Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NNSOCM 2023 > ABDOMEN + ELECTROLYTES & pH W5 > Flashcards

ABDOMEN + ELECTROLYTES & pH W5 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the 6 general functions of the GI-Tract

A
  1. Ingestion
  2. Mechanical digestion
  3. Chemical digestion
  4. Secretion
  5. Absorption
  6. Defecation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Functions of the oral cavity

A
  1. Crushes/sheares food = mechanical digestion
  2. Lubricates food
  3. Begins chemical digestion
  4. Senses and analyses food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Functions of the tongue

A
  1. Prepares food for swallowing
  2. Produces lingual lipase
  3. Rich in sensory cells (sweet, sour, salty, bitter, savoury)
  4. Important for speech
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pathophysiology in the oral cavity in relation to bacteria

A
  1. Bacteria colonises oral cavity
  2. Bacteria breaks down sugar and releases acid and builds up plague damaging the emal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Salivary glands produces

A

Saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the functions of saliva

A
  1. Moists the food
  2. Contains enzyme
  3. Provides antibodies (IgA) and lysosome for protection of the mouth
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the 3 regions of the throat?

A
  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Oropharynx
  3. Laryngopharynx
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What leads the food “bolus” from the pharynx to the stomach?

A

Oesophagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The 3 phases of swallowing?

A
  1. Buccal phase
  2. Pharyngeal phase
  3. Oesophageal phase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the functions of the stomach

A
  1. Storage of ingested food
  2. Mechanical and chemical digestion
  3. Production of acid/enzymes
  4. Production of intrinsic factor (for B12 absorption)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of the lower Oesophageal Sphincter?

A

Contracts to keep the ingested food in the Fundus of the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name the 3 cells of the stomach and their function

A
  1. Parietal cells (produces hydrochloric acid)
  2. Chief cells (produces pepsinogen)
  3. Mucous cells (protects mucosa)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is GERD?

A

Incompetence of LES
Causing acid to harm the oesophagus resulting in inflammation and burning chest pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the treatment of GERD?

A

PPI (proton-pump-inhibitors) that affects the parietal cells causing less production of acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Name a common PPI drug

A

Pantropazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is gastritis?

A

Inflammation of the stomach due to imbalance of acids and protective components

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Name the 3 structures of the small intestines

A
  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the function of the small intestines?

A

90% of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption happens here

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the function and characteristics of duodenum?

A
  1. C-Shaped first segment approx. 25cm long
  2. “Mixing bowl” of chyme, bile and pancreatic juice
  3. Has few folds and small vilii
  4. Absorbs the majority of iron in chyme
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function and characteristics of jejunum?

A
  1. 2m long
  2. Many folds and vili (increasing surface)
  3. Responsible for the bulk of chemical digestion and nutrient absorption
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the functions and characteristics of Ileum?

A
  1. 3m long
  2. Quite similar to Jejunum (but har smaller vili)
  3. Has lymphatic nodes at the terminal end that protects the small intestine from bacteria from the colon.
  4. Absorbs Vitamin B12
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Name the 3 segments of the large intestine

A
  1. Cecum
  2. Colon
  3. Rectum
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Name the 3 segments of the colon

A
  1. Ascending
  2. Transverse
  3. Descending
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the function of the large intestine?

A
  1. Compacting intestinal content into faces
  2. Absorbing bile-salts and vitamines
  3. Storage of feces
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Where is the appendix attached?

A

To the Cecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the function of cecum?

A
  1. Receives intestinal juice from ilocecal valve
  2. Reabsorbes water and sodium
    3.Origin of the appendix
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Symptoms of appendicitis

A
  1. Pain migrating from the umbilicus to the RLQ above the appendix
  2. Nausea/vomiting
  3. Diarrea
  4. Elevated WBC levels
  5. Fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How long does it normally take from infection of the appendix before it ruptures?

A

48-72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the function of the colon?

A

Compacts faces and reabsorbs water and sodium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the function and characteristics of the rectum?

A
  1. 15cm long
  2. Stores feces
  3. Rectal distention causes urge to defecate
  4. Some of the veins drains directly into the vena cava and some into hepatic portal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Food requirements

A

25kcal/kg per day
50-55% carbohydrates
25-30% lipids
15-20% proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Water requirements

A

30ml/kg per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the difference in energy deprived from lipids vs proteins and carbohydrates?

