

C. PCIe graphics adapter

System components are essential for the basic functionality of a computer system. Many of the landmarks found on the motherboard can be considered system components, even expansion slots, to a degree. What you plug into those slots, however, must be considered peripheral to the basic operation of the system. See Chapter 1 for more information.

281
Q

Which port number is used for SMTP when SSL is used to secure the connection?

A. 25
B. 465
C. 587
D. 993

A

B. 465

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) uses port 465 when secured with SSL. Port 25 is used with SMTP when an unsecure connection is used. SMTP uses port 587 when secured with TLS. Port 993 is used by secure IMAP.

282
Q

Concerning the specialized drives recommended for an A/V editing workstation, which of the following statements is true?

A. The spin rate should be slower than 15,000 rpm.
B. The spin rate should be 7,200 rpm or faster.
C. Ensure that the application being used resides on the same drive as the operating system to ensure seamless access.
D. PATA drives with transfer rates of at least 6 Gbps should be used.

A

B. The spin rate should be 7,200 rpm or faster.

With nonlinear encoding (NLE) software, fast drives are a must. Furthermore, the hard drive housing the application being used for editing should not be the same as the one where the operating system resides. Uncoupling the two leads to the ability for concurrent access and lack of contention, thus avoiding performance degradation. Although it is true that SATA 6 Gbps is a wise choice for the drive interface, there is no such PATA (IDE) standard.

283
Q

Which of the following is not a requirement for a NAS?

A. Dual monitors
B. File sharing services
C. Gigabit NIC
D. RAID array

A

A. Dual monitors

Dual monitors are not required for a network-attached storage (NAS) device; it might not even use a monitor. A NAS will use file sharing and benefit from a Gigabit NIC and RAID array. See Chapter 4 for more information.

284
Q

You are troubleshooting a laser printer that is producing blank images. There seems to be toner all over the inside of the printer. Which of the following components in a laser printer is responsible for properly transferring toner from the drum to the paper?

A. Fuser
B. Transport corona
C. Transfer corona
D. Development wire

A

C. Transfer corona

The transfer corona in the laser printer puts a positive charge on the paper, forcing the toner on a negatively charged drum to transfer to the paper.

285
Q

Which of the following custom configurations most prominently includes file sharing?

A. A/V editing workstation
B. Gaming PC
C. NAS
D. Thick client

A

C. NAS

The NAS is a computer that is designed to share resources such as files and media for streaming. Other computers may use file sharing, but it is not a prominent feature to be designed around.

286
Q

When setting up two NFC devices, what is the name of the mode that allows the two devices to transmit data to each other?

A. Emulation mode
B. Peer-to-peer mode
C. Reader/writer mode
D. Ad hoc mode

A

B. Peer-to-peer mode

Card emulation mode, reader/writer mode, and peer-to-peer mode are the three valid NFC communication modes. For two devices to transmit to each other, they will use peer-to-peer mode. For more information, see Chapter 11.

287
Q

You need to replace memory in an older laptop. Which of the following standards are you likely to find? (Choose all that apply.)

A. MiniDIMM
B. MicroDIMM
C. SlotDIMM
D. SODIMM

A

B. MicroDIMM
&
D. SODIMM

The two laptop memory form factor standards are the SODIMM and MicroDIMM. There is no MiniDIMM or SlotDIMM memory.

288
Q

Which of the following does not contribute to the cooling of system components?

A. Heat sink
B. Motherboard
C. Slot cover
D. Fan

A

B. Motherboard

Motherboards do not aid in the cooling process. Heat sinks draw heat away from components and radiate it via fins. Fans on the heat sinks flush them with cooler air, and system fans help in removing warmer air from the system or introducing cooler air into the system. Slot covers ensure that the original airflow design of the system case is not compromised.

289
Q

Your laptop has 4 GB of installed memory and uses shared video memory. If the video card is using 512 MB, how much is left for the rest of the system?

A. 4 GB
B. 3.5 GB
C. 512 MB
D. Cannot determine

A

B. 3.5 GB

If the laptop is using shared video memory, then the system memory is shared with the video card. If the video card is using 512 MB (half a gigabyte), then there is 3.5 GB left for the system. See Chapter 10 for more information.

290
Q

You are configuring an IPv6 client on your network. Which of the following are valid ways to assign the interface ID portion of the IP address to the network card? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Obtain the address from a DHCPv6 server
B. Assign the address based on the CPU’s ID
C. Configure the address manually
D. Assign a random address

A

A. Obtain the address from a DHCPv6 server
C. Configure the address manually
D. Assign a random address

IPv6 interface IDs can be assigned in one of four ways. They can be assigned through a DHCPv6 server, based on the MAC address of the adapter, configured manually, or assigned randomly. They cannot be assigned based on any of the CPU’s identifying information.

291
Q

Which physical network topology uses the least amount of cabling?

A. Bus
B. Star
C. Mesh
D. Hybrid

A

A. Bus

Because of its design, which includes a central trunk that runs the distance between the two most distant computers (as long as it does not exceed the maximum distance allowed for the cabling), a bus topology requires the least amount of cable. Mesh networks require the most cabling, and star and hybrid networks are somewhere in the middle.

292
Q

Which service was created by Apple to allow iPhones and iPads to print without installing printer drivers?

A. TCP printing
B. Bonjour
C. AirPrint
D. iPrint

A

C. AirPrint

AirPrint was created by Apple to let iPhones and iPads print without installing a printer driver. See Chapter 5 for more information.

293
Q

A user wants to ensure that all contacts from her mobile device are copied onto her computer before migrating to a new device. Which of the following processes can accomplish this?

A. Mirroring
B. Synchronization
C. Calling each contact
D. Attaching the contacts to an email

A

B. Synchronization

Synchronization can copy all contacts, apps, email, pictures, music, videos, calendars, bookmarks, documents, location data, social media data, e-books, and passwords between a mobile device and a computer. Mirroring is a term reserved for when devices replicate themselves to similar devices. Calling the contacts won’t achieve the desired result, and emailing contacts is inefficient and does not immediately result in placing the contacts on the computer.

294
Q

What is the name for the successor to the system BIOS that expands on classic features by allowing modular extensions to the basic code?

A. MBR
B. EEPROM
C. Extended BIOS
D. UEFI

A

D. UEFI

The Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) enhances the classic BIOS concept by starting with a base configuration and allowing its extension through UEFI partitions on attached storage devices.

295
Q

You are buying optical discs and need to ensure that they have large capacity. What suffix indicates that the capacity of an optical disc is roughly twice that of its standard counterpart?

A. DL
B. R
C. RW
D. RE

A

A. DL

DL stands for double (or dual) layer. With DVDs, the capacity almost doubles, but with Blu-ray Discs, it actually does. R means recordable, and RW and RE are used to designate re-writeable or re-recordable, respectively. See Chapter 2 for more information.

296
Q

In the United States, military applications of GPS use which type(s) of data?

A. C/A code
B. P code
C. Y code
D. P and Y code

A

D. P and Y code

Military applications use Precise (P) code as well as encrypted Precise (Y) code. Using both makes it more accurate than using civilian Coarse Action (C/A) code.

297
Q

Which stage of a laser printer process melts the toner onto the paper?

A. Exposing
B. Charging
C. Fusing
D. Transferring

A

C. Fusing

The drum is first charged to prepare for the exposing stage, which charges the print pattern onto the drum. After toner is applied to the drum, the toner is transferred to paper. At this point, the toner is melted and fused to the paper by using heat.

298
Q

One of your network users was recently caught at work browsing pornographic websites. Which of the following servers could be installed to prohibit this activity?

A. Web
B. Security
C. Proxy
D. DNS

A

C. Proxy

A proxy server can be configured to block access to websites containing potentially objectionable material. Web servers host websites. There is no specific security server, although there are authentication servers, which provide security. A DNS server resolves host names to IP addresses. See Chapter 9 for more information.

299
Q

Which of the following 802.11x standards provides data transmission speeds up to 54 Mbps and is backward compatible with a slower technology?

A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. 802.11i

A

C. 802.11g

Both 802.11a and 802.11g provide data transmission speeds of up to 54 Mbps, but only 802.11g is backward compatible with 802.11b. 802.11b goes up only to 11Mbps. 802.11i is a security standard.

300
Q

Which of the following are parallel computing architectures designed to break larger graphics-processing tasks into components that can processed simultaneously? (Choose two.)

A. OpenGL
B. NVIDIA
C. CUDA
D. DirectX

A

A. OpenGL
&
C. CUDA

CUDA, by NVIDIA, and OpenGL, its open-standard counterpart, are graphics-centric parallel computing architectures designed to speed up graphics processing on video cards.

301
Q

When using a capacitive touchscreen on a mobile device, what is the most common tool used to input data?

A. Keyboard
B. Trackball
C. Stylus
D. Finger

A

D. Finger

Capacitive touchscreens react to slight changes in electrical charges. The human finger is used as an input device for capacitive touchscreens. For more information, see Chapter 11.

302
Q

Which of the following network standards will not work with Category 5 cable?

A. 10BaseT
B. 100BaseT
C. 100BaseTX
D. 100BaseFX

A

D. 100BaseFX

100BaseFX is a standard that uses fiber-optic cables. Therefore, CAT-5 cabling will not work.

303
Q

Which of the following is the most common paper-feed mechanism associated with a dot-matrix printer?

