A220 - SOP's Flashcards
(333 cards)
1
Q
Who normally checks the cabin from rear to front when entering the airplane?
A
The In-Charge Flight Attendant.
2
Q
What must be checked regarding Passenger Cabin Emergency Equipment?
A
It must be in place.
3
Q
On flights without Flight Attendants, who is responsible for the cabin safety equipment check?
A
The Captain or delegate, using checklist ACF631CS from the FAM.
4
Q
What must be ensured about galley units and loose items?
A
They must be secured and stowed.
5
Q
What should the Captain check in the logbook?
A
Outstanding aircraft defects and First Flight of Day checks.
6
Q
What briefing does the Captain give to the In-Charge FA?
A
In accordance with the FOM, including water and waste levels.
7
Q
What are the normal water and waste levels before departure?
A
Waste: empty; Water: 100% (less than 100% acceptable with agreement).
8
Q
Do you need to advise LOAD when dispatching with <100% water?
A
No, it has negligible effect on ZFW CG.
9
Q
When should the Configuration Safety checklist be used?
A
On through-flights or when AC power has been removed or is in doubt.
10
Q
What checklist must be used before DU 2 is powered?
A
The paper Configuration Safety Checklist in the QRH.
11
Q
What must the SLAT/FLAP lever position agree with?
A
The actual slat/flap position.
12
Q
What are the required settings for BATT 1 and BATT 2?
A
Both should be in AUTO.
13
Q
Once DU 2 is powered, where is the ECL selected?
A
On DU 2.
14
Q
What are the correct AUTO positions in the Establishing Electrical Power Checklist?
A
PTU, HYD 3A, HYD 3B, HYD 2B.
15
Q
What position should the landing gear lever be in?
A
DN (Down).
16
Q
What is the required position for thrust levers and engine run switches?
A
Thrust levers: IDLE; L ENG and R ENG run: OFF.
17
Q
What power sources may be used during pre-flight power-up?
A
APU or EXT PWR, as required.
18
Q
What caution must be observed during FLT CTRL IN TEST advisory?
A
Do not move flight controls or change AC power sources.
19
Q
What is the correct APU start sequence?
A
START for ≥3 seconds → RUN → wait for APU ON → deselect EXT power after 5 seconds.
20
Q
What should you do if APU SHUTDOWN message shows during start?
A
Set APU switch to OFF, then restart the APU.
21
Q
What should “EQUIP COOLING, INLET” be set to?
A
AUTO.
22
Q
Who normally performs the Walkaround Check before departure?
A
The First Officer.
23
Q
What is the purpose of the Walkaround Check?
A
To visually examine the aircraft and ensure its overall condition is safe for flight.
24
Q
What safety precaution must flight crew take during external inspections?
A
Be alert for moving vehicles and remain visible to operators.
25
What must be worn by pilots during the walkaround?
Reflective vests.
26
What is the required status of the PARK BRAKE before a walkaround?
ON.
27
What lights should be ON prior to the Walkaround Check?
NAV and LOGO lights.
28
When should WING INSP lights be used?
As required.
29
What systems must be checked before walkaround begins?
EICAS and INFO displays.
30
How is circuit breaker status confirmed?
By selecting the CB synoptic page.
31
What are you checking for on surfaces and structures during walkaround?
Clear of damage, missing parts, and fluid leaks.
32
What should be checked about the tires?
Not too worn, no damage, and no tread separation.
33
What is acceptable for gear struts during walkaround?
They should not be fully compressed.
34
What do you check in engine inlets and tailpipes?
Clear, access panels secure, no damage, reversers stowed.
35
What must be true of unused doors and access panels?
They must be latched.
36
What must be true of probes, vents, and static ports?
Clear and not damaged.
37
What is checked regarding antennas during the walkaround?
They are not damaged.
38
What is checked regarding light lenses?
They must be clean and not damaged.
39
When is the Preliminary Flight Compartment Check completed?
On the Aircraft First Flight of Day (local time).
40
What should be checked on the observer seat oxygen mask?
Check the oxygen flow and the flow indicator shows a yellow cross.
41
What is the proper setting for the crew oxygen mask?
Stowed/Doors Closed, set to 100%.
42
What is confirmed when pressing the PRESS TO TEST lever?
Oxygen flow is heard and the flow indicator shows a yellow cross.
43
What must be done with the emergency flow selector?
Push momentarily and confirm oxygen flow and yellow cross.
44
What is checked on the document and elementary work pouches?
They must be sealed (green tag for document pouch).
45
What must be confirmed regarding landing gear pins?
Three must be onboard.
46
What must be checked regarding hand mics?
They must be in place.
47
How is the FDRAS test completed?
Use EMER ACCESS and DENY, then use normal code to confirm door locks and opens.
48
How many QRHs must be onboard and where?
2 QRHs, located at positions 1 and 5.
49
How many MELs must be onboard?
1 MEL, amendable, located at position 3.
50
What is checked in the Emergency Equipment Check?
Escape rope, hatch, fire extinguisher, fire gloves, crash axe, smoke hood, life vests, flashlights.
51
How are flashlights tested?
Press push-to-test button; LED should flash green.