A

1g lipid=9kcal
1g carb or protein=4kcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the contents of stool?

A
  1. Water (75%)
  2. Indigestible materials (20%)
  3. Bacteria (5%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the average normal defecation frequency?

A

Anything between once every 3 days up to 3 times a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Causes of constipation?

A
  1. Age/gender
  2. Immobile lifestyle
  3. Low fibre diet
  4. Low liquid intake
  5. Hypothyrodism (slow metabolism)
  6. Opiod intake
  7. Fear of bathrooms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treatment of constipation

A
  1. Address underlying disease
  2. Increase fibre and liquid intake
  3. Increase physical activity
  4. Use laxatives (movicol, dulcolax)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Causes of diarrea

A

Infections (viral/bacterial/paracites)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

RED flag symptoms of dysentery (infection of intestines)

A
  1. Crampy abdominal pain
  2. Bloody diarrea
  3. Fever >38,5
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Treatment of diarrea

A
  1. Rehydrate (oral or IV)
  2. Isolate patient
  3. Medicine (loperamid)
  4. Abx if indicated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

3 most important functions of the lever

A
  1. Metabolic regulation
  2. Hematologic regulation
  3. Bile production
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

General functions and characteristics of the liver

A
  1. Largest visceral organ (1,5kg)
  2. Center of metabolism
  3. Capability to regenerate
  4. Absorbed nutrients and drugs enter the lever via the hepatic portal system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the function of metabolic regulation in the liver?

A
  1. Venous blood from the portal veins drains into the liver
  2. Mobilizes reserves and synthesizes nutrients
  3. Removes or decomposes metabolic waste
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What happens in the liver during events of low BS (blood sugar)?

A

Glycogen gets transformed into glucose that is released into the blood to raise BS-level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What happens in the liver during events of high BS (blood sugar)?

A

Glucose in the blood gets transformed into glycogen or fat and is stored.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the function of hematologic regulation?

A
  1. Production of plasma proteins
  2. Macrophages in the liver removes aged/damaged blood cells.
  3. Macrophages removes pathogens and act as antigen-presenting cells to activate the immune system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is bile?

A

An alcaline liquid consisting of water and bile-salts produced by the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What gives bile its colour?

A

Hemoglobine of the old/damaged RBC’s decomposes to bilirubin in the liver. Bilirubin ads a yellowish/green colour to the bile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the function of bile?

A
  1. Counterweights the hydrochloric acid of the stomach
  2. Emulsifies lipids so that enzymes in the GI-tract can digest them
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the function of the gallbladder?

A
  1. Stores bile between meals
  2. Concentrates bile
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What can cause jaundice?

A
  1. Increased production of bilirubin (e.g. in malaria)
  2. Lever dysfunction (infection, toxins, cirrhosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the causes and symptoms of Hepatitis

A

Causes: Inflammaition of the liver due to alcohol, medications or infection.

Symptoms: Fatigue, fever, nausea, jaundice, pain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the characteristics of Hepatitis A?

A
  1. Tramsmission via fecal/oral route
  2. Causing acute hepatitis
  3. Prevention with vaccine.
  4. Symptomatic treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the characteristics of Hepatitis B?

A
  1. Transmission via sex, blood products or mother to newborn
  2. Causing acute hepatitis
  3. Prevention with vaccine.
  4. Treatment is difficult
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the characteristics of Hepatitis C?

A
  1. Transmission via blood products or surgical equipment
  2. Causing mainly chronification
  3. Not preventable with vaccine
  4. Treatable
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A
  1. End stage liver disease
  2. Transformation of liver tissue into fibrous tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is gallstone disease caused by?

A

Imbalance of substances in bile causing “crystals” to build.
Typically caused by high cholesterol levels in blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Symptoms of gallstone disease?

A
  1. Mid epigastric pain.
  2. Bloated
  3. Pain after meals
  4. Reflux
  5. In case of gall bladder infection migration of pain to the lateral side + fever
59
Q

What does the pancreas do?

A
  1. Produce insulin
  2. Produce glucagon
  3. Produce pancreatic juice
60
Q

What is the endocrine function of the pancreas?

A

Secreting hormones into the blood (insulin, glucagon)

61
Q

What is the exocrine function of the pancreas?