A. Gravity feed
B. Impact feed
C. Tractor feed
D. Dual feed

A

C. Tractor feed

Dot-matrix printers often use tractor feed paper-feed mechanisms. These are designed to pull or weave the paper through the printer. Some can use regular printer paper.

304
Q

Which of the following is a company that provides direct access to the Internet for home and business computer users?

A. ASP
B. ISP
C. DNS
D. DNP

A

B. ISP

An Internet service provider (ISP) provides direct access to the Internet. ASP is a programming language. DNS resolves host names to IP addresses. DNP is not a computer networking acronym. See Chapter 8 for more information.

305
Q

Which of the following addresses is a non-routable IP address?

A. 172.36.32.1
B. 192.168.32.1
C. 168.192.32.1
D. 169.192.32.1

A

B. 192.168.32.1

Private, non-routable addresses are 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255, 172.16.0.0-172.31.255.255, and 192.168.0.0-192.168.255.255.

306
Q

You are installing a new power supply. What power supply feature supports two independent sources of 12VDC for internal components?

A. Auto switching
B. Dual rail
C. Switching vs. linear design
D. Extended wattage

A

B. Dual rail

The dual rail feature of modern power supplies provides independent 12VDC rails, which allow dedication of power to specific components, but which do not allow a single component to access the collective power from both rails.

307
Q

Which type of software is required to run client-side virtualization on your home network?

A. Terminal emulation
B. Process replication
C. Hyperthreading
D. Hypervisor

A

D. Hypervisor

The hypervisor is the key piece of software needed for virtualization. Terminal emulation, process replication, and hyperthreading are not related to client-side virtualization. See Chapter 9 for more information.

308
Q

You push the power button on a desktop computer and the case fan comes on. However, there does not seem to be power to the rest of the computer, as it does not boot up. Which component should you first suspect of causing the problem?

A. Motherboard
B. CPU
C. RAM
D. Power supply
E. Power cord

A

D. Power supply

The most likely culprit is the power supply. It’s possible but highly unlikely that the motherboard, CPU, or RAM could be causing the issue. It’s definitely not the power cord, because the system is getting power.

309
Q

Which benefits of a USB connection make it the popular choice for printers? (Choose all that apply.)

A. It automatically recognizes new devices.
B. It has a higher transfer rate than a parallel connection.
C. It has a higher transfer rate than a serial connection.
D. It allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.

A

A. It automatically recognizes new devices.
B. It has a higher transfer rate than a parallel connection.
C. It has a higher transfer rate than a serial connection.

The rate of transfer and the ability to automatically recognize new devices are two of the major advantages that make USB a popular type of printer interface. However, it is the network printer interface that allows the printer to communicate with networks, servers, and workstations.

310
Q

A network cable has not been working properly. Another technician suggests testing the resistance on the cable. Which tools may be capable of doing this? (Choose two.)

A. Loopback plug
B. Multimeter
C. Cable tester
D. Tone generator and probe

A

B. Multimeter
&
C. Cable tester

A multimeter is specifically designed to test for electrical characteristics, so it would be the best tool to choose. Cable testers are for verifying that a cable works properly; some are capable of testing resistance. A loopback plug is for testing the ability of a network adapter to send and receive. A tone generator and probe is used to trace a cable from one location to another. See Chapter 14 for more information.

311
Q

You support an old impact printer at work. When the printer prints, the text is always goes from darker to lighter as it moves across the page. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. The print ribbon is old and needs to be replaced.
B. The print ribbon is not advancing properly.
C. The printhead needs to be replaced.
D. The wrong printer driver is installed.

A

B. The print ribbon is not advancing properly.

If an impact printer outputs dark to light across a page, that means that the printer ribbon is not advancing properly; the gear likely needs to be replaced. If the output were consistently faded, then you would replace the ribbon.

312
Q

Which of the following are differences between DVI-D and DVI-A interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. DVI-A interfaces have more pins than DVI-D interfaces.
B. DVI-A interfaces are larger than DVI-D interfaces.
C. DVI-D interfaces have more pins than DVI-A interfaces.
D. DVI-A interfaces have the same color code as VGA interfaces.
E. DVI-A interfaces use pins that DVI-D interfaces do not use.

A

C. DVI-D interfaces have more pins than DVI-A interfaces.
&
D. DVI-A interfaces have the same color code as VGA interfaces.

Despite the analog pins that DVI-D does not use, DVI-A interfaces use two fewer pins than DVI-D interfaces. The interfaces are the same size and both use an off-white color code, not the blue VGA color code.

313
Q

Which of the following are components that can commonly be found on a motherboard? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Slots
B. Fan connectors
C. Gyroscope
D. Scanner
E. HDD

A

A. Slots
&
B. Fan connectors

Motherboards commonly have RAM slots and expansion slots. Older motherboards even had CPU slots. Modern motherboards have connectors for powering cooling fans. Gyroscopes are most commonly found in mobile devices. Scanners are external devices. Although there might be one or more types of HDD interfaces built into the motherboard, the HDD itself is not. See Chapter 1 for more information.

314
Q

A smartphone user calls to report that she cannot decrypt encrypted emails, but other email seems to be fine. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. Corrupted email client software
B. GPS not functioning
C. Incorrect username or password
D. Improper S/MIME configuration

A

D. Improper S/MIME configuration

If a user can’t decrypt email, it is most likely because S/MIME settings are not properly enabled on the email account, which means installing the certificate (and by extension, a private key) on the mobile device. It could be that the email client software got corrupt, but that’s unlikely because other email works. The username and password are correct because the user is receiving other email. GPS has nothing to do with email.

315
Q

What is needed to be able to display local television broadcasts from the same type of cable used with standard TVs?

A. A video capture card
B. A filter
C. A splitter
D. A TV tuner card

A

D. A TV tuner card

TV tuner cards can decode the same signal used by televisions. Video capture cards can store the resulting video stream, but they cannot help with deciding the signal for display.

316
Q

Which of the following connectors will you not find on the end of a USB cable? (Choose two.)

A. Lightning
B. USB-C
C. Molex
D. DB-9
E. eSATA

A

C. Molex
&
D. DB-9

USB cables are multipurpose cables that connect many types of peripherals. Connectors include USB-C, Lightning, and eSATA. Molex connectors provide power to PATA hard drives and optical drives. A DB-9 connector is found on the end of a serial cable. See Chapter 3 for more information.

317
Q

Which of the following standards supports communications up to 54 Mbps?

A. 802.11i
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11g
D. Bluetooth

A

C. 802.11g

The 802.11g standard supports speeds up to 54 Mbps. 802.11i is a set of security standards, and 802.11b supports only up to 11 Mbps. Bluetooth is limited to 3 Mbps.

318
Q

Which of the following components in a laser printer charges the drum after it has been cleaned?

A. Transfer corona
B. Multiplier
C. Primary corona
D. Conditioning wire

A

C. Primary corona

The primary corona wire applies a negative charge to the drum after it has gone through the cleaning phase.

319
Q

Which of the following is a standard computer that can access resources locally as well as from servers but requires no specialized enhancements?

A. Gaming PC
B. Network-attached storage
C. Thin client
D. Thick client

A

D. Thick client

A thick client is any computer system with a standard configuration. The gaming PC has enhancements over thick clients to their CPU, video, audio, and cooling. The NAS (network-attached storage) must have specialized capabilities and services along with a faster NIC than the thick client and a RAID array. The thin client is a lesser device in comparison to the thick client, but that cost-saving feature is its enhancement. These less expensive computers can connect over the network to servers for their operating system images and applications. See Chapter 4 for more information.

320
Q

Which feature of cloud computing refers to the ability to obtain additional storage space or processing power at a moment’s notice?

A. Rapid elasticity
B. On-demand self-service
C. Resource pooling
D. Measured service

A

A. Rapid elasticity

The ability to quickly expand services is called rapid elasticity. On-demand self-service means that clients can get new resources without supplier intervention. Resource pooling is taking resources from multiple machines and making them available as one pool. Measured service is how many suppliers track usage and charge accordingly.

321
Q

Which of the following descriptions characterizes a gaming PC?

A. A computer with a RAID array and liquid cooling
B. A computer with advanced graphics and high-end cooling
C. A computer with a fast hard drive and surround sound
D. Any standard thick client

A

B. A computer with advanced graphics and high-end cooling

Gaming PCs are characterized by their enhanced GPUs, audio features, and cooling.

322
Q

What is the function of the laser in a laser printer?

A. It heats up the toner so that it adheres to the page.
B. It charges the paper so that it will attract toner.
C. It creates an image of the page on the drum.
D. It cleans the drum before a page is printed.

A

C. It creates an image of the page on the drum.

The laser creates an image on the photosensitive drum that is then transferred to the paper by the transfer corona. The fuser heats up the toner so that it adheres to the page. The transfer corona charges the page, and the eraser lamp cleans the drum before a page is printed. A rubber blade is also used to remove toner physically from the drum. See Chapter 5 for more information.

323
Q

Which type of touchscreen is responsive to pressure and generally requires a stylus to operate?

A. Capacitive
B. Resistive
C. Pressurized
D. Contact

A

B. Resistive

The two major classifications of touchscreens are capacitive and resistive. Capacitive touchscreens are responsive to slight changes in electricity, and resistive touchscreens are responsive to pressure. Resistive touchscreens usually require the use of a hard object, such as a stylus.