52
What is checked in the cockpit floor area?
Ensure it's clear of foreign objects that could interfere with rudder pedals.
53
Where should briefcases and baggage be stowed?
Briefcases between seat and sidewall; baggage stowed properly.
54
What should not be placed between seat and aisle stand?
Objects, to avoid injury during seat adjustment.
55
What is required of the P-EFB?
It must be secured and adjusted in its securing device.
56
What must be done with the captain and F/O seats?
Adjust for eye reference and verify fore/aft lock.
57
What must be adjusted for each pilot besides the seat?
Armrests and rudder pedals.
58
What is done with the HUD combiner?
Lower and adjust.
59
What must be checked for crew oxygen masks?
Flow check, setting at 100%, pressure on EICAS.
60
What inhibits headset microphones?
Oxygen mask stowage box open.
61
How is the ice detector test completed?
Select AVIONIC synoptic page, run ICE DETECT test, confirm ICE message and DONE.
62
How is the ECL database verified?
Check FMS part number matches TRI; if not, refer to ATB.
63
What should be done with the ECL before use?
RESET ALL.
64
How long should you wait after the last flight’s 'in' event before proceeding with FMS setup?
At least five minutes.
65
What should be checked before initializing FMS?
Ensure FLIGHT PROFILE page data is cleared.
66
Where is ACARS initialized?
CNS page > DLK tab > AOC AC > PREFLIGHT > ACARS INIT > SEND.
67
What should be done if datalink is unavailable?
Complete the Manual Init Page 1/2.
68
What function does LSK 6R serve in ACARS setup?
Provides active advisories and removes them when selected.
69
What must be obtained after ACARS initialization?
ATIS.
70
How is ICAO Flight ID entered?
Via CNS page or CTP, in ICAO format per OFP (e.g., ACA192).
71
What must be checked in the DBASE tile?
STATUS tab and ensure Nav database is current.
72
What must be done in FPLN-INIT to clear previous data?
Enter ORIGIN and EXECUTE.
73
How is a flight plan uplink requested?
In FPLN-INIT, select FLPN UPLINK, enter ICAO Flight ID, and SEND.
74
What must be done once flight plan uplink is received?
Activate and Execute the SEC flight plan.
75
What button should not be pressed during FPLN uplink?
Do not switch FMS source with XFR button until uplink is complete.
76
What is the timeout for flight plan uplink?
System will timeout after 5 minutes.
77
What tool is used for take-off performance analysis?
ACARS WAT take-off performance tool.
78
When must cowl anti-ice be ON for takeoff?
OAT ≤ 10°C with visible moisture or contaminated surfaces.
79
When must wing anti-ice be ON for takeoff?
OAT ≤ 5°C with visible moisture or contaminated surfaces.
80
What is the backup if ACARS is not working?
Use S4A PERF Tool or contact Dispatch for a WAT REPORT.
81
What must PF and PM do after take-off performance analysis?
Independently verify inputs and review output data.
82
What causes the ACARS message 'TOW OUT OF LIMITS'?
LDF T/O weight exceeds WAT request weight limits.
83
Can FLEX be used on wet runways?
Yes, if wet runway performance data is used.
84
When is FLEX prohibited?
With windshear/downdrafts, inop anti-skid/autothrottle, or anti-ice ON.
85
Can reduced thrust (FLEX) be used with derated takeoff thrust?
No, FLEX from derated thrust is prohibited.
86
When is derated or reduced thrust prohibited?
On contaminated runways (water, slush, snow, ice).
87
What should be avoided during derated takeoff procedures?
Do not advance thrust levers further except in emergency.
88
Why should climb derates not be canceled unnecessarily?
It leads to long-term engine degradation.
89
What position should the READING / WIPER switches be in during pre-flight?
As required, OFF.
90
What is the expected status of the FIRE panel during pre-flight?
Guarded, no lights.
91
What setting should the PTU and HYD pumps 2B, 3A, 3B have?
AUTO.
92
What is checked on the HYD SOV 1 and 2?
Guarded, no lights.
93
What are the expected settings on the ELECTRICAL panel?
BUS ISOL, BATT 1/2: AUTO; L&R GEN, APU GEN: Pushed out, no lights.
94
What must be confirmed for GEN switches during tactile check?
GEN switches are in the pushed-out position.
95
What are the settings on the FUEL panel?
MAN XFR: OFF; L&R BOOST PUMP: AUTO; GRAV XFR: No lights.
96
What are the required settings on the AIR panel?
COCKPIT & CABIN temp: As required; CARGO FWD/AFT: VENT; XBLEED: AUTO; remaining: No lights.
97
What should the ANTI-ICE panel settings be?
L/R COWL: AUTO; WING: AUTO.
98
What is the status of the ELT and CARGO fire panel?
ELT: ARM; Cargo fire: Guarded, no lights.
99
How should the EQUIP COOLING and PRESSURIZATION panels appear?
AUTO, no lights; Pressurization: EMER DEPRESS, DITCHING, PAX OXY guarded, no lights.
100
How is the MAN RATE control set?
At MID position.
101
What are the settings for EVAC / EMER LTS panel?