A

Secreting enzymes that digest carbs, lipids and protein into the duodenum

62
Q

Name the most common hormone production cells of the pancreas

A
  1. Alpha cells (glucagon)
  2. Beta cells (insulin)
63
Q

What is the pancreas secreting to “neutralise” acid from the stomach?

A

Bicarbonate (secreted with the pancreatic juice)

64
Q

What are the most common causes of pancreatitis?

A
  1. Large alcohol consumption over a long time
  2. Gallstone-disease
65
Q

Symptoms of pancreatitis

A
  1. Severe abdominal pain
  2. Radiation to the back
  3. Typical non palpable pain
  4. Nausea/vomiting
66
Q

Treatment of pancreatitis?

A
  1. Aggressive hydration (3-6L of fluids/day IV)
  2. PPI or light diet
  3. ERCP or removal of gallbladder or stones in bile duct that causes pancreatitis
67
Q

What are the characteristics of the spleen?

A
  1. Largest individual lymphatic organ
  2. Located I LUQ below 9.th and 11.th rib
  3. Blood supplied by splenic artery
68
Q

What are the structures and functions of the spleen?

A

Red pulp
1. Rich in RBC
2. Stores 1/3 of platelets
White pulp
1. Rich in lymphatic tissue
2. Initiates immune response to pathogens in the blood

69
Q

What is NCTH

A

Non Compressible Torso Haemorrhage

70
Q

Name some organs that can cause NCTH due to traumatic injury?

A
  1. Liver
  2. Spleen
  3. Kidney
71
Q

What are the symptoms of mononucleosis

A

Flu-like with
1. Fatigue
2. Fever
3. Sore throat
4. Rash
5. Head and body aches
6. Swollen lymph nodes
7. Swelling of liver and spleen (50%)

72
Q

What is the primary purpose of vomiting?

A

To avoid digestion of ingested toxins

73
Q

Name the triggers of nausea and vomiting

A
  1. Intraperitoneal (infections of GI-tract)
  2. Metabolic-toxic (e.g. opioids)
  3. CNS-disorders (increased ICP)
  4. Pregnancy
  5. Myocardial infarction
74
Q

Drugs for treating nausea/vomiting (nice to know)

A
  1. Serotonin receptor antagonists (odansetrone)
  2. Dopamin receptor antagonists (primperan)
  3. 1st gen histamine receptor antagonists (Benadryl)
  4. Acetylcholine receptor antagonists (scopolamine)
  5. Corticosteroids (Dexamthasone)
75
Q

Components of the dorsal vagal complex

A
  1. Area postrema (chemoreceptor triggerzone)
  2. Nucleus of the solitary tract (sensory inputs)
  3. Dorsal motor nucleus of the vagus (elicits vomiting as response)
76
Q

Were are the kidneys located?

A

In the retroperitoneum below the 11th / 12th ribs

77
Q

What are the functions of the kidneys

A
  1. Maintain homeostasis
  2. Regulate blood volume and pressure
  3. Regulate blood concentration of electrolytes/salts
  4. Regulates blood pH
  5. Assisting the liver in detoxifying poisons
78
Q

What are the steps in urine excretion?

A
  1. Filtration (plasma is pushed out of the vessels)
  2. Reabsorbtion (large amount of plasma is reabsorbed
  3. Secretion (active)
79
Q

What is a nefron?

A

Structure in the kidney that extracts the urine from the blood

80
Q

Characteristics of urine

A
  1. pH 4,5-8 (normally 6)
  2. Water content 93-97%
  3. 700-2000ml/day
  4. Protein in urine suggests kidney disease
  5. Glucose in urine suggests diabetes
81
Q

What is the ureter?

A

25cm long tube that transports urine from the kidneys to the bladder via peristaltic movements

82
Q

What are the characteristics of the urinary bladder?

A
  1. Can hold 500-1000ml urine
  2. You feel the urge to pee at 300ml
  3. Controlled by sphincter and detrusor muscles
83
Q

What is the urethra?

A

18-20cm (male), 3-5cm (female) tube from the bladder through the genitals that lets urine out

84
Q

What does hypothermia cause regarding diuresis?