324
Q

You have been asked to install a network cable that offers the greatest level of resistance to electromagnetic interference (EMI). Which of the following network media would you select?

A. Coaxial
B. Fiber-optic
C. Ethernet
D. Twisted-pair

A

B. Fiber-optic

Because fiber-optic cables use light pulses over a glass fiber, as opposed to electrical signals over a copper conductor, fiber-optic cable is not susceptible to EMI. Coaxial and twisted-pair are copper cables, so they are susceptible to EMI. Ethernet is not a cable type, but a network access method.

325
Q

The ____________ is the measurement of the number of pixels an LCD monitor can display without the image appearing distorted.

A. Native resolution
B. Contrast ratio
C. Maximum resolution
D. Aspect ratio

A

A. Native resolution

The native resolution refers to how many pixels an LCD screen can display (across and down) without distortion. The native resolution is based on the placement of the actual transistors that create the image by twisting the liquid crystals. The contrast ratio is the measurement between the darkest color and the lightest color that an LCD screen can display. Monitors do not measure contrast ratio. Aspect ratio measures the width of the image versus its height. See Chapter 3 for more information.

326
Q

You have been using your laser printer for just over five months. Recently, you noticed that the printed characters on the left side of your documents are faint compared to the letters on the right. How can you quickly resolve this problem?

A. Print your documents backward
B. Use different paper
C. Shake the toner cartridge
D. Blow the excess dust out of the cartridge

A

C. Shake the toner cartridge

Most documents have more characters printed on the left side of the paper than on the right side. Therefore, the toner from the left side of the cartridge runs out sooner, and the print on the left side of the documents will be faint. Shaking the toner cartridge redistributes the toner evenly on both sides.

327
Q

You are troubleshooting a computer and think that the CMOS battery might be bad. Which of the following is not held in CMOS memory while the system power is off?

A. Boot sequence
B. BIOS passwords
C. Operating system passwords
D. Memory and CPU settings

A

C. Operating system passwords

The CMOS memory only stores hardware-level settings, not those related to operating systems. Those settings are kept in files maintained by the operating systems.

328
Q

Google Docs is an example of which type of cloud service?

A. SaaS
B. IaaS
C. PaaS
D. GaaS

A

A. SaaS

Google Docs is software, so it is an example of Software as a Service (SaaS). IaaS is Infrastructure as a Service. PaaS is Platform as a Service. GaaS is neither a test objective nor currently a cloud service type. See Chapter 9 for more information.

329
Q

You have a user who needs to connect to an external projector for a presentation. After he plugs in the projector, there is no display coming from it, even though the power is on. What should you advise him to do?

A. Reboot the laptop
B. Toggle the projector to the laptop input setting
C. Toggle the display output on the laptop using the function (Fn) key
D. Toggle the display output on the laptop using Windows Control Panel

A

C. Toggle the display output on the laptop using the function (Fn) key

Laptops have three or four video output settings: laptop only, duplicate, external monitor only, or extend the desktop. You can toggle through them using the function (Fn) key in combination with another key, such as F4 or F7. Rebooting is not necessary. There is likely not a laptop input setting on a projector, and the display output setting is not in Control Panel.

330
Q

Which of the following is an error-checking scheme that is not capable of error correction and sometimes implemented in main memory?

A. ECC
B. Single-channel
C. Single-sided
D. Parity checking

A

D. Parity checking

Parity checking stores an extra bit with each byte in memory. When a byte is received by the CPU or a device that supports DMA, the validity of the parity bit is checked. If the check shows an error, the byte is rejected because there is no way to determine the nature of the error. ECC works differently, and it is capable of correcting single-bit errors. Single-channel and single-sided are physical characteristics, not error-checking schemes.

331
Q

You want to create and send encrypted emails from your smartphone. What do you need to use?

A. POP3
B. SMTP
C. S/MIME
D. VPN

A

C. S/MIME

The Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions (S/MIME) standard for public key encryption is used to create and read encrypted emails. POP3 and SMTP are standard email protocols. VPNs create a private network over a public network, but they do not encrypt email content. For more information, see Chapter 12.

332
Q

You are in a location with no Wi-Fi connectivity, but you have cellular reception. You need to have your Wi-Fi-enabled laptop send an urgent email. How can you have the laptop use Wi-Fi to send the email?

A. Use the cell phone to create a mobile hotspot.
B. Use the cell phone to create a Wi-Fi hotspot.
C. Use the laptop to create a mobile hotspot.
D. Use the laptop to create a Wi-Fi hotspot.
E. There is no Wi-Fi connectivity, so there is no way to send the email.

A

A. Use the cell phone to create a mobile hotspot.

By creating a mobile hotspot, the cell phone will allow the laptop to connect to it using Wi-Fi. Then use the cellular connection on the phone to get on the Internet.

333
Q

When choosing an internal hard drive, which of the following rates of rotation could be considered the optimal speed for the best read and write performance?

A. 10,000 rpm
B. 7,200 rpm
C. 5,400 rpm
D. 5,000 rpm

A

A. 10,000 rpm

The faster a hard disk drive spins its platters, the faster that data can be read or written. Hard drives are manufactured to spin at a certain speed, most of which are given as options here. Therefore, the fastest speed listed, 10,000 rpm, could be considered optimal, at least in terms of read/write performance. It will also generate the most heat of any of the options.

334
Q

Which term refers to copying data between a mobile device and a computer system to mirror such things as contacts, programs, pictures, and music?

A. Calibration
B. Remote wipe
C. Pairing
D. Synchronization

A

D. Synchronization

Synchronizing a mobile device with a computer system allows you to mirror personal data between the devices, regardless of which one contains the most current data. Calibration refers to matching the device’s and user’s perceptions of where the user is touching the screen. Remote wipes allow you to remove personal data from a lost or stolen device. Pairing is what must be done in Bluetooth for two Bluetooth devices to connect and communicate. For more information, see Chapter 12.

335
Q

Which of the following protocols can be used by a client to send email to an email server?

A. POP3
B. SMTP
C. IMAP
D. FTP

A

B. SMTP

SMTP is for sending email to an email server. The IMAP and POP3 protocols can be used to retrieve email from mail servers. FTP is for file transfers.

336
Q

You currently have an old motherboard with an 8-pin power connector. Your power supply has failed. Your new power supply has a rectangular 24-pin connector coming from it. Which of the following statements is true?

A. You need an adapter to connect to your motherboard.
B. You need an adapter to connect to your hard drive.
C. You need an adapter to connect to your floppy drive.
D. That’s exactly the same connector your old power supply had. There is no problem.

A

A. You need an adapter to connect to your motherboard.

Device connectors for hard drives are the same as they have been since each one was introduced. It’s the motherboard power header that changes from time to time. Adapters exist to bridge the discrepancy, which means that there is a way to use the 24-pin ATX power supply with the other connectors on the older motherboard.

337
Q

You are replacing a power supply with a new one. What is the name of the standard power connector that has been used with larger hard drives since the first IBM personal computers were introduced?

A. AT system connector
B. Berg
C. Molex
D. ATX system connector

A

C. Molex

The standard peripheral power connector, or Molex connector, is commonly used on larger drives because it allows more current to flow to the drive than smaller peripheral connectors. AT and ATX system connectors are used to connect the power supply to the motherboard. A Berg connector was used for floppy disk drives.

338
Q

After printing documents, the toner smears on the output pages whenever you touch it. Otherwise, things appear to be working properly. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. The printer driver is faulty.
B. The fuser is not heating properly.
C. There is toner on the transfer corona wire.
D. There is a scratch on the EP drum.

A

B. The fuser is not heating properly.

If the fuser does not heat properly, toner will not bond to the paper, and you will have smearing. White streaks on printouts are most likely caused by toner on the transfer corona wire. Vertical black lines are caused by a scratch or a groove in the EP drum. Faulty printer drivers will cause garbage to print, or there will be no printing at all.

339
Q

Which type of printer can use ink that comes in a wax form?

A. Bubble-jet
B. Thermal
C. Laser
D. Dot-matrix

A

B. Thermal

Thermal printers use either heat only or heat along with a ribbon that contains a wax-based ink. Bubble-jet and dot-matrix printers use liquid ink, and laser printers use toner.

340
Q

Which of the following is a requirement for virtualization workstations?

A. Enhanced video
B. Enhanced audio
C. Maximum RAM and CPU cores
D. A RAID array

A

C. Maximum RAM and CPU cores

Virtualization workstations require more RAM than standard systems and need to be equipped with as many multicore processors as possible. Video and audio are not resources that need to be enhanced for such workstations. Although a RAID array is a wise addition whenever a NAS with valuable information is involved, a virtualization workstation does not require one.

341
Q

You are pairing two Bluetooth devices and have just entered the appropriate PIN code. What is the next step to pair the devices?

A. Turn them off and back on
B. Enable Bluetooth
C. Test connectivity
D. Find the device for pairing

A

C. Test connectivity

The steps for Bluetooth pairing are: enable Bluetooth, enable pairing, find a device for pairing, enter the appropriate PIN code, and test connectivity. Turning the devices off and back on is not required for pairing.

342
Q

You need to enable system-wide security. Which of the following is a technology that is dependent on UEFI and will load files at startup, only if the files have not been tampered with?

A. Power-on self-test
B. Master Boot
C. Secure Boot
D. ReadyBoot

A

C. Secure Boot

Secure Boot loads boot files only if their digital signatures are valid. The boot files checked include option ROMs, the boot loader, and other operating system boot files.

343
Q

A Desktop computer has recently started exhibiting slow performance, particularly when opening and saving files to the hard drive. What should you try first?

A. Replace the hard drive
B. Remove old files and applications to free up disk space
C. Delete and reinstall the OS
D. Defragment the hard drive

A

B. Remove old files and applications to free up disk space

Hard drive performance can slow down if the drive gets short on space, particularly under 10 percent of free space. First, try removing old files and applications to free up disk space. If that doesn’t resolve it, then defragment. If neither of those work, you could have a failing hard drive.

344
Q

While configuring your firewall, you inadvertently block port 443. Which of the following will be unavailable?

A. HTTPS
B. HTTP
C. SSL
D. Telnet

A

A. HTTPS

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (Secure) is a combination of HTTP with Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) to make for a secure connection. It uses port 443 by default, and the beginning of the site address becomes https://. Telnet is an unsecure terminal-emulation protocol.

345
Q

Which of the following custom configurations benefit most from a RAID array? (Choose all that apply.)

A. A/V editing workstation
B. CAD/CAM design workstation
C. NAS
D. Gaming PC
E. Thin client

A

A. A/V editing workstation
B. CAD/CAM design workstation
C. NAS

A/V editing workstations and CAD/CAM workstations need fast drives. Even the non-fault-tolerant RAID 0 benefits these computers by increasing the speed of drive access. Network-attached storage (NAS) devices store a large amount of information that would be devastating to lose. The gaming PC needs a fast processor and video card, but has no need for large drive arrays. Thin clients usually have no drives at all.

346
Q

Which of the following protocols can be used by a client to access email on a server?

A. DNS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. IMAP

A

D. IMAP

The IMAP and POP3 protocols can be used to retrieve email from mail servers. DNS is used to resolve host names to IP addresses. FTP is for file transfers, and SMTP is used to send email. See Chapter 7 for more information.

347
Q

Which of the following are types of broadband access? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Dial-up
B. DSL
C. Cable
D. Fiber-optic

A

B. DSL
C. Cable
D. Fiber-optic

Dial-up is the predecessor to broadband access. Available broadband methods include DSL, cable, fiber-optic, and satellite.

348
Q

What is the difference between OpenCL and CUDA?

A. OpenCL is a Microsoft specification, and CUDA is an ATI specification.
B. OpenCL is a parallel processing architecture, and CUDA is serial.
C. CUDA is proprietary, and OpenCL is not.
D. OpenCL is for graphics processing, and CUDA is for regular CPU processing.

A

C. CUDA is proprietary, and OpenCL is not.

CUDA, a proprietary architecture from NVIDIA, and OpenCL, an open architecture, are both graphics-based parallel processing architectures.

349
Q

Which technology used by e-readers gives them longer battery life than tablets?

A. Lithium-polymer battery
B. Low-power backlight
C. Electrophoretic ink
D. Capacitive touchscreen

A

C. Electrophoretic ink

E-readers use electrophoretic ink, also known as E Ink. E Ink uses less energy than other LCD displays, prolonging battery life.

350
Q

You have just set up a network that will use the TCP/IP protocol, and you want client computers to be able to search for and communicate with other computers by using host names. Which type of server will help with this?

A. DNS
B. DHCP
C. Host name server
D. NetBIOS server

A

A. DNS

A Domain Name Service (DNS) server resolves host names to IP addresses. A Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) server provides IP configuration information to hosts when they join the network. There is no Host name server. There is no NetBIOS server. A NetBIOS name is a computer network name that was used exclusively in Microsoft networks, but it’s different from a host name.

351
Q

A client needs optical media that can be rewritten. Which of the following optical-disc suffixes indicates that the disc can be written to multiple times?

A. -ROM
B. -R
C. -RW
D. -DL

A

C. -RW

Of the options given, only rewritable (-RW or +RW) optical discs can be written to, erased (or formatted), and written to again multiple times. -ROM refers to the optical disc that is written to once, or the drive itself. -R means writeable once, and -DL means double layer.

352
Q

Which of the following protocols provide secure network transmissions? (Choose two.)

A. SMTP
B. SNMP
C. SSH
D. HTTPS

A

C. SSH
&
D. HTTPS

Secure Shell (SSH) and Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS) are both secure transport protocols. Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) and Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) are not inherently secure.

353
Q

Which of the following are wireless security protocols? (Choose two.)

A. SSID
B. MAC
C. WEP
D. WPA

A

C. WEP
&
D. WPA

WEP and WPA are wireless security standards. The SSID is the name of the wireless network. MAC is the hardware address built into network cards.

354
Q

Which of the following statements about projection-system brightness is true?

A. Projector brightness should be compared in units of lux during the purchasing process.
B. Operating a projection system at a higher resolution will not produce as much brightness as when you run it at lower resolutions.
C. Projector bulbs can shine more brightly than standard light bulbs because projector bulbs do not use halogens.
D. It takes more lumens of brightness to display 3D video than it does to display 2D still images.

A

D. It takes more lumens of brightness to display 3D video than it does to display 2D still images.

The correct option is a double-whammy. Both video and 3D require more lumens of brightness than their alternatives. Lux is okay to use when comparing two projectors in the same setting, but it cannot be used appropriately to compare projectors on a shelf. For that, the lumen is the unit of measure to which you must pay attention. In any given scenario, projectors rated at a higher number of lumens should produce more lux. The brightness of a projection system is not related to the resolution you choose, but instead it is related to the brightness in lumens of the projector bulb, which remains the same across resolutions. The use of a metal halide is precisely why projector bulbs can burn more brightly as well as stay cleaner.

355
Q

Which of the following video connectors has an analog variety and a digital variety?

A. VGA
B. HDMI
C. DisplayPort
D. DVI

A

D. DVI

DVI comes in both analog (DVI-A) and digital (DVI-D) varieties. VGA is always analog, HDMI and DisplayPort are always digital.

356
Q

What is the maximum speed provided by dial-up Internet access?

A. 28.8 Kbps
B. 56 Kbps
C. 128 Kbps
D. 1 Mbps

A

B. 56 Kbps

Dial-up connections are limited to 56 Kbps.

357
Q

Which of the following communication technologies is designed for a network known as a PAN?

A. Cellular
B. Infrared
C. Bluetooth
D. Ethernet

A

C. Bluetooth

Bluetooth was made to work as a wireless personal area network (WPAN). As such, it’s perfect for computer peripherals, such as keyboards, mice, and wireless headsets. Cellular, infrared, and Ethernet networks do not connect as PANs.

358
Q

Which of the following technologies was developed for the IoT and communicates exclusively in the 800 MHz to 900 MHz range?

A. Bluetooth
B. 5G LTE
C. Zigbee
D. Z-Wave

A

D. Z-Wave

Zigbee and Z-Wave were developed specifically for the Internet of Things (IoT). Zigbee can communicate in the 2.4 GHz range as well as the 800 MHz to 900 MHz range. Z-Wave can communicate only in the 800 MHz to 900 MHz range.

359
Q

You need to replace RAM in a laptop. How many pins does a DDR3 SODIMM memory module have?

A. 200
B. 204
C. 260
D. 288

A

B. 204

A DDR3 SODIMM has 204 pins. DDR4 SODIMMs have 260 pints. DDR2 SODIMMs have 200 pins. No SODIMMs currently have 288 pins.

360
Q

Which of the following is definitely an analog video technology?

A. DVI
B. HDMI
C. DisplayPort
D. VGA

A

D. VGA

VGA is an analog video technology. DVI could be analog or digital. HDMI and DisplayPort are digital technologies.

361
Q

Which of the following protocols can be used in close range to transfer data between a mobile device and a computer system or to allow media to stream from the mobile device to an audio system?

A. SMTP
B. Bluetooth
C. NFC
D. Pegasus

A

B. Bluetooth

Bluetooth allows you to pair a mobile device to a computer or to a device such as an automotive sound system or headset. Data can be transferred between devices, and media can be streamed from the mobile device. SMTP is an email protocol. NFC is for short-distance data transfers, but not media streaming. Pegasus is not a computer communications protocol.

362
Q

A mobile user has a large number of videos to synchronize to another device. If security is of the utmost concern to the user, which synchronization option should she choose?

A. Automobile
B. Email
C. Desktop
D. Cloud

A

C. Desktop

The three synchronization options are to the desktop, to the cloud, and to the automobile. There is no email synchronization option. For security, the best option is to avoid an Internet connection and sync to the desktop. Automobiles are not typically designed to hold large numbers of videos.

363
Q

Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 23?

A. HTTP
B. SMTP
C. Telnet
D. POP3

A

C. Telnet

Telnet uses port 23. HTTP uses port 80. SMTP uses port 25. POP3 uses port 110.

364
Q

Which of the following is a physical memory format installed directly in today’s desktop computer systems?

A. DIMM
B. HDD
C. SSD
D. RAM

A

A. DIMM

DIMMs are a type of memory module. HDD is a hard drive, and SSD is a solid-state drive—both are for permanent long-term storage. RAM is what memory is called, but it is not a physical memory format. See Chapter 1 for more information.

365
Q

You are buying a new Mini PCIe network card for a laptop and want to make sure it uses the same power as the old card. Which of the following are valid power options for Mini PCIe cards? (Choose all that apply.)

A. 1.5V
B. 2.3V
C. 3.3V
D. 5V

A

A. 1.5V
&
C. 3.3V

Mini PCIe cards can use either 1.5V or 3.3V. They do not use 2.3V or 5V.

366
Q

Which of the following would not be used to connect a printer to a system?

A. USB
B. PATA
C. Shared network access
D. Parallel port

A

B. PATA

PATA is an internal interface used to connect hard drives, CD devices, and DVD devices. Parallel ports were traditionally used as printer ports because they supported faster speeds than serial ports supported. USB is popular today because it is even faster than a parallel port and easy to configure. Shared network access is used to share a printer among many networked users.

367
Q

What is the data throughput provided by one ISDN bearer channel?

A. 16 Kbps
B. 56 Kbps
C. 64 Kbps
D. 128 Kbps

A

C. 64 Kbps

An ISDN B (bearer) channel provides 64 Kbps data throughput. A home-based BRI ISDN provides two B channels. See Chapter 8 for more information.

368
Q

You are configuring two email servers on your company’s network, and they are on opposite sides of a router. Which port do you need to make sure is open to traffic for the servers to be able to transfer mail to each other?

A. 23
B. 25
C. 110
D. 143
E. 443

A

B. 25

The SMTP protocol is used to transfer email between servers, and it uses port 25. Telnet uses port 23. POP3 uses port 110. IMAP4 uses port 143. HTTPS uses port 443.

369
Q

Which of the following is the term for a collection of same-numbered tracks on all writable surfaces of all platters within a hard disk drive system?

A. Cluster
B. Logical block
C. Sector
D. Cylinder

A

D. Cylinder

The total number of tracks in a hard drive system can be found by multiplying the number of cylinders by the number of read/write heads in the assembly. The cylinder count is equivalent to the number of tracks on any one writable surface of any one platter.

370
Q

Which network connectivity device stops broadcasts from being sent to computers on a different network segment?

A. Hub
B. Switch
C. Router
D. Firewall

A

C. Router

A router does not pass along broadcasts to computers on other segments. Hubs and switches send broadcasts along because they do not segment traffic at the logical network address level.

371
Q

If a user wanted to disable Location Services on an iPhone, where would they do that?

A. Settings ➢ Location Services
B. Settings ➢ Communications
C. Settings ➢ Privacy
D. Settings ➢ GPS

A

C. Settings ➢ Privacy

In iOS (at least through iOS 12), Location Services are under Settings ➢ Privacy. There are no Location Services, Communications, or GPS sections directly in Settings.

372
Q

Which of the following would not be a reason to use a KVM switch?

A. There is only one administrator employed by the company.
B. Most server access is done remotely.
C. Four co-workers with their own computer systems and working on the same project are seated in four cubicles that form a square.
D. Saving money is a priority.

A

C. Four co-workers with their own computer systems and working on the same project are seated in four cubicles that form a square.

If multiple systems need to be accessed directly at the same time, a KVM switch is not an acceptable solution because it allows access to only one system at a time.

373
Q

On which port does FTP run by default?

A. 21
B. 25
C. 53
D. 80

A

A. 21

FTP operates on ports 20 and 21. Port 25 is used by SMTP, port 53 by DNS, and port 80 by HTTP.

374
Q

You are giving a seminar to new laptop technicians. What are the current types of displays you should discuss? (Choose two.)

A. CRT
B. CCFL
C. LCD
D. OLED

A

C. LCD
&
D. OLED

The two current laptop display technologies are liquid crystal display (LCD) and organic light-emitting diode (OLED). CRT is an old display technology used for desktop monitors. Cold cathode fluorescent lamp (CCFL) is a display backlight technology.

375
Q

You have been asked to implement a network topology that offers the greatest level of redundancy and fault tolerance. Which of the following topologies would you select?

A. Star
B. Mesh
C. Ring
D. Bus

A

B. Mesh

In a mesh topology, every computer is connected to every other computer. This makes it possible for connections to be maintained even if multiple cables are disconnected or severed. The cost and complexity of this topology increase because of the redundant connections.

376
Q

A user says that their keyboard backlight was working but now it’s not. What’s the easiest way to try to get it working again?

A. Change the BIOS setting
B. Use Windows Control Panel
C. Replace the backlight
D. Use the keyboard function key

A

D. Use the keyboard function key

Most systems with a keyboard backlight have a keyboard function key to turn the backlight on or off—try that first. If not, there is likely a setting in Windows Control Panel, or possibly the BIOS. Replacing the backlight is the last resort.

377
Q

You have recently installed a DHCP server on your network, and you notice that network performance has slowed down considerably. When monitoring the network traffic, you see excessive amounts of DHCP packets. What should you do to resolve this issue?

A. Decrease the DHCP lease time
B. Increase the DHCP lease time
C. Install a DHCP relay agent
D. Uninstall the DHCP server

A

B. Increase the DHCP lease time

DHCP clients broadcast to get an IP address from the server. When their lease is close to expiration, they will broadcast again to renew the lease. Increasing the lease time will resolve this issue. Uninstalling the DHCP server would too, but that also eliminates the benefit of using DHCP.

378
Q

You need to install a storage solution for a client. Which RAID type offers no redundancy or fault tolerance?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 10

A

A. RAID 0

RAID 0 offers larger volumes and read/write speed improvements, but no redundancy. If one drive is lost, so is all data in the array—hence, no fault tolerance. RAID 1 is a mirrored set; RAID 5 has parity; and RAID 10 is a mirror of a striped set. All of them offer fault tolerance.

379
Q

You are installing a new display for a laptop. Which LCD component is responsible for providing brightness?

A. Backlight
B. Inverter
C. Screen
D. Digitizer

A

A. Backlight

The backlight provides light to the LCD screen. The inverter provides power to the backlight, and the screen displays the picture. Digitizers take physical input (such as touch) and turn it into electronic data.

380
Q

Your network has two subnets separated by a router. To make network administration easier, you install a DHCP server on subnet A. Clients on subnet B are not getting IP addresses automatically. What is the best way to resolve this?

A. Install a DHCP relay agent on subnet A
B. Install a DHCP relay agent on subnet B
C. Install a second DHCP server on subnet B
D. Configure the router to forward broadcast messages

A

B. Install a DHCP relay agent on subnet B

DHCP requests are made via broadcast and will not travel through the router. It’s never a good idea to allow routers to forward broadcasts. You could install a second DHCP server, but that’s inefficient. Install a DHCP relay agent on subnet B.

381
Q

Which of the following devices are shared when using a KVM switch? (Choose two.)

A. Speakers
B. Input devices
C. A display unit
D. A NIC

A

B. Input devices
&
C. A display unit

KVM stands for keyboard, video, mouse. Therefore, input devices such as a keyboard and mouse, and a display unit will be shared. Speakers and NICs are not shared.

382
Q

Which of the following are standards used by coaxial cable? (Choose two.)

A. RG-6
B. RG-59
C. RJ-11
D. RJ-45

A

A. RG-6
&
B. RG-59

RG-6 and RG-59 are coaxial cable standards. RJ-11 and RJ-45 are connectors used with twisted-pair cabling.

383
Q

Which of the following standards would you want to use if you needed high-bandwidth wireless network communications?

A. Bluetooth
B. Wireless Ethernet
C. Cellular
D. Infrared

A

B. Wireless Ethernet

Wireless Ethernet is the best of the four wireless communication methods for networking, and it has the highest bandwidth of all four options.

384
Q

You are selecting a storage device for a client, and they request a hybrid drive. Which of the following best describes a hybrid drive?

A. Contains both magnetic and solid-state storage
B. Uses RAID to create a volume set from both internal and external storage
C. Uses RAID to make a volume set out of a conventional hard drive and an SSD
D. Combines primary and secondary storage in one

A

A. Contains both magnetic and solid-state storage

Hybrid drives have a solid-state component, which is most often used for the operating system, some programs, and files that don’t change, and a conventional magnetic drive that provides considerably more storage and holds mostly data. RAID arrays can be composed from any type of hard drive. Secondary storage typically refers to offline storage, which is not relevant to hybrid drives.

385
Q

You are troubleshooting a network issue. What feature do switches most likely have to help troubleshoot connectivity issues?

A. Port toggles
B. Beep codes
C. Indicator lights
D. Log entries

A

C. Indicator lights

Switches and other connectivity devices have indicator lights to help indicate when things are working normally and when something isn’t working right. There are no port toggles, and switches don’t use beep codes. A switch might make a log entry into an event logger, but this is less likely than it having indicator lights.

386
Q

Which of the following is a requirement for installing iTunes version 12 on a Mac?

A. 4 GB of RAM
B. macOS 9.2.2
C. Safari
D. 1 GB of available disk space

A

C. Safari

A Mac needs to have a later version of Safari loaded before you can install iTunes. The most RAM required is only 2 GB, allowing 1080p video to be played. Depending on the version of iTunes, some version of macOS is required. macOS 9 will not support the latest version of iTunes. You can install iTunes on a Mac with only 400 MB of available disk space.

387
Q

Which of the following is a concept that applies only to magnetic hard disk drives and not to solid-state drives?

A. Storage capacity
B. External attachment
C. Access time
D. RPM

A

D. RPM

RPM (rotations per minute) applies only to conventional magnetic hard drives with spinning platters. SSDs have no moving components. All hard drives have a storage capacity and an attachment of some sort, and can be rated on access time.

388
Q

Which of the following cable types is made with a plastic coating that does not produce toxic fumes when it burns?

A. Plenum
B. Fiber
C. Coaxial
D. Unshielded twisted-pair

A

A. Plenum

The plenum is an air space within buildings used to circulate breathable air for occupants of a building. Fiber, coaxial, and UTP cables are normally enclosed with a PVC plastic coating, which produces toxic fumes when burned. For air ventilation spaces, plenum-grade cable is required. All cable types have plenum-rated versions.

389
Q

Which device, when introduced into the market, caused a large number of privacy concerns?

A. Apple Watch
B. Smartphone
C. Lightning
D. Google Glass

A

D. Google Glass

Google Glass, which is an augmented reality (AR) headset, caused a great deal of controversy because of its camera and privacy issues.

390
Q

Which of the following connections will provide the fastest data transfer speeds for a hard drive?

A. Molex
B. SATA
C. IDE
D. DB-9

A

B. SATA

The two common hard drive connection types here are SATA and IDE (PATA). Of the two, SATA is decidedly faster. It supports speeds of up to 6 Gbps, which equals data transfers of about 600 MBps. By comparison, IDE is limited to about 100 Mbps. Molex is a power connector type, and DB-9 connectors are for serial cables.

391
Q

A user has asked you to install a RAID array. Except in the case of RAID 0, which two things do all types of RAID offer? (Choose two.)

A. Faster read speeds
B. Faster write speeds
C. Redundancy
D. Fault tolerance
E. Ability to restore automatically from tape after a drive failure

A

C. Redundancy
&
D. Fault tolerance

Except for RAID 0, all implementations of RAID offer a way to recover from the failure of at least one drive, which is an example of fault tolerance, through the implementation of some mechanism that stores redundant information for that purpose. Some RAID types offer faster read and/or write performance. RAID 1, for instance, does not guarantee either.

392
Q

Which cloud term refers to the process by which a provider charges for resources used?

A. Rapid elasticity
B. On-demand self-service
C. Resource pooling
D. Measured service

A

D. Measured service

Providers typically measure the amount of resources used by clients and charge them for what has been used. This is called a measured service, and it functions much like utilities. The ability to quickly expand services is called rapid elasticity. On-demand self-service means that clients can get new resources without supplier intervention. Resource pooling is taking resources from multiple machines and making them available as one pool.

393
Q

Which of the following communication technologies is designed for use with peripheral devices such as keyboards, mice, and wireless headsets?

A. Bluetooth
B. Ethernet
C. Cellular
D. Infrared

A

A. Bluetooth

Bluetooth was made to work as a wireless personal area network (WPAN). As such, it’s perfect for computer peripherals such as keyboards, mice, and wireless headsets. Ethernet is used for networking, cellular primarily for mobile phones, and infrared for one-to-one short-distance communication.

394
Q

A user calls to report that his laptop is not booting up. What is the first step you should take?

A. Quarantine the system
B. Identify the problem
C. Establish a theory of probable cause
D. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem

A

B. Identify the problem

In the best practice methodology to resolve problems, the first step is to identify the problem. Quarantining the system is not necessary. Establishing a theory of probable cause is the second step, and establishing a plan of action is the fourth step.

395
Q

Which TCP/IP protocol uses port 110?

A. HTTP
B. HTTPS
C. SNMP
D. POP3

A

D. POP3

POP3 uses port 110. HTTP uses port 80. HTTPS uses port 443. SNMP uses ports 161 and 162.

396
Q

You are configuring a network and need to connect a local LAN segment to an external network. Which device will connect multiple networks together and determine the best path for sending data?

A. Hub
B. Router
C. Switch
D. Bridge

A

B. Router

Routers are highly intelligent devices that connect multiple network types and determine the best path for sending data. They can route packets across multiple networks and use routing tables to store network addresses to determine the best destination. Routers operate at the Network layer of the OSI model.

397
Q

Your laser printer has recently starting printing vertical white lines on documents it prints. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. The printer driver is faulty.
B. The fuser is not heating properly.
C. There is toner on the transfer corona wire.
D. There is a scratch on the EP drum.

A

C. There is toner on the transfer corona wire.

White streaks on printouts are most likely caused by toner on the transfer corona wire. Vertical black lines are caused by a scratch or a groove in the EP drum. If the fuser were not heating properly, toner would not bond to the paper, and you would have smearing. Faulty printer drivers will cause garbage to print, or there will be no printing at all.

398
Q

Which identifier is the unique serial number on each cellular device and can be used to disable the phone if it’s stolen?

A. IMEI
B. IMSI
C. ICCID
D. SEID

A

A. IMEI

The International Mobile Equipment Identity (IMEI) is a 15-digit serial number that identifies the phone and can be used to disable the phone if it’s stolen. The International Mobile Subscriber Identity (IMSI) identifies the specific mobile user and their network. The Integrated Circuit Card Identifier (ICCID) is the SIM chip’s identifier number. The Secure Element Identifier (SEID) is a long code used for security applications and NFC.

399
Q

Which of the following display technologies can be fashioned into the thinnest display units?

A. Fluorescent LCD
B. LED backlit LCD
C. Plasma
D. OLED

A

D. OLED

OLED panels consist only of LEDs. There are no other supporting layers or thick spaces, as with the other technologies. Therefore, they can be fashioned into the thinnest display units or even flexible display units.

400
Q

What is the component called that stores the material that ends up printed to the page by a laser printer?

A. Toner cartridge
B. Ink cartridge
C. Laser module
D. Laser cartridge

A

A. Toner cartridge

Laser printers use toner, which they melt to the page in the image of the text and graphics being printed. A toner cartridge holds the fine toner dust until it is used in the printing process.

401
Q

If a DNS server is unable to resolve a name, what will it do?

A. Check its cache file
B. Query the top-level DNS server
C. Query the root DNS server
D. Nothing

A

C. Query the root DNS server

If a DNS server is unable to resolve a name (and it checks its cache after it checks its zone file), it will query the root DNS server. There is no top-level DNS server; that’s what the root DNS server essentially is.

402
Q

You are working with a laser printer. Which of the following components offers the greatest risk to technicians?

A. Fuser
B. Refuser
C. Corona wire
D. Drum

A

A. Fuser

When you are working with laser printers, the device most likely to cause damage is the fuser. The fuser works at high temperatures and can cause a burn.

403
Q

You are troubleshooting a computer that is frequently rebooting on its own. Which of the following should you do as part of the first step in troubleshooting?

A. Review system and application logs
B. Document findings and actions
C. Question the obvious
D. Conduct internal or external research based on symptoms

A

A. Review system and application logs

The first step in the troubleshooting process is to identify the problem. The three sub-steps to identify the problem are: question the user and identify user changes to computer, inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes, and review system and application logs. Documenting findings and actions, while helpful all throughout the troubleshooting process, is the last official step. Questioning the obvious and conducting internal or external research are parts of the second step, establishing a theory of probable cause.

404
Q

Which of the following is not an advantage of the daisy-wheel printer?

A. Can print multipart forms
B. Relatively inexpensive
C. Print quality is comparable to a typewriter
D. Speed

A

D. Speed

The daisy-wheel printer is much slower when compared to the dot-matrix printer, and therefore speed is a disadvantage.

405
Q

Tablet computers generally have screen sizes of what size?

A. Smaller than 5″
B. Between 5″ and 7″
C. Between 7″ and 13″
D. Larger than 13″

A

C. Between 7″ and 13″

Most tablets are between 7″ and 13″ in size, although some can be larger. Smartphones are commonly between 5″ and 7″ today.

406
Q

Which of the following pin counts have been used in the primary power supply connectors going to ATX and later motherboards? (Choose two.)

A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 20
E. 24

A

D. 20
&
E. 24

ATX motherboards have used 20- and 24-pin connectors as their primary power leads to the motherboard. All pin counts listed have been used in connectors coming from the power supply, and even the P8/P9 primary AT motherboard connectors had only 6 pins each. However, only 20- and 24-pin connectors have been used for the same purpose in ATX and later motherboards.

407
Q

You are replacing a Mini PCIe wireless card in an older laptop. What type of connector does a Mini PCIe card have?

A. 52-pin card edge
B. 66-pin card edge
C. 100-pin card edge
D. 124-pin card edge

A

A. 52-pin card edge

Mini PCIe cards have 52-pin card edge connectors. M.2 slots have 66 pins. There is a legacy Mini PCI card standard, and those devices used either a 100-pin stacking connector or a 124-pin card edge connector. (You won’t be tested on Mini PCI.)

408
Q

On which memory modules would you find DDR400 chips?

A. PC3200
B. PC400
C. PC2-3200
D. PC3-3200

A

A. PC3200

The 8:1 ratio between the numerical portion of the names of memory chips and the modules on which they are mounted results in chips having the lower number of the two. Therefore, DDR400 chips are found on PC3200 modules. PC2-3200 modules are DDR2 modules and have DDR2-400 chips mounted on them.

409
Q

What would be the first step to perform if you are getting garbled print jobs?

A. Check the printer cable
B. Reinstall the printer driver
C. Change the font used in the print job
D. Replace the toner cartridge

A

B. Reinstall the printer driver

Garbled print usually indicates an invalid or out-of-date printer driver. If there were a cabling issue, the printer would not print at all. Bad toner would tend to produce faint or blurry print jobs.

410
Q

Which of the following is the speed difference between USB 2.0 and USB 3.0 cables?

A. USB 2.0 is 480 Mbps, and USB 3.0 is 5 Gbps.
B. USB 2.0 is 5 Gbps, and USB 3.0 is 10 Gbps.
C. USB 2.0 is 10 Gbps, and USB 3.0 is 20 Gbps.
D. USB 2.0 is 12 Mbps, and USB 3.0 is 480 Mbps.

A

A. USB 2.0 is 480 Mbps, and USB 3.0 is 5 Gbps.

The USB speeds are as follows: 1.0 is 12 Mbps; 2.0 is 480 Mbps; 3.0 is 5 Gbps; 3.1 is 10 Gbps; and 3.2 is 20 Gbps.

411
Q

You believe that your laser printer has a power issue. Using a multimeter, what reading should you get from pin 5?

A. +5V
B. –5V
C. +24V
D. –24V

A

B. –5V

Pin 5 on a laser printer should read –5V. Pin 1 is +5V, and pin 9 is +24V.

412
Q

Which impact printer has a print head that contains a row of pins that are triggered in patterns that form letters and numbers as the print head moves across the paper?

A. Laser printer
B. Daisy-wheel printer
C. Dot-matrix printer
D. Bubble-jet printer

A

C. Dot-matrix printer

The dot-matrix impact printer’s print head contains a row of pins that are triggered in patterns that form letters and numbers as the print head moves across the paper.

413
Q

You need to configure the IP address of your new laser printer. Which of the following are ways you may be able to do this? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Use the printer’s loopback connector
B. Use the printer’s control panel
C. FTP in to the printer’s management software
D. Use the printer’s management software that you installed on your workstation

A

B. Use the printer’s control panel
&
D. Use the printer’s management software that you installed on your workstation

The IP address of your printer can be configured in several ways. They include through the printer’s control panel and using the printer management software from your workstation.

414
Q

Which of the following is not a term relating to CPUs?

A. Hyperthreading
B. I/O port
C. Multicore
D. L1 cache
E. System bus width

A

B. I/O port

The communication between a CPU and the rest of the system is considered I/O from the perspective of the CPU, but an I/O port is not used for this purpose. I/O ports, such as USB or sound ports, are not directly related to the CPU.

415
Q

You are replacing an LCD display on a laptop. Which LCD component is responsible for providing the right kind of power to the display?

A. Backlight
B. Inverter
C. Screen
D. Backdrop

A

B. Inverter

The inverter provides power to the backlight. The backlight provides light to the LCD screen, and the screen displays the picture. There is no backdrop component.

416
Q

Which of the following descriptions characterizes an A/V editing workstation?

A. A computer with a RAID array and liquid cooling
B. A computer with advanced graphics and processing power
C. A computer with a fast hard drive and surround sound
D. Any standard thick client

A

C. A computer with a fast hard drive and surround sound

Audio/video editing workstations are characterized by their enhanced graphics adapters, audio features, and fast hard drives.

417
Q

A laser printer does not appear to be working properly. The display keeps showing various internal errors that may relate to the corona wires. Which internal component provides electricity to the corona wires?

A. Corona assembly
B. HVPS
C. ACPS
D. DCPS

A

B. HVPS

The high-voltage power supply (HVPS) provides power to the corona wires in most laser printers.

418
Q

With EP process laser printers, the laser discharges the charged photosensitive drum to _________ VDC.

A. +600
B. 0
C. –100
D. –600

A

C. –100

With EP process laser printers, the laser discharges the charged photosensitive drum to –100VDC.

419
Q

What is it called when a DHCP server specifies that a certain host will always receive the same IP address?

A. A reservation
B. A Lightweight Directory Access Protocol
C. A Network Address Translation
D. A Common Internet File System

A

A. A reservation

On the DHCP server, you can specify that certain hosts will always receive the same IP address, which is called a reservation. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a protocol designed to speed up an administrator’s organization of and access to critical network directories. LDAP uses port 389. Network Address Translation (NAT) is a service that translates private, non-routable IP addresses into public addresses that can be used on the Internet. The Common Internet File System (CIFS) is TCP/IP protocol that uses port 445. It is used to share files and printers between computers, regardless of the operating system that they run.

420
Q

You are attempting to fix a laser printer. During printing, the toner does not seem to be placed on the paper. Which assembly is responsible for permanently pressing the toner into the paper?

A. Transfer corona
B. Fuser
C. Printer controller circuitry
D. Paper transport assembly

A

B. Fuser

The fuser assembly presses and melts the toner into the paper. The transfer corona transfers the toner from the drum to the paper. The printer controller circuitry converts signals from the PC into signals for the various printer assemblies. The paper transport assembly controls the movement of the paper through the printer.

421
Q

A laser printer in your office keeps getting paper jams. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Worn paper-feed rollers
B. Faulty stepper motor
C. Faulty fuser assembly
D. EP drum not advancing properly

A

A. Worn paper-feed rollers

Of the causes listed, the most likely cause is a worn paper-feed roller. Stepper motors control the back-and-forth motion of a print head in an inkjet printer. If the fuser assembly were faulty, the images would smear. If the EP drum doesn’t advance properly, multiple parts of the image will appear on top of each other.

422
Q

You have a computer that is running slowly when multiple applications are open. Increasing which of the following allows more applications to run simultaneously?

A. CPU speed
B. CPU bus width
C. HDD space
D. Memory

A

D. Memory

Applications and their data must reside in RAM during execution. Increasing anything but RAM, despite various benefits, does not lead directly to being able to run more applications simultaneously. Virtual memory, or using the hard drive to assist RAM, can delay error messages that indicate memory exhaustion, but you should not need to increase HDD space to optimize virtual memory. If so, then running multiple applications is not your biggest concern.

423
Q

A computer you are troubleshooting can’t get on the Internet or access local resources. You run ipconfig, and the system has an IP address of 169.254.18.36 and a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. Computers on the network get their IP configuration information from a DHCP server. What appears to be the issue?

A. The computer has an incorrect subnet mask.
B. The network card is failing.
C. The client cannot reach the DHCP server.
D. There is an IP address conflict.

A

C. The client cannot reach the DHCP server.

If a DHCP client can’t access a DHCP server, it will autoconfigure with an APIPA address. Any address starting with 169.254.x.x is an APIPA address. Such systems will not be able to get on the Internet or access local resources, unless those resources somehow have an APIPA address as well.

424
Q

What kind of cables use either a BNC connector or an RJ-45 connector?

A. Network cable
B. Telephone cable
C. Television connection
D. None of the above

A

A. Network cable

Both connectors are used for network cables; RJ-45 is used for twisted-pair Ethernet networks, and BNC connectors are used in 10Base2 networks. Telephone cables use RJ-11 connectors.

425
Q

A user calls to complain that his computer sometimes makes a horrible grinding sound. When you investigate, he says it only happens when he uses his DVD-ROM drive. What should you do?

A. Clean the DVD-ROM drive
B. Replace the DVD-ROM drive
C. Try a different DVD
D. Check the user manual for a solution

A

B. Replace the DVD-ROM drive

If the drive is grinding whenever you put a DVD into it, it’s likely that the drive needs to be replaced. If it won’t read properly or consistently, then it might need to be cleaned.

426
Q

You are choosing a flash technology for a school. Which of the following is not an example of a memory card format?

A. MicroSD
B. MicroCF
C. CF
D. xD

A

B. MicroCF

There is no micro version of CompactFlash modules. MicroSD is a smaller version of the SD format. CF is CompactFlash. xD is a Picture Card format.

427
Q

Which of the following is an Internet mail protocol used to send email from a mobile device?

A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. Exchange
D. SMTP

A

D. SMTP

Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) is used for sending Internet (TCP/IP-based) mail from a client to a recipient’s server. IMAP4 and POP3 are used for retrieving mail, and Exchange is a proprietary messaging system, not an Internet protocol.

428
Q

When setting up a gaming PC, which of the following qualifies as an enhanced cooling method?

A. Convection cooling
B. Liquid cooling
C. A heat sink
D. Both a front intake fan and a rear exhaust fan

A

B. Liquid cooling

Liquid cooling is an advanced cooling method, using water or another liquid to cool components. Convection cooling is the standard method of cooling, with or without heat sinks and fans.

429
Q

You are connecting several NFC devices together. Which of the following is not an NFC communication mode?

A. Host mode
B. Card emulation mode
C. Reader/writer mode
D. Peer-to-peer mode

A

A. Host mode

There is no NFC host mode. All the others choices are valid NFC modes.

430
Q

You just purchased a used system, and a BIOS password is preventing you from modifying the settings. Which of the following options allows you to gain access to the BIOS configuration when an unknown password prevents such access?

A. Repositioning a jumper on the motherboard to clear the CMOS memory
B. Holding down a BIOS-specific key or key sequence while booting the machine
C. Unplugging the computer for at least two minutes
D. Pressing F8 early in the boot sequence and selecting the option to clear the password from the resulting menu

A

A. Repositioning a jumper on the motherboard to clear the CMOS memory

Most motherboards have a Clear CMOS or Reset CMOS jumper that immediately resets the CMOS memory to its default state. Clearing the CMOS removes any BIOS supervisor and user passwords that might be set, along with many other user-configured BIOS settings, returning the BIOS to factory defaults.

431
Q

You have just installed a new printer. After it is installed, it prints only garbled text. Which of the following is likely the problem?

A. Wrong IP address
B. Worn print head
C. Incorrect printer drivers
D. Unsupported printer

A

C. Incorrect printer drivers

If a printer is using out-of-date or incorrect printer drivers, the printer may produce pages of garbled text. The solution is to ensure that the most recent printer drivers are downloaded from the manufacturer’s website.

432
Q

In which step of the laser printer printing process does a uniform –600VDC charge get applied to the EP drum?

A. Conditioning
B. Charging
C. Developing
D. Transferring

A

B. Charging

During the charging phase, the charging corona applies a uniform –600VDC charge to the photosensitive drum. The drum is then ready for the image to be written on it.

433
Q

What can disabling cellular data networking on a mobile device accomplish?

A. Prevent large updates from occurring
B. Prevent overages in the subscriber’s data plan
C. Force calls to go out over Wi-Fi
D. Allow the use of caller ID to reject unwanted incoming calls

A

B. Prevent overages in the subscriber’s data plan

The use of the cellular data network counts against the subscriber’s monthly data plan. Disabling the cellular data connection does not change how calls are processed or presented. Updates will not occur over the cellular network when cellular data is disabled but can still occur over Wi-Fi.

434
Q

What is the maximum number of devices that can be supported by USB?

A. 63
B. 127
C. 256
D. 16

A

B. 127

Though it is unlikely that it would ever be necessary, a single USB chain can theoretically support 127 different peripheral devices. This includes scanners, cameras, MP3 players, printers, keyboards, and so on.

435
Q

What is the lowest grade of cable required to run 100BaseT?

A. UTP CAT-3
B. UTP CAT-5
C. UTP CAT-5e
D. Multimode fiber

A

B. UTP CAT-5

In order to run 100BaseT, you need CAT-5 or better. The T in 1000BaseT indicates twisted-pair cable, not fiber-optic cable.

436
Q

Which component has a switch that might need to be changed when moving a computer from one country to another?

A. PATA hard drive
B. SATA hard drive
C. Motherboard
D. Power supply

A

D. Power supply

Power supplies have voltage selector switches that allow the power supply to be used in regions, such as North America, that have power grids based on voltages in the 110–120 range with a 60 Hz phase but then be moved to other regions, such as Europe, where voltages in the range of 220–240 and a phase of 50 Hz is used. Hard drives and motherboards do not need to be configured per country.

437
Q

You want to ensure that a certain data stream receives guaranteed bandwidth. What level of QoS should you specify in the SLA?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 6

A

C. 5

In the Quality of Service (QoS) service-level agreement (SLA), you should specify level 5. Higher numbers indicate higher levels of service, but the highest level anyone can configure is 5. Levels 6 and 7 are reserved for control data.

438
Q

Which networking device transforms data into the format needed to be transmitted over a physical medium?

A. Switch
B. Firewall
C. Repeater
D. NIC

A

D. NIC

The network interface card (NIC) is responsible for transforming the data into the proper format needed to transmit over the network. Repeaters, switches, and firewalls will each take the data received and pass it along as is appropriate, but they do not transform data.

439
Q

You have blocked port 110 on your firewall. Based on this action, which of the following may be true?

A. Clients on your network will not be able to access web pages.
B. Clients on your network will not be able to send email.
C. Clients on your network will not be able to retrieve email unless their email client supports POP3.
D. Clients on your network will not be able to retrieve email unless their email client supports IMAP.

A

D. Clients on your network will not be able to retrieve email unless their email client supports IMAP.

Port 110 is used for POP3, which is an email-retrieval protocol. Client computers with email software that supports IMAP may still be able to download email.

440
Q

What is the primary difference between an LCD monitor and an LED monitor?

A. LCD subpixels create the colors of the image instead of LED subpixels.
B. The LCD monitor commonly uses a fluorescent bulb as a backlight.
C. LED monitors use AC power for their backlight.
D. LCD monitors are newer to the market than are LED monitors.

A

B. The LCD monitor commonly uses a fluorescent bulb as a backlight.

An LED monitor actually is an LCD monitor. The only difference is that LEDs, not a fluorescent bulb, create the light that shines through the LCD panel. LED monitors are newer than LCD monitors and use DC power to light the LEDs. Fluorescent bulbs require AC power. Organic LED subpixels in an OLED monitor create the colors of their images, but LEDs in a LED monitor simply create the backlight.

441
Q

Your laptop has 8 GB of installed memory and uses shared video memory. If the video card is using 1 GB, how much is left for the rest of the system?

A. 1 GB
B. 7 GB
C. 8 GB
D. 9 GB

A

B. 7 GB

If the laptop is using shared video memory, then the system memory is shared with the video card. If the video card is using 1 GB, and the system has 8 GB total, then 7 GB is left for the system.

442
Q

Which of the following is true for computers configured with APIPA?

A. They will be able to communicate with other APIPA-configured computers on their local network.
B. They will not be able to communicate with other APIPA-configured computers on their local network.
C. They will be able to communicate with any computer on their local network.
D. They will not be able to communicate with any computer on their local network.

A

A. They will be able to communicate with other APIPA-configured computers on their local network.

Computers configured with APIPA will have an IP address in the 169.254.0.0 range with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0. They will be able to communicate with other computers on the local network that have the same network address. They will not be able to get on the Internet.

443
Q

Every time you turn on a laptop computer, you need to re-enter the correct time and date. What is the most likely cause of the problem?

A. Failed CMOS battery
B. Corrupted BIOS
C. Failed motherboard
D. Incorrect POST settings

A

A. Failed CMOS battery

Whenever a system fails to hold the time and date when it’s powered off, the most likely culprit is the CMOS battery. It’s a lot like a watch battery and is usually easy to replace. Simply replace it, and the system should work normally.

444
Q

You have been given a new toolkit for troubleshooting computer problems. In it is a device marked “loopback.” What is the function of a loopback plug?

A. It tests a telephone line.
B. It terminates a SCSI cable.
C. It tests the functionality of a NIC.
D. It measures the signal strength of an Ethernet cable.

A

C. It tests the functionality of a NIC.

Loopback plugs take the signal going out on the transmit path and connects it back to the receive path. This allows you to test certain legacy ports as well as Ethernet NICs to make certain they are working correctly.

445
Q

Which of the following is the best way to ensure that only clients with the correct hardware addresses access your wireless router?

A. Enable MAC filtering
B. Disable SSID broadcasts
C. Leave the SSID as the default
D. Use WEP instead of WPA

A

A. Enable MAC filtering

Enabling MAC filtering allows only specific computers to use the wireless router. Disabling an SSID broadcast makes it so the router doesn’t broadcast its name, which can make it seem “invisible” to a casual snoop. It’s not a reliable security procedure, though. Changing the SSID from the default is always a good idea. You should use some sort of wireless security, but WPA is more secure than WEP.

446
Q

A user reports that his laptop has a number of places on the display that do not light up, even when the screen should be entirely white. What is the most likely cause of this problem?

A. Burn-in
B. Artifacts
C. Distorted image
D. Dead pixels
E. Faulty video driver

A

D. Dead pixels

Dead pixels occur when certain points on the screen will not light up. The only solution is to replace the display unit. Burn-in and artifacts are when other, dim images show up on the computer along with the intended image. Distorted images look pulled or stretched. Faulty video drivers do not cause burn-in, artifacts, distorted images, or dead pixels.

447
Q

Which of the following mobile phone components is responsible for managing wireless communications?

A. Baseband OS
B. SIM OS
C. NFC OS
D. iOS or Android OS

A

A. Baseband OS

All wireless communications are handled by the baseband system in the phone, sometimes referred to as the radio or the modem. The baseband OS manages the baseband system and communicates to the phone’s primary OS. The SIM OS manages data transfers between the smartphone and the SIM memory chip. There is no NFC OS. iOS and Android OS do not manage wireless communications.

448
Q

A user is having difficulty printing to a network printer. Other users are using the printer without a problem. What should you try first?

A. Print a test page from the user’s computer
B. Delete and reinstall the printer
C. Print a test page by using the printer’s self-test
D. Open Microsoft Word and try to print a document

A

A. Print a test page from the user’s computer

Printing a test page is the best place to start. If that does not work, you may want to delete and reinstall the printer. Printing a test page using the printer’s self-test will only tell you if the printer is printing fine, not if that one user is having a problem. Always use the test page feature from the printer properties, not from an application, to test printing.

449
Q

A user calls to report that her desktop computer will not power on. Which of the following should you do to help identify the problem? (Choose all that apply.)

A. Review system and application logs
B. Question the user and identify user changes to the computer
C. Inquire regarding environmental changes
D. Conduct internal or external research based on symptoms

A

B. Question the user and identify user changes to the computer
&
C. Inquire regarding environmental changes

The three sub-steps to identify the problem are: question the user and identify user changes to computer, inquire regarding environmental or infrastructure changes, and review system and application logs. In this case, since the system will not power on, system and application logs are unavailable. Conducting internal or external research is part of establishing a theory of probable cause.