EVAC CMD: Guarded, no lights; EMER LTS: ARM.
102
What should be the status of the EXT and LDG LTS panels?
EXT: As required; LOGO: ON; TAXI & LDG LTS: OFF.
103
What must be checked on the PAX SIGNS panel?
SEAT BELTS: As required.
104
What should be verified during flight instruments cross-check?
Altimeter setting, altitudes/airport elevation, and headings are accurate and verbalized.
105
What is the RVSM altimeter tolerance?
Max 75 ft difference between Cpt and FO displays and field elevation.
106
What is checked on the displays (DU1 to DU5)?
All on, configured; MAP displayed on DU 2/3; overlays and symbols selected.
107
What are the EICAS and INFO panel actions?
Review.
108
What must be the position of the AUTOBRAKE and NOSE STEER?
AUTOBRAKE: RTO; NOSE STEER: OFF.
109
What is verified on rudder trim?
Centered and green; moves properly in both directions; 3-second protection functions.
110
What are the ENGINE START and IGNITION switch settings?
ENGINE START: AUTO; CONT IGNITION: No lights.
111
What is verified during the SLAT/FLAP lever check?
Lever matches indicated slat/flap position.
112
What must be the status of ALTN FLAP and spoilers?
ALTN FLAP: Guarded/NORM; SPOILER lever: RET.
113
What is the correct process for the sidestick check?
Move in all axes; blue dot follows motion, returns to center; no movement if FLT CTRL IN TEST advisory.
114
When should sidestick check not be performed?
If FLT CTRL IN TEST (Advisory) message is displayed.
115
What challenge and response method should be used before executing a change on FMS pages?
Use the “CONFIRM / EXECUTE” challenge and response method before executing any change.
116
Which FMS page does NOT need to be executed before moving to the next page?
The PERF DEP page does NOT need to be executed before moving on.
117
What should be done with the FPLN-INIT RTE and FLT NUMBER fields during FMS programming?
Leave both fields blank.
118
What must be verified or entered for the ORIGIN and DEST fields?
Verify or enter the ORIGIN and DEST fields as per your flight.
119
How should CRZ ALT be entered?
Enter CRZ ALT as FXXX, FLXXX, or the full altitude (e.g., 32000).
120
What should you enter for ETD?
Enter the expected OFF time as ETD.
121
When should the DEPARTURE and ARRIVAL procedures be selected?
After entering the ORIGIN and DEST, select DEPARTURE and ARRIVAL as appropriate.
122
What is the process for entering the ALTN and ALTN CRZ ALT fields?
Enter both ALTN (alternate) and ALTN CRZ ALT fields as required.
123
How do you input AVG WIND-CRZ and AVG ISAΔ?
Enter AVG WIND-CRZ and AVG ISAΔ using information from the OFP.
124
How do you load FPLN WIND/TEMP?
Select FPLN WIND REQ. If uplink is unavailable, manually enter winds using the OFP.
125
What should you do if FPLN UPLINK and FPLN-WIND/TEMP REQ can’t be selected at the same time?
Accept and load the flight plan uplink before requesting wind/temp uplink.
126
What wind information can be manually input if not automatically loaded?
Only cruise level winds are uplinked automatically. Climb and descent winds can be manually input.
127
What must be entered on the FPLN-FUEL page?
Enter ZFW, BLOCK fuel, TAXI fuel, RESERVE/CONTINGENCY fuel, and NUMBER OF PAX.
128
Why do you enter the NUMBER OF PAX?
This number is used to adjust the bleed schedule; include flight attendants.
129
When completing the PERF-DEP page, what data sources should you use?
Use data from ATIS and OFP for an independent review of WAT data.
130
How do you enter temperature in Fahrenheit on the PERF page?
Type “F” with the value (e.g., 80F) to enter Fahrenheit; “C” for Celsius.
131
What steps must be taken for TO THRUST, OAT, FLEX, RWY WIND, and CLB THRUST on the PERF-DEP page?
Select/enter each value as per the ATIS/OFP and procedure.
132
How do you select APR, SLAT/FLAP, BLEED SOURCE, WING ANTI-ICE, and COWL ANTI-ICE?
Select each as per SOP, using current flight and weather data.
133
What is the process for VSPEEDS entry?
Enter V1, VR, V2, select SET VSPEEDS, confirm speeds turn cyan, COMPLETE message is in view, and speeds are posted on the PFD.
134
How are flap retraction and green dot speeds populated?
They are auto-populated after VSPEEDS entry.
135
How do you enter DEP PROFILE?
Enter NADP, ACCEL, and THR RED altitudes from the WAT data. Disregard CLOSE IN/DISTANT display.
136
What is the standard PERF-CLB SPD?
Enter 290 kt / M.76 or the OFP cruise Mach, whichever is lower.
137
What should be verified in SPD/ALT LIMIT and TRANS ALT?
SPD/ALT LIMIT should be 250/10000 unless otherwise required; TRANS ALT should be 18000 unless otherwise required.
138
How is SPD entered for PERF-CRZ?
Enter Speed/Mach from the first point after TOC on the OFP.
139
How do you load and review the ROUTE-LEGS/ROUTE-VIA/TO pages?
Load/review the planned route using FPLN UPLNK, manual entry, or a combination; verify routing with OFP.
140
How do you enter and verify PILOT WPTS?
Confirm manually entered or uplinked PILOT WPTs against the OFP, verify LAT/LONG, track, and distances in TRUE heading.
141
What must be done after entering the route in the FMS?
PM reads the routing from the ROUTE VIA/TO page; PF crosschecks against the OFP for accuracy.
142
How is a gross error check performed for DTG?
Crosscheck DTG to DEST for reasonableness.
143
What should be done with the MOD FPLAN?
If correct, select EXEC to execute the MOD flight plan; verify ACT shows in white at the top.
144
What should be done if changes are needed to the secondary flight plan?
Make changes after verification/modification of the active flight plan.
145
What fuel crosscheck process should be followed?
PM reads FMS fuel values; PF checks fuel against OFP for reasonableness.
146
What should you compare between the OFP and FMS for fuel values?
Compare BLOCK, TAXI, TRIP/BURN, CONT, ALTN, DEST TO ALTN, RESERVE/CONTINGENCY, FINAL, and sum of all extra fuels.
147
Who obtains and crosschecks the ATC clearance during preflight?
The First Officer obtains the clearance; both Captain and First Officer crosscheck and verify against OFP and briefed data.
148
What must be verified after obtaining ATC clearance?
Verify no route revision, crosscheck against OFP, and confirm it matches the programmed route.
149
What should you do if ATC clearance is received just before departure?
Confirm the clearance matches the programmed and briefed data.
150
Who sets the XPDR code during preflight?
Both Captain and First Officer.
151
What must both pilots check on the FMS ROUTE page before briefing the SID?
Ensure it reflects the ATC clearance and charted SID procedure (routing, altitudes, speeds).
152
When should navigation radios be set for departure?
As required, for the initial phase of departure.
153
Who sets the altitude and heading bug before departure?
The PF (Pilot Flying) sets the altitude and heading bug.
154
What is the recommendation for heading bug if a turn >180° is required after takeoff?
Set runway heading pre-flight, and set heading bug to assigned turn direction after HDG mode is engaged above 400 ft AGL.
155
When do you select NAV and VNAV modes?
PF selects NAV and VNAV as required, based on the departure.
156
What should be reviewed if departing from a runway without a coded SID?
Do not select a lateral mode (e.g., NAV or HDG).
157
What should be reviewed in the departure briefing?
Procedure Ident & runway, airport, chart number, general info, transition altitude, initial climb/routing, and 'proceed on course' point.
158
What should be verbalized for the initial climb box in the briefing?
Runway, routing as published, and initial altitude.
159
When should the initial altitude be confirmed and set?
During the departure briefing; PF announces and sets, PM confirms.
160
What procedures should be reviewed before takeoff for noise abatement?
Review noise abatement and engine-out procedures as required.
161
Who reviews and verbalizes departure, performance, and PFD information?
The PF reviews and verbalizes; PM crosschecks with WAT data and FMS-PERF.
162
What items must be verbalized for FMS PERF-DEP?
Origin, runway, SID, T/O thrust, FLEX, climb thrust, APR, slat/flap, bleed, anti-ice, V-speeds, takeoff weight, acceleration height, thrust reduction height, EO acceleration height, FCP speed, heading, altitude, source XFR, FMA modes.
163
Where is EO ACC HT read from?
Takeoff WAT report.
164
What must the PM confirm for the FMA during the PFD review?
Active and armed modes, e.g., 'TO, VTO', 'FMS1, VALTS, VFLC ARMED'.
165
What should be accomplished for Threat Identification and Mitigation?
Review per FOM, both pilots accomplish.
166
How is fuel quantity checked before departure?
Compare quantity on board with OFP and fuel sheet; ensure distribution is within limits; enter data in ACARS or manually if required.
167
What is the procedure if aircraft is over-fueled by more than 300 kg?
Advise load agent.
168
What if no fuel was uplifted?
Enter ‘0’ in the uplift field.
169
What is the SG for manual fuel uplift calculation?
0.8 kg/L (3.0 kg/USG).
170
What is checked on the Preliminary Load Information (LDP)?
Flight Identifier, Departure Station, Aircraft Fin, OFP Revision, FOB, EZFW, ETOW, Live, DG NOTOC, Remarks.
171
What is the required agreement between TOW and WAT data?
TOW agrees with take-off weight on preliminary WAT data (+0 kg / -1200 kg).
172
What to do if additional crew members are onboard (ADC)?
Advise Load if not already done.
173
What must be checked for AIR, CARGO, FWD?
If forward cargo heat selection other than VENT is required, check Remarks on LDP/LDF.
174
What is checked in the Aircraft Journey Logbook before flight?
Place check mark in Ramp Check Completed box.
175
What must the Flight Crew review on the Final Load Data (LDF) before releasing the park brake?
Correct Flight Number, Date, Departure & Arrival Stations, Aircraft FIN Number, OFP Revision Number, Load Sheet Number, NOTOC EDNO Number, Total Passengers & Zone Breakdown, FOB, ZFW, TOW, ZFW MAC. All discrepancies outside tolerance must be reconciled before park brake release.
176
What tolerance must be observed between the actual gross weight and the preliminary take-off WAT data?
The actual gross weight must not be greater than the weight used for preliminary take-off WAT data, nor lighter than 1200 kg less. If outside this range, new take-off WAT data must be obtained.
177
What must the F/O do with ZFW and ZFW MAC on the FMS?
Enter/re-enter ZFW and ZFW MAC values, even if unchanged, and have them verified by the Captain.
178
What should be ensured after entering ZFW, ZFW MAC, and VSPEEDS?
Ensure TOW CG and STAB TRIM values are populated. Failure to do so may result in missing values on the PERF-DEP page.
179
What should be done if there is a change of runway, intersection, performance, or SID after pushback?
Accomplish the Change of Runway, Intersection, Performance, or SID Checklist as found in the QRH Normal Checklists.
180
When should the APU be started?
Per FOM policy, unless required earlier for air conditioning or electrics.
181
Who starts the engines and who monitors during pushback?
The First Officer starts the engines; the Captain monitors pushback and communicates with the ramp crew and ATC.
182
When should engine start be postponed due to ramp conditions?
If slippery ramp conditions create risk, engine start should be postponed until pushback is complete and brakes are set.
183
What are the maximum N1 settings during engine warm-up based on oil temperature?
Below −40°C: Engine start prohibited; Below −6°C: Idle; Between −6°C and 21°C: 30% N1; 21°C to 49°C: 50% N1; 49°C and above: No limit
184
What is the standard ramp communication procedure before engine start?
Ramp: “COMMUNICATIONS CHECK, CONFIRM BRAKES SET”; Captain: “COMMUNICATIONS OK, BRAKES SET”; Both confirm PARK BRAKE ON message; Ground crew may check NWS status before connecting tow bar
185
What is the warning regarding tiller/rudder pedal movement during pushback?
Do not move tiller/rudder pedals until marshaller clears the aircraft from the ramp to avoid injury/damage.
186
When is the 'BEFORE START CHECKLIST' called?
At a convenient time prior to pushback.
187
What does the 'DOORS' check involve?
Captain verifies all exterior doors are closed via EICAS or synoptic page, and flight deck door is closed.
188
What must be done with external power before removal?
Ensure external power is deselected with the EXT PWR switch before the cable is removed.
189
When should the beacon light be selected ON?
Only after receiving pushback clearance or clearance to start engine at the gate.
190
What should be done if abnormal power transfer EICAS messages appear during preflight at the gate?
Advise Maintenance, perform Aircraft Power Reset (Power Down – Power Up) Procedure per PQRRG 1.4, and ensure no abnormal messages remain. Record reset/rectification in Aircraft Defect Logbook.
191
What if abnormal EICAS messages persist after reset?
Advise Maintenance for further troubleshooting.
192
What is the ramp's callout when ready for pushback and brake release?
"READY FOR PUSHBACK, OKAY FOR BRAKE RELEASE."
193
What should the Captain say after confirming brakes are off and ready for pushback?
"BRAKES OFF, READY FOR PUSHBACK," including pushback instructions (e.g., "TAIL NORTH" or "PUSH TO SPOT 9"), and "DELAYING ENGINE START UNTIL ADVISED" if appropriate.
194
When is it appropriate for the Captain to complete the BEFORE START Checklist?
If not previously completed, complete before pushback and after receiving 'STANDBY' from Ramp.
195
What is the correct response from Ramp to begin pushback?
"COMMENCING PUSHBACK."
196
When does Ramp clear the Captain to start engines?
After pushback begins, Ramp calls "CLEARED TO START ENGINES."
197
What must the Captain announce before starting engines during pushback?
"STARTING LEFT & RIGHT ENGINES."
198
Why should airplane brakes NOT be used during pushback or towing?
It can damage the nose gear or tow bar.
199
If starting engines at the gate or open ramp, what must be established?
Communications with ground personnel and verification of which engine to start first.
200
What is the Captain's call when ready to start engines at the gate?
"BRAKES SET, STARTING LEFT & RIGHT ENGINES."
201
Who monitors engine displays for normal start and idle indications?
The First Officer.
202
What must the First Officer call once the EGT amber line disappears after start?
"LEFT (RIGHT) ENGINE NORMAL."
203
What does Ramp say after pushback is complete?
"PUSHBACK COMPLETE, CONFIRM WHEN BRAKES SET."
204
After setting PARK BRAKE ON post-pushback, what does the Captain say?
"BRAKES SET, CONFIRM WHEN PINS REMOVED."
205
What does Ramp call after removing the pins?
"PINS REMOVED."
206
After confirming pin removal, what is the next communication?
Captain: "REVERT TO HAND SIGNALS." Ramp: "REVERTING TO HAND SIGNALS."
207
When does the Captain call for the AFTER START CHECKLIST?
After engines have started and the PROCEED AT YOUR OWN DISCRETION signal is received.
208
What should not be moved until all hydraulic systems are powered?
Flight controls.
209
When should 'APU' be set to RUN or OFF?
After engine start, as per the checklist.
210
When must 'ANTI-ICE, COWL' and 'ANTI-ICE, WING' be set to ON?
In icing conditions.
211
When should 'NOSE STEER' be selected ON?
After start, as per the checklist.
212
How should the SLAT/FLAP lever be set?
To the take-off Flap setting as indicated on the PERF-DEP page.
213
What must both pilots check before taxi?
EICAS and INFO messages.
214
What is the procedure for leaving the ramp?
Wait for the marshaller’s STOP hand signal, then THUMB UP when ready. Proceed at discretion after receiving PROCEED AT YOUR OWN DISCRETION hand signal.
215
What should you do if visibility of hand signals is poor at night?
Place your hand close to the window or use the DOME light on/off to improve visibility.
216
What is the minimum thrust recommended for taxi?
Idle thrust is adequate for most conditions; limit breakaway power below 35% N1.
217
What steering is available at the Captain’s position for low speed maneuvering?
Tiller steering control.
218
What is the range of movement for nose wheel steering via rudder pedals?
Limited range for straight and large radius turns.
219
How do you relieve stresses in the main and nose gear structure after a turn?
Center the nose wheels and allow the aircraft to roll straight ahead before stopping.
220
During a 180-degree turn, what can reduce turning radius?
Use the tiller to max steering angle, apply thrust to the outboard engine, and use inside main gear braking.
221
What should be closely monitored during taxi?
Taxi speed, especially on long straight routes or approaching turns.
222
What is normal taxi speed, and what is max on long straights?
About 20 kt is normal, up to 30 kt on long straight taxiways.
223
What must be avoided at high taxi speeds?
Overcontrolling the nose wheels with the tiller.
224
What can cause brake and tire overheating?
High taxi speed, heavy weight, long taxi distances, or continuous brake application.
225
What is the correct technique for braking during taxi?
Use steady application to decelerate, release as speed decreases, repeat as needed.
226
What is prohibited if the BRAKE TEMP (Advisory) message is displayed before take-off?
Take-off must be delayed until brakes cool.
227
What is a safe following distance during taxi?
Avoid following other airplanes too closely to prevent jet blast and FOD.
228
When is momentary use of idle reverse thrust allowed during taxi?
On slippery surfaces for airplane control, but not above idle due to FOD risk.
229
How does brake wear occur?
Primarily by the number of brake applications; one firm application causes less wear than several light ones.
230
What should be avoided to preserve carbon brake life?
Continuous light applications ('riding the brakes') over long periods.
231
What is proper braking technique during taxi?
Apply brakes firmly to decelerate, release at low speed, and repeat as airplane accelerates.
232
After pushback, ATC clears you for a different departure runway than briefed. What should you do?
Complete the Change of Runway, Intersection, Performance, or SID Checklist from the QRH Normal Checklists, re-verify all performance and FMS data, and brief the new departure procedure.
233
During pre-flight, the EICAS displays “CONFIG RUDDER TRIM (Warning)” as you prepare for takeoff. What is the likely cause, and what is your immediate action?
The rudder trim is not centered. Immediately center the rudder trim, verify the warning clears, and ensure configuration is correct before proceeding.
234
Just prior to entering the runway, the In-Charge FA has not acknowledged your PA announcement for takeoff. What should you do?
Do not call “COMPLETED” for the PA item until acknowledgment is received. Ensure all cabin crew are ready and have acknowledged before entering the runway.
235
You notice the actual takeoff gross weight on the LDF is 1500 kg higher than the preliminary weight used for WAT data. What action do you take?
Obtain new take-off WAT data and update the FMS/performance entries before departure, as the discrepancy exceeds the established tolerances.
236
After setting takeoff data, the F/O notices that the FMS departure runway does not match the assigned runway. What should be done?
Update the FMS to reflect the correct runway, crosscheck all relevant performance and navigation data, and complete the Change of Runway Checklist if required.
237
During taxi, you receive an “ATTN: RUDDER TRIM NOT CENTERED” ACARS message. What is your response?
Confirm and center the rudder trim immediately. Do not rely solely on the message; always verify trim position during pre-flight and before takeoff.
238
The Captain asks for the BEFORE TAKE-OFF Checklist before the aircraft is fully configured. What should the crew do?
The checklist should only be run when the aircraft is fully configured for takeoff. Advise the Captain and complete all configuration items first.
239
While approaching the departure runway, you realize you have not confirmed the transition altitude for your departure. What should you do?
Verify the transition altitude (usually 18,000 ft unless otherwise published), and ensure it is set in the FMS and on your displays. Communicate with the PF/PM as needed.
240
You are asked to take off from a runway that is only 28 meters wide. What should you check?
Ensure compliance with the demonstrated minimum runway width for your aircraft (which is 30 m/100 ft). If not compliant, advise ATC and request an alternative.
241
The marshaller gives a hand signal that you do not understand during night operations. What do you do?
Keep the flight deck DOME light on, do not taxi, and request clarification from the ramp crew before proceeding. Use standard lighting/signaling procedures as required.
242
Scenario Prompt
Correct Response
243
You are in the take-off roll and suddenly notice an engine parameter outside limits. What is your immediate action?
Call out the condition immediately and be prepared for a reject if required.
244
You’re the Captain and a minor issue is called out during the takeoff roll, but it doesn’t require a reject. What do you say?
Call 'CONTINUE.'
245
During take-off roll, as you approach V1, what types of issues justify a rejected take-off?
Only those that make a rejected take-off mandatory (e.g., fire, engine failure, unsafe aircraft).
246
You receive take-off clearance. What do you do with the landing lights?
Select ON L, R, and NOSE LDG LGTS to acknowledge clearance.
247
You’re doing a rolling takeoff and have not yet selected landing lights ON. What should you do?
The Captain should call for landing lights ON during the roll.
248
As PF, what is your first action regarding thrust before starting the take-off roll?
Select or confirm autothrottle as required.
249
ATIS reports a headwind of 45 kt for your takeoff. What is your consideration for thrust management?
Consider using manual thrust, as autothrottle may not achieve target N1.
250
After advancing thrust levers for takeoff, when is it prohibited to select or re-select autothrottle?
After advancing levers to take-off setting and until the aircraft is at or above 400 ft AGL.
251
During the take-off roll, you advance the thrust levers to 55% N1. What do you do next?
Check that both engines’ N1 are stabilized before advancing to take-off setting.
252
You fail to achieve take-off thrust setting promptly. What warning could occur?
You may trigger a CONFIG SPOILER warning.
253
During take-off roll, who controls the thrust levers after they are in the take-off position?
The Captain controls the thrust levers until V1.
254
At 45 KIAS, the autothrottle disconnects unexpectedly. What is the correct action?
Reject the take-off, as autothrottle disconnect below 60 KIAS is a reject criterion.
255
You’re performing a derated take-off. At 70 KIAS, the autothrottle disconnects. What should you check before deciding to continue?
Check if both N1s match the target. Continue if matched, otherwise reject.
256
During TO or FLEX take-off, the autothrottle disconnects above 60 KIAS. What must you do to continue?
Set thrust levers to MAX to continue the take-off.
257
After thrust is set and THRUST annunciates on the FMA, what do you expect the PM to call out?
‘THRUST’
258
At 60 KIAS during take-off, what does the PM call out and what thrust mode transition occurs?
PM calls ‘HOLD,’ and thrust mode changes from THRUST to HOLD.
259
At 80 KIAS, what should both PFD speed indicators display?
Both should agree with each other.
260
At 80 KIAS, what engine parameter must you confirm, and what is the PM’s callout?
Confirm thrust set; PM calls ‘80 THRUST SET,’ PF replies ‘ROGER.’
261
At V1, what is the PM’s responsibility?
Announce ‘V1’ or monitor the automatic callout.
262
At VR, what does the PM call out, and what should the PF do?
PM calls ‘ROTATE.’ PF rotates at 3–5° per second towards PTM.
263
If the take-off is continued, what is the target for rotation rate and pitch?
Rotate at 3°–5°/second towards PTM, transition to follow FD when available.
264
During take-off, what is the sequence of callouts between the PF and PM from thrust application to 80 KIAS?
‘THRUST’/‘THRUST,’ ‘HOLD’/‘HOLD,’ ‘80 THRUST SET’/‘ROGER.’
265
You are the PF and experience an autothrottle disconnect at 65 KIAS with TO-1 set, and N1 does not match the target. What’s your action?
Reject the take-off.
266
During take-off, you notice that only one engine is achieving target N1. What should you do?
Reject the take-off.
267
You are the PM and notice PFD speed indicators disagree at 80 KIAS. What is your action?
Call out the discrepancy and prepare for a possible reject.
268
Q
A
269
What is the initial pitch reference after rotation during climb out?
PTM (Pitch Target Marker).
270
When does the Flight Director (FD) become available after takeoff?
Three seconds after weight-off-wheels.
271
When can the PTM be removed?
7 or more seconds after weight-off-wheels or at 200 ft AGL, whichever comes first.
272
What callout does the PM make at positive rate of climb?
“POSITIVE RATE”
273
What does the PF say in response to “POSITIVE RATE”?
“GEAR UP”
274
Who selects the Landing Gear Lever to UP?
The PM.
275
Can brakes be applied after becoming airborne?
No, do not apply brakes after airborne.
276
What speed is recommended for climb out with all engines operating?
V2 + 10 KIAS.
277
What speed is recommended for climb out with one engine inoperative?
V2.
278
What is the max bank angle allowed in takeoff configuration with all engines?
30°.
279
What is the max bank angle allowed with one engine inoperative?
15°.
280
Above 400 ft AGL, what lateral mode should be verified or called?
“HEADING MODE” or “NAV MODE”.
281
When can the autopilot be engaged after takeoff?
At or above 400 ft AGL.
282
At what altitude does thrust reduction and acceleration normally occur?
1000 ft AGL (or EO ACC HT if higher).
283
For NADP1, at what altitude is thrust reduction and acceleration?
Thrust reduction at 1500 ft AGL, acceleration at 3000 ft AGL.
284
When should flaps be retracted during climb out?
On schedule, after passing the appropriate F-speed.
285
Who calls for flap retraction?
The PF.
286
Who physically retracts the flaps?
The PM.
287
What is the max bank angle during flap retraction with all engines?
25°.
288
What is the max bank angle during flap retraction with one engine inoperative?
15°.
289
When should NAV mode be selected if not armed?
After passing 400 ft AGL.
290
What is the climb speed below 10,000 ft?
250 KIAS.
291
What is the climb speed above 10,000 ft?
290 KIAS / Mach 0.76.
292
What pitch mode is recommended for takeoff?
VTO.
293
What should be done if VNAV is not used for climb?
Select FLC at acceleration height and retract flaps on schedule.
294
Should you accept “Direct to” clearances or vectors to RF legs on SID?
No, do not accept.
295
Q
A
296
When does the PF call for the "AFTER TAKE-OFF CHECKLIST"?
At a convenient time after flap retraction.
297
Who calls and actions each item on the After Take-off checklist?
The PM.
298
What should the PM call for “Landing Gear” during the After Take-off Checklist?
"UP"
299
What should the PM call for “Flaps” during the After Take-off Checklist?
"0"
300
What should the PM call for “L Cowl Anti-Ice” during the After Take-off Checklist?
"AUTO"
301
What should the PM call for “Wing Anti-Ice” during the After Take-off Checklist?
"AUTO"
302
What should the PM call for “R Cowl Anti-Ice” during the After Take-off Checklist?
"AUTO"
303
What is the PM’s call for “EICAS” during the After Take-off Checklist?
"CHECKED"
304
During climb, what does VNAV comply with?
Waypoint altitude constraints on the ROUTE-LEGS page.
305
At what altitude and speed does the FMS command acceleration to programmed climb speed?
Passing the altitude specified in SPD/ALT LIMIT (default 250/10,000).
306
Above 10,000 ft, what should you do with aircraft lights?
Set as required per FOM 8.7.
307
Above 10,000 ft, what should be done with the seat belt sign?
Select SEAT BELTS to AUTO or OFF as required.
308
When is a Wing Anti-Ice (WAI) check required?
Below FL310 and TAT ≤15°C, or below FL190 and TAT ≤15°C with single pack.
309
How long should the WAI be ON for the check, and what should you confirm?
For 3 minutes, confirm no wing anti-ice warning or caution.
310
Where should “WAI Check Complete” be recorded?
Section 10 of the logbook.
311
When should you set the barometric reference to standard (STD)?
At transition altitude.
312
What must be done if still in icing conditions before passing FL350?
Stop climb at FL350 and do not select WING ANTI-ICE to OFF above FL350.
313
When is icing considered present in flight?
TAT of 10°C or below with visible moisture, except SAT is -40°C or below.
314
What action should you take if leveling off for an extended period at a lower altitude than planned?
Change the CRZ ALT on the FPLN-INIT page.
315
What speed maximizes climb gradient and minimizes drag in cruise configuration?
Green dot speed.
316
What is the recommended speed for holding?
Green dot speed.
317
What is the max bank angle at green dot speed up to 31,500 ft with all engines?
30°.
318
What is the max bank angle above 31,500 ft with all engines?
15°.
319
What is the max bank angle with one engine inoperative?
25°.
320
What should you do if holding above 31,500 ft is required?
Deselect HALF BANK and use a speed margin above green dot.
321
What is the default RNP selection in the FMS during cruise?
RNP AUTO.
322
Where can you monitor RNP requirements, EPU, and XTK Error?
On the ROUTE-LEGS page with SPD/ALT - VPA/RNP selected.
323
What factors can cause planned fuel burn to increase in cruise?
Higher temperature, lower cruise altitude, altitude >2,000 ft above optimum, faster or much slower speed, stronger headwind, fuel imbalance, improper trim, excessive thrust lever adjustments.
324
If there is a fuel burn discrepancy that cannot be explained, what should be considered?
A fuel leak—accomplish the Non-Normal Checklist.
325
What are the three basic limitations that determine the aircraft’s maximum altitude?
Maximum Certified Altitude, Thrust Limited Altitude, Buffet or Maneuver Limited Altitude.
326
What does the minimum maneuver speed indication (VMINTRIM) on the airspeed display NOT guarantee?
The ability to maintain level flight at that speed.
327
What actions should you take if airspeed drops below VMINTRIM?
Reduce bank angle, increase thrust to MCT, or descend.
328
What can happen if turbulence is encountered at or near maximum altitude?
The aircraft's angle of attack can increase and activate the stick shaker.
329
What should the PM perform when the PF calls FMA annunciation at cruise altitude?
A geographic scan of the cockpit.
330
When checking headings in cruise, what is the acceptable difference between the Standby Compass and the HSI?
No more than ±10°. Larger differences must be recorded in the Aircraft Defect Log.
331
What should be cross-checked and recorded for altimeter readings in cruise?
The primary and standby altimeter readings.
332
What should the PM check for fuel at cruise?
That fuel on board plus fuel used matches the departure fuel.
333
When should enroute winds and temperatures be uplinked or entered in the FMS?
If not previously entered or if new winds are desired.