A
  1. Causes “cold diuresis”
  2. Core perfusion increases due to peripheral vasoconstriction. This leads to increased glomerular filtration (in the nefron).
  3. Can cause “Cold dehydration”
85
Q

What happens if blood sugar remains too high (above 10mmol/l)

A

Glucose will be secreted in the kidneys and due to its osmotic activity it draws water with it causing larger amounts of urine

86
Q

What can cause kidney failure?

A
  1. Hypovolemia
  2. Medication or rhabdomyolysis
87
Q

What are the signs & symptoms of kidney stones?

A
  1. Colicky pain (on/off)
  2. Blood in urine
  3. Possible fever (infection)
88
Q

What can “costo vertebral angle tenderness” be a sign of?

A
  1. Kidney stones
  2. Infection of the kidney
89
Q

What are the two types of catheterisation?

A
  1. Transurethral (through the genitalia)
  2. Suprapupic (through the abdomen into the bladder)
90
Q

What is an easy field diagnostic tool regarding urine?

A

Dipstick analysis

91
Q

Name the components of the male body (solid, water)

A

40% solid components
60% water

92
Q

What are the disposition of water in the male body?

A

60% ICF (Intracellular fluid)
40% ECF (extracellular fluid)

93
Q

Name different types of ECF (extracellular fluid)

A
  1. CSF (cerebrospinal fluid)
  2. Pleura fluid
  3. Blood plasma
  4. Interstitial fluid
94
Q

What are the characteristics of interstitial fluid?

A
  1. Free floating fluid in the tissue (not inside cells)
  2. Contains high levels of sodium and potassium ions
95
Q

Name the 3 sources of fluid intake

A
  1. Eating (40%)
  2. Drinking (48%)
  3. Metabolism (12%)
96
Q

Name the 4 sources of fluid loss

A
  1. Urination
  2. Feces
  3. Perspiration
  4. Sweating
97
Q

How does the body regulate in case of dehydration?

A

Releases ADH and activates RAAS causing thirst and water/sodium conservation in kidneys

98
Q

How does the body regulate in case of “hypervolmme/overload”

A

Releases ANP causing reduced thirst and block ADH and RAAS resulting in increased diuresis

99
Q

What is fluid shift?

A

Movement between ICF and ECF.
Water moves in response to osmotic concentration to reestablish homeostasis

100
Q

What happens in capilary beds with water?

A
  1. Hydrostatic pressure forces water out of the arteries
  2. Coloidosmotic pressure reabsorbed water due to protein in the vessels
  3. Excess fluid in the surrounding tissue is drained via lymphatic vessels
101
Q

Name the 3 most important electrolytes

A
  1. Sodium
  2. Potassium
  3. Calcium
102
Q

Were is most of the calcium of the body found?

A

99% is found in the bones

103
Q

Were is the concentration of potassium highest?

A

In ICF (intracellular fluid)

104
Q

Were is the concentration of sodium highest?

A

In ECF (extracellular fluid)

105
Q

Why do we administer calcium in addition to blood infusion?

A

Blood products contains citrate (anti clotting) which absorbs the calcium in the body when administered. To replace this we administer 1g of calcium pr unit of blood

106
Q

What is true for coagulopathy and calcium?

A

Hypocalcemia will increase coagulopathy. Causing the worsening of the blood clotting factors.

107
Q

What crystalloid comes closest to the bloods natural electrolyte components?

A

Ringers acetate or lactate

108
Q

What condition contraindicates use of ringers lactate?

A

Crush syndrome

109
Q

What causes respiratory acidosis?

A
  1. Hypoventilation
  2. Sedation/medications
110
Q

What causes metabolic acidosis?

A
  1. Diabetes
  2. Kidney failure
  3. Diarrea (loss of sodium-bicarbonate)
111
Q

What causes metabolic alkalosis?

A
  1. Dehydration
  2. Vomiting
  3. Intake of steroids
112
Q

What causes respiratory alkalosis?

A
  1. Hyperventilation
  2. Anxiety
113
Q

Normal pH is…

A

7,35-7,45

114
Q

Acidosis is when…

A

Blood pH <7,35

115
Q

Alkalosis is when…

A

Blood pH >7,45

116
Q

Name the most important buffer-system regarding electrolyte/pH

A

Bicarbonate-buffer

117
Q

Explain how the bicarbonate-buffer works

A

Hydrogen ions released by metabolic acids combine with bicarbonate producing water and CO2 (which is then ventilated in the lungs)

118
Q

Explain what happens with CO2 in the body

A
  1. In tissue CO2 converts into carbonic acid
  2. Carbonic acid separates into H+ and bicarbonate
  3. Bicarbonate can combine with H+ and form CO2+water
  4. CO2 can be exhaled by the lungs
119
Q

If the bicarbonate buffer is not sufficient to remove excess acid, what compensative mechanisms steps in?

A
  1. Immediate response = Respiratory compensation
  2. Long term = renal compensation
120
Q

What happens in the respiratory compensation to low blood pH?

A
  1. Increased respiratory rate
  2. Increased depth
121
Q

What happened in the renal compensation to low blood pH?

A
  1. Kidneys secrete excessive H+
  2. Kidneys reabsorb more bicarbonate in the nephrons
122
Q

What happens in a crush injury?

A
  1. Direct compression damage to the muscle causing decomposition
  2. Hypoxia in distal tissue due to compression of vessels at the injury site
123
Q

What is rhabdomypolysis?

A

Muscle cells damage causing the release of myoglobin, potassium and metabolic acids typically caused by crush injuries or compartment syndrome

124
Q

What is crush syndrome?

A

The systemic effect after decompressing a part of the body that was crushed or compressed for a longer period

125
Q

Converting a tourniquet after 2 hours can cause what?

A

Same symptoms as crush syndrome - rhabdomyolysis

126
Q

What is the treatment for crush syndrome?

A
  1. Agressive fluid resuscitation (2000ml bolus) + 1000ml/hr normal saline
  2. Treat hyperkalemia
127
Q

What are the signs of hyperkalemia?

A
  1. Bradycardia or arrhythmia
  2. Peaked T-waves on ECG
  3. Cardiac arrest…
128
Q

What are the treatments for hyperkalemia?

A
  1. Inhalation of beta-agonist
  2. Glucose 50% + insulin 10 IU
  3. Calcium glutinate 10ml 10%
129
Q

Name the 2 phases of abdominal trauma were the source of bleeding is impossible to locate with precision

A
  1. Early phase (NCTH) Bleeding
  2. Late phase (infection or other complications of the GI-tract)
130
Q

Name the 3 commonly affected organs in blunt abdominal truma

A
  1. Spleen
  2. Liver
  3. Small intestine
131
Q

Name the 4 commonly affected organs or structures in penetrating abdominal trauma

A
  1. Small intestine
  2. Colon
  3. Liver
  4. Abdominal vessels
132
Q

Name the physical findings you might encounter in abdominal trauma during inspection

A
  1. Distention
  2. Contusion
  3. Laceration
  4. Eviceration (organs like intestines falling out of the skin)
133
Q

Name the physical findings you might encounter in abdominal trauma during palpation

A
  1. Tenderness
  2. Abdominal muscle guarding
  3. Rebound tenderness
  4. Signs of pelvic instability
134
Q

What is the purpose of FAST?

A

To examine for free fluids in spaces that there should not be any fluid (in cavities or around organs)

135
Q

Which types of injuries should be immediately evacuated?

A
  1. All pelvic-abdominal penetrating injuries
  2. Blunt trauma with suspected internal bleeding
136
Q

What are the most commonly injured organs in abdominal trauma?

A
  1. Spleen (Kehr’s sign)
  2. Liver (Morrison’s pouch)
  3. Kidney
  4. Pancreas
  5. Small intestine
  6. Large intestine
137
Q

How do you treat evisceration of a bowel?

A
  1. Stop massive haemorrhage if possible
  2. Rinse with water or saline
  3. Cover with plastic
  4. Wrap in bandage
  5. Give ABx
138
Q

What transducer is most commonly used?

A

Phased array

139
Q

What structures appear white, grey and dark on ultrasound?

A

White: Bone, diaphragm, air
Grey: Muscle, liver, kidney
Dark: Fluid, blood, urine

140
Q

The hepatorenal recess is found?

A

In RUQ (right upper quadrant)

141
Q

The splenorenal Recess is found?

A

In LUQ (Left upper quadrant)

142
Q

What space are you looking at when assessing the male pelvis with ultrasound?

A

The vesicorectal space

143
Q

What space are you looking at when assessing the female pelvis with ultrasound?

A

The rectouterine space

144
Q
A

NNSOCM 2023 (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions