Abnormal behaviour Flashcards

Question

What are disadvantages of self-report questionnaires?

Answer 1

o Disadvantages are that they are transparent and easy to cheat on, and impractical for someone who can’t express their symptoms

Answer 2

o Spence Children’s anxiety scale  Child report  Parent report o Direct observation of behaviour  ABC method: antecedents, behaviour, consequences  Checklists, coding schemes o Psychological measurements  Brain scans, heart rate, skin conductance, etc.  None of these are diagnostic: used in research for causes and consequences

Answer 3

• At least 5+ symptoms during a 2 week period (NEED symptom 1 or symptom 2) 1. Depressed mood most the day, nearly every day 2. Markedly diminished pleasure/interest in activities 3. Significant weight loss or weight gain 4. Insomnia or hypersomnia nearly every day 5. Psychomotor agitation or retardation 6. Fatigue or loss of energy nearly every day 7. Feelings of worthlessness and excessive guilt nearly every day 8. Diminished ability to concentrate nearly every day 9. Recurrent thoughts of death, suicide, suicide attempts • Clinically significant distress or impairment • Not attributed to substance use or other medical condition • Affective symptoms: depressed mood, anhedonia • Cognitive symptoms: indecisiveness, lack of concentration • Somatic symptoms: Fatigue, sleep or appetite change

Answer 4

* Under DSM-5, is classed under depressive disorders * Single or recurrent depressive episode, NOT accounted for by other disorders (e.g. schizophrenia) * Recurrent episodes are common

Answer 5

o Criteria A:  At least one week of: • Abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood and • Increased goal directed activity/energy, present nearly daily

Answer 6

 At least 3 or more present to a significant degree and noticeable change from usual behaviour • Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity • Decreased need for sleep • Rapid or pressured speech • Flight of ideas or racing thoughts • Distractibility • Increase in goal-directed activity or psychomotor agitation • Excessive involvement in activities that have a high potential for negative consequences

Answer 7

o Manic episodes typically evolve over several weeks from heightened wellbeing to euphoria o Episodes move quickly from an elated mood to an irritable mood or can fluctuate between elation and irritability o Irritable type manic episode (more common despite popular beliefs about mania) with the elevated/expansive type manic episode

Answer 8

 Sufficiently severe to cause marked impairment in occupational functioning or in usual social activities  OR to necessitate hospitalisation to prevent harm to self or others  OR there are psychotic features (e.g. delusions or hallucinations)

Answer 9

 The symptoms are not due to the direct physiological effects of a substance (e.g. drug or medication) or a general medical condition (e.g. hypothyroidism)

Answer 10

the fact that increased activity or energy was now required (along with mood changes) to meet the criteria for a manic or hypomanic episode

Answer 11

• Bipolar II: Hypomanic episode (DSM-5) o At least 4 days of:  Abnormally and persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood, and  Increased goal directed activity/energy, present nearly daily o 3 or more:  Inflated self-esteem or grandiosity  Decreased need for sleep • Can feel quite rested after small amounts of sleep  More talkative/pressured speech  Flight of ideas; racing thoughts  Distractibility  Increased goal directed activity or psychomotor agitation  Excessive involvement in pleasurable activities which have a potential for negative consequences o Change that is uncharacteristic of the individual o Disturbance and changes are observable by others o Not severe enough to cause marked impairment, or hospitalisation and no psychotic features- people can mostly go about normal activities o Not due to substances/medical condition

Answer 12

Bipolar I: Major depressive episode- can be present but not necessary for diagnosis Manic episode- YES Hypomanic episode- Can be present but not necessary for diagnosis Bipolar II: Major depressive episode- YES Manic episode- No: not seen in this disorder Hypomanic episode: YES

Answer 13

o Chronic, less severe form of bipolar disorder o Numerous cycles of hypomania symptoms and depression symptoms that are not severe enough to meet criteria for a manic or major depressive episode o Symptoms for at least 2 years but no more than 2 months without symptoms o Symptoms cause distress or impairment in functioning

Answer 14

• Bipolar disorders are often: o Undetected/undiagnosed o Over-diagnosed (that is borderline personality disorder) or underdiagnosed  Overdiagnosis could mean inappropriate and excessive use of mood-stabilising medications, as well as insufficient attention paid to the psychological aspects of unipolar depression or the personality disorder o Misdiagnosed as schizophrenia (particularly in men) or unipolar depression(particularly in women)  Bipolar people seem to go to therapist when feeling depressive, not manic  Problem is that they may not respond to anti-depressants given: need mood stability medicine instead  Existence of shared features between these disorders can make their diagnosis challenging o Lack of diagnosis in those with anxiety disorders and substance use disorder • Diagnostic problems have implications for pharmalogical and psychological interventions

Answer 15

• No gender differences for BPI, BPII more common in women

Answer 16

• Onset: peak at 15-25 years (for both genders) o No clear definition as to what the onset is o Tends to be a poorer outcome if the onset occurs in childhood or adolescence o 25% of individuals experience onset by age 17, and median age is 25 o Rare for onset to occur after 30

Answer 17

10-20 years

Answer 18

90% | -Generally occurs over weeks or months rather than a matter of days

Answer 19

o Untreated: 8-10 lifetime episodes of mania and depression

Answer 20

o With treatment: 40% relapsing within 1 year; 73% within 5- years  Treatment minimises impact and episode number  Lithium fully protects on 25-50 % patients against further episodes and there are often problems with gaining compliance from patients in taking their medication

Answer 21

o Bipolar I: 32% of the time depressed; 9% manic/hypomanic

Answer 22

o Bipolar II: 50% of time depressed; 1% hypomanic

Answer 23

o Rapid cycling: 5-15% of sufferers have 4+ episodes (mania, hypomania or depression) within a year  Includes those who recover between episodes and those who switch continually from one polarity to the other

Answer 24

• High rates of co-morbidity: o 50% anxiety disorders (panic, GAD, social phobia)  Anxiety symptoms precede, occur during or follow (hypo)manic symptoms at different rates depending on the type of comorbid disorder  Clear pattern of social phobia preceding (hypo)mania  Anxiety disorders are often treated with antidepressants, which suggests that antidepressants may at times be triggering manic or hypomanic symptoms o 39% substance misuse (coping or self-medication or to enhance the high)

Answer 25

• At least 25% will attempt suicide; 10-20% will complete suicide o Higher rates among individuals with bipolar II disorder compared to those with bipolar I disorder, most likely due to the more frequent episodes of depression in the former compared to the latter

Answer 26

 Lifetime risk for family members of BP patients: 10% (versus 1% in the general population) 1. Bipolar runs in families- 10x higher risk for someone with a bipolar parent to have bipolar disorder  Twin studies: BP heritability rate of around 80-85%

Answer 27

 BP is a neurobiological disorder, largely due to a malfunction of three “reward system” neurotransmitters: serotonin, dopamine and noradrenaline 1. But how much causes and how much is a result of?  BP may lie dormant and be either activated spontaneously or be triggered by (e.g. environmental and life) stressors

Answer 28

 An association between stressful life events and both manic and depressive episodes 1. Manic episodes likely preceded by: o Disruption to routines and sleep-wake cycles o Excessive focus on goal attainment 2. Depressive episodes likely preceded by: o Low social support o Low self-esteem  Individuals with bipolar disorder who experience high levels of stress are four and a half times more likely to have a mood relapse than individuals with low levels of life stress

Answer 29

o A negative cognitive style enhances vulnerability to manic and depressive episodes when paired with stressful life events o Mania may be a defence to counter the negative thoughts and feelings relating to an underlying negative self-esteem o Excessive pursuits of goals may disrupt routines and hence trigger manic or hypomanic episodes in the excessive pursuit of goals o Temperament (ensuring personality traits and characteristics) factors:  Perfectionism  Sociotropy 1. The need to be socially approved  More prevalent in individuals with bipolar disorder than those with depressive disorder

Answer 30

 Goal dysregulation model- theory that manic episodes may be triggered by dysregulated goal pursuit, which entails the person being excessively involved in the pursuit of goals

Answer 31

``` o Diathesis-Stress model  Originally developed for schizophrenia  Holds that psychological disorders result from interactions between underlying vulnerabilities and stressful life events 1. Life stressors: o Causing poor social routines and/or sleep deprivation 2. Biological vulnerability o That is circadian rhythm instability which can affect bipolar people 3. Prodromal stage o Early symptoms of mood disturbance 4. Poor coping strategies 5. Episode o Manic o Hypomanic o Depressive 6. Stigma and Relationship problems o Stigma by others or oneself 7. Cycles once again ```

Answer 32

• Depends on: o Illness stage (acute, maintenance) o Predominant polarity (depressive, hypo/manic)

Answer 33

• Most treatment evidence based on Bipolar I: extrapolated to BPII and others • Best treatment= Pharmacological + (adjunct) Psychological interventions o Found lithium was a good treatment for mania (Cade)  50% of clients respond o Carbamazepine also a good treatment for people who don’t respond to lithium o Lithium and carbamazepine good combination

Answer 34

o Associated with creative groups  17% of a sample of British poets received treatment for manic episodes  Enhanced creativity likely linked to manic/hypomanic states and accompanying suprasensory changes o Famous people with bipolar disorder:  Artists: Gauguin; Van Gough; Pollack  Writers: Lord Byron; Virginia Woolf; Hemingway  Composers: Handel; Schumann • Many people with bipolar disorder identify as creative

Answer 35

• Refers to loss of contact with external reality characterised by: o Impaired perceptions and thought processes • First type of mental illness ‘identified’ in olden days

Answer 36

• Fragmentation of thoughts • Splitting of thoughts from emotions o Disconnect between facial expressions/emotions and thought/speech • Withdrawal from reality

Answer 37

A. Characteristic symptoms: a. Lasts at least 6 months, with at least one month of two (or more) of following and at least one must be (i) ,(ii), or (iii) below: i. Delusions ii. Hallucinations iii. Disorganised speech (formal thought disorder) iv. Grossly disorganized or catatonic behaviour v. Negative symptoms

Answer 38

B. Clinically significant impact to social/occupational functioning (functioning is below that prior to onset of the disorder)

Answer 39

C. Continuous signs of disturbance are present for at least 6 months a. May include a gradual deterioration in functioning b. Must include at least one-month of psychotic symptoms

Answer 40

D. Not better accounted for by other diagnosis

Answer 41

Positive symptoms -Presence of problematic behaviours Negative symptoms -Absence of healthy behaviours

Answer 42

- Hallucinations - Delusions - Formal thought disorder - Behavioural/motor disturbances - Lack of insight on what's happening to them (not really a positive symptom but pretty important nonetheless)

Answer 43

Affective Flattening (a dampening down in the expression of emotion)- - --Social withdrawal - --Anhedonia (Not experiencing pleasure in their life) - --Emotional blunting - --Confusion Avolition (the loss of drive or motivation)- - --Amotivation - --Apathy - --Self-neglect Alogia (a lack of unprompted speech)- - --Poverty of speech - --Poverty of content

Answer 44

Negative symptoms

Answer 45

• Cross-cultural studies: similar forms across societies but cultural differences in content and interpretation o Hearing voices is the same but content different o African/Indian studies- voices are positive and cause less distress o America and Western countries- voices are more hostile or aggressive

Answer 46

• Typical onset in late adolescence and early adulthood (tends to be later for women) o 17-30 years old for males o 20-40 years old for females

Answer 47

* Onset typically preceded by a gradual deterioration in functioning followed by appearance of more acute symptoms * Onset coincides with an often stressful time of life, further complicated by impact of schizophrenia

Answer 48

* Early onset associated with poorer outcomes | * Early treatment associated with better outcomes (yet delay in treatment common)

Answer 49

• Highly variable in presentation and course | o One or more episodes, with periods of normal (or near normal) functioning between episodes

Answer 50

• Chronic condition without full recovery | o Most remain chronically unwell with a deteriorating course

Answer 51

o 50% unable to work, <25% employed | o Social isolation, homelessness, low income and poor health

Answer 52

o 30% of patients attempt suicide; 5-10% complete suicide

Answer 53

o Can function with medication but medication has side effects, or patients don’t feel like they need the medication anymore, or they think it will poison them, so don’t take medication and it worsens

Answer 54

• Premorbid phase- o Cognitive motor or social deficits • Prodromal phase- o Brief/attenuated positive symptoms and/or functional decline o Median time is 2 years before psychotic symptoms o Typically late adolescence and early adulthood • Psychotic/acute phase- o Florid positive symptoms o Usually one year delay between this and looking for treatment • Recovery phase: o Negative symptoms, cognitive/ social deficits, functional decline if treatment fails o Risk of further episodes of psychosis remains high during the first 2-5 years after treatment is commenced  In approximately 80-90% of these cases, relapse will occur during this period o Relapse can often occur by ditching medication, abusing substances or coming back to overly protective/criticizing families

Answer 55

``` Good premorbid functioning Acute onset Later age of onset (females) Precipitating event (e.g. drug induced psychosis) Low substance use Brief active phase Absence of structural brain abnormalities No family history of schizophrenia ```

Answer 56

``` Poor premorbid functioning Slow insidious onset Prominent negative symptoms Long duration of untreated psychosis Slower or less complete recovery Lower socioeconomic class Migrant status Poor social support network ```

Answer 57

o Depression o Anxiety and trauma-related problems o Substance misuse

Answer 58

 Degree of risk related to a degree of heritability  The risk of developing schizophrenia increases as the degree of genetic relatedness with an affected individual increases • Determine susceptibility  disorder triggered by other factors o 7% siblings o 9% for children of 1 affected parent o 46% for children with 2 affected parents  Twin studies concordance rates: • 12% for DZ twins • 44% for MZ twins  Adoption studies: • 19% for children of biological parents with schizophrenia • 10% for children of biological parents with no schizophrenia

Answer 59

Overproduction or oversensitivity of dopamine receptors (especially D-2 receptors)

Answer 60

• Treatment for Parkinson’s disorder: o L-DOPA (increases dopamine concentration) can induce psychotic symptoms • Amphetamine (against dopamine) psychosis: o Abnormally large responses to low amphetamine doses suggests over-sensitivity rather than excessive dopamine level o Amphetamines, which cause the release of dopamine, can produce symptoms of schizophrenia • Response to anti-dopaminergic medication (e.g. chlorpromazine and haloperidol which block dopamine receptors, or new clozapine drug which blocks 5-HT receptors) o Effective in 60% with more impact on positive symptoms

Answer 61

Dopamine activity, specifically increased dopamine levels (but there are problems with this theory- increased dopamine levels not found in patient's brains) and with increased sensitivity to dopamine (more probable) - ---Still issues with this theory - Responds well to treament and medication - Fluctuating course with periods of remission

Answer 62

Brain degeneration - Responds poorly to drugs - Chronic course with little improvement

Answer 63

 Most consistent finding: • Enlarged ventricles in schizophrenia (post-mortem; CT scans: MRI studies) o Relative size more than twice that of normal controls • Most likely cause is loss of brain tissue; scans indicate chronic schizophrenia is associated with brain abnormalities  Loss of brain tissue tissue in pre-frontal cortex • Linked to negative symptoms: damage to executive functioning/cognitive abilities  Non-genetic structural brain abnormalities appear to: • Predate onset of psychosis • Worsen with progressive illness • Deficit in brain matter incre ases with number of episodes • Schizophrenia as a degenerative brain disorder • Structural changes in the hippocampus appear to predate the onset of psychosis (smaller hippocampus in those without high risk) • Psychosis related to disturbances in the Hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis o Environmental factors affect the HPA axis o Genes associated with the risk of schizophrenia contribute to dysfunctional HPA axis activity o Important biological system in the physiological response to stress

Answer 64

```  Antenatal complications  Viral infections  Nutrition  Urban birth  Seasonal variation --Winter/early spring birth more likely to have schizophrenia because of decreased levels of vitamin D  Increased paternal age ```

Answer 65

```  Child abuse/trauma  Social stresses  Urban upbringing  Migration  Discrimination ```

Answer 66

 Dysfunctional cognitions  Amphetamine  Cannabis

Answer 67

 Idiopathic stress  Social/educational/work stresses  Interpretation of culturally unacceptable intrusive thoughts (e.g. someone is controlling my thoughts vs I must be tired) • Result of faulty knowledge about the self and others resultant from bad life experiences • Encouragement of behaviours that encourage other intrusive thoughts

Answer 68

 Relapse |  Substance abuse

Answer 69

o Primary intervention o 60% of clients with positive symptoms respond o 10-20% do not show symptom improvement in response to medication o Relapse rates high with 40% relapsing within one year o Medication non-compliance common, given common side effects o Antipsychotic medication o Mood stabilisers and antidepressants o Benzodiazepines to assist in sleep and reduce anxiety

Answer 70

o Need to be tailored to the stage of illness o Important to work from the patient perspective o Designed to target specific deficits or therapy goals:  Social skills training for interpersonal deficits  Group based interventions  Medication compliance  Stress management  Managing and reducing residual delusions/hallucinations • Systematic review and meta-analysis: o 53 RCTs evaluation 7 psychological interventions  N=4,068 participants, moderately ill at baseline, receiving antipsychotics + psych therapy  CBT reduced positive symptoms more than • Inactive control • Treatment as usual • Supportive therapy  CBT reduces reslapse  CBT good for reducing the transition to psychosis for individuals at high risk of developing a first episode of psychosis

Answer 71

• Need to have more facilities for mental health and make CBT and other forms of treatment more available, as well as reduce stigma about psychosis

Answer 72

Polygenetic

Answer 73

• A drug/substance is any substance that exerts an effect on body or mind (prescription, legal and illicit)

Answer 74

``` • Effect may be: o Neurophysiological  Respiratory, tachycardia, dilatation o Behavioural  Sedated, aggressive o Emotional  Excitement, confidence o Cognitive  Impaired judgement and memory ```

Answer 75

o Depressant (downers)  Alcohol, barbiturates, inhalants, benzodiazepines, sedatives o Stimulants (uppers)  Cocaine, amphetamines, caffeine, nicotine, MDA (ecstasy) o Hallucinogen (altered perceptions)  Mescaline, LSD, psilocybin o Opioid/narcotics (analgesia)  Morphine, heroine, codeine, methadone o Cannabinoids  Marijuana, hash, ganja o Tobacco, steroids, volatile solvents, prescription drugs

Answer 76

• Intravenous o Rapid and controlled pathway o Fastest activity • Inhalation o Substance goes through lungs, blood and then brain • Oral o Substance goes through stomach, where enzymes break it down: takes longer

Answer 77

• Drugs can be viewed as neutral substances, but are restricted/banned due to their impacts (such as their harmful and addictive effects, which were discovered over time) • Value judgement (depending on use and effects) determine if they become illicit vs not illicit o Alcohol is socially acceptable in moderation  Although harmful, its history would make it hard to ban o Cigarettes are legal despite having no beneficial effects o Prescription drugs are accepted but can be abused o Illicit drugs- have varied social/legal condemnation

Answer 78

associated with physical symptoms of tolerance and withdrawal on cessation (need)

Answer 79

cravings/desire leading to repetitive (compulsive) use (want)

Answer 80

``` o DSM-IV  Substance dependence  Substance abuse o DSM5  Substance-related and addictive disorder • Substance use disorders • Substance induced disorders  Non-substance-related behavioural addictions • Gambling ```

Answer 81

``` separate classes of drugs: o Alcohol o Caffeine (substance use disorder does not apply to caffeine) o Cannabis o Hallucinogens o Inhalants o Opioids o Sedatives, hypnotics or anxiolytics o Stimulants o Tobacco ```

Answer 82

o Tobacco • Criteria A for DSM-5 substance related disorders: Individual must have at least 2 of the following symptoms within a 12-month period, which have resulted in clinically significant distress or impairment, to be diagnosed with a substance use disorder o Larger amounts of the substance are consumed than the individual intended o There is a persistent desire, or unsuccessful attempts, to reduce substance use o A large amount of time is spent obtaining, using or recovering from the effects of the substance o The individual experiences a failure to fulfil major role expectations due to recurrent substance use o Ther eis continued substance use even though it results in social or interpersonal difficulties o Substance use interferes with the individual’s ability to engage in social or occupational activities, so that these activities are reduced or cease entirely o Substance use occurs in situations where it is physically hazardous o There is continued use of the substance even though the individual is aware of the problems caused by the substance o Tolerance is present, as evident by either:  A need for increased amounts of the substance in order to achieve the same effect  A markedly diminished effect for the same amount of the substance o Withdrawal is present, as evident by either  A range of characteristic physical and psychological symptoms that emerge after a cessation or reduction in substance use  Taking the substance (or a closely related substance) in order to alleviate these symptoms

Answer 83

o 60% of substance users have a co-morbid psychiatric disorder  Compared to general population: • Patients with mood/anxiety disorders twice as likely to suffer substance disorder • Patients with substance disorders twice as likely to suffer a mood/anxiety  This could be due to: • Overlapping genetic vulnerabilities • Overlapping environmental triggers • Involvement of similar brain regions • Interactive effect: drug/other disorders can increase vulnerability to the other

Answer 84

• Among 12+ years old for past 30-day illicit drug use trends, cocaine and marijuana use are going up, but nonmedical use of psychotherapeutics, hallucinogens, binge alcohol use and illicit drugs is staying stable

Answer 85

• For substance use, peak substance use is between 20-30 years old, then it goes back down again (downward hyperbola trend)

Answer 86

o Disease model of addiction- describes addiction as a medical disorder characterised by some form of brain impairment

Answer 87

o Choice theory- the apparent loss of control seen in those with a substance use disorder as a consequence of individuals changing their minds

Answer 88

• Strong genetic component to substance disorders (found from twin research) • Monozygotic twins show higher concordance rates for: o Alcohol, cannabis, tobacco o Stimulants o Hallucinogens, opioids o Sedatives • Likely that the genetic basis for substance dependence is largely non-specific, rather than unique to specific substances

Answer 89

• 70% of people who meet addiction give up on their own volition

Answer 90

``` • Procedure o Assessment o Evidence-based treatment o Substance use monitoring o Clinical and case management o Recovery support programs o Continuing care ```

Answer 91

``` o Vocational services o Mental health services o Family services o Legal services o HIV/AIDS services o Educational services o Medical services ```

Answer 92

o No single treatment is appropriate o Treatment needs to be readily available and accessible o Effective treatment involves and attends to multiple psychological, medical and social interventions and needs  CBT  Naloxone  Antabuse  Methadone  Peer support  Aversive conditioning o Dual diagnosed clients should have both disorders treated in an integrated fashion o Treatment does not need to be voluntary to effect change o Recovery from drug addiction can be a long term process and frequently requires multiple episodes of treatment

Answer 93

o Maladaptive behaviour patterns o Skills deficits+ resilience training o Motivational and cognitive barriers to change  Identify high risk situations and events (e.g. people, places, affect) and deduce likelihood that these events are encountered (providing alternative activities)  Target cognitive distortions enhancing likelihood of drug use (e.g. rationalising use or giving up on giving up

Answer 94

- Physical system - Cognitive system - Behavioural system

Answer 95

 Fight/flight response  Mobilises resources to deal with the threat- releases adrenaline which initiates bodily changes • Less saliva-dry mouth • Breathing rate speeds up. Nostrils and air passages in lungs open wider to get in air more quickly • Digestion slows down • Liver releases sugar to provide quick energy • Sphincter muscles contract to close openings of bowel and bladder • Immune responses decrease- useful in short-term to allow massive response to immediate threat- harmful over long • Muscles tense- ready for action • Blood is diverted to the muscles • Sweating increases to help cool the body • Heart beat speed up. Blood pressure rises • Blood clotting ability increases, preparing for possible injury

Answer 96

 Perception of threat  Attentional shift and hypervigilance on perceived threat  Difficulty concentrating on other information/situations

Answer 97

 Escape or avoidance  Aggression or freezing • Least safe option

Answer 98

o True alarms- when fear occurs in response to direct danger o False alarms- fight or flight response occurs in situations that do not represent an immediate physical threat- false alarms are the hallmark of anxiety disorders

Answer 99

 Individuals differ in terms of the ease with which the alarm reaction is triggered: triple vulnerability includes • Biological factors o Inherit predisposition towards anxiety and depressive disorders- the general neurotic syndrome • Generalised psychological factors o Beliefs that the world is a dangerous place o Events are beyond one’s control • Specific psychological factors o Specific to particular objects or situations and include factors that influence the expectation of a negative outcome when confronted with a specific object or event – generalises to other objects/events with similar features

Answer 100

* Tendency to experience negative affect from positive affect and arousability of the autonomic nervous system * Negative affectivity- subjective distress * Positive affectivity- happy and enthusiastic

Answer 101

- Tendency to perceive threat in ambiguous situations | - Extent to which anxiety response is activated

Answer 102

o Anxiety is on a continuum o Not qualitatively different from normal anxiety o Same (physical, cognitive and behavioural) systems activated, but marked by excessive or inappropriate occurrence, characterised by overestimation of perceived cost/likelihood of a threat  Defines where you are on anxiety scale o Arise when the frequency and intensity of anxiety interferes with the person’s functioning/causes distress o Avoidance maintains and exacerbates anxiety

Answer 103

o In DSM, anxiety disorders characterised according to focus of anxiety and what they try to avoid

Answer 104

DSM-IV Anxiety disorders Seperation Anxiety Disorder ``` Specific Phobia Social Phobia Generalised Anxiety disorder Panic Disorder Panic disorder with agoraphobia Acute stress disorder Posttraumatic stress disorder Obsessive compulsive Disorder ``` ``` DSM-V anxiety disorders Seperation Anxiety Disorder Selective Mutism Specific phobia Social anxiety disorder Generalised anxiety disorder Panic Disorder Agoraphobia ```

Answer 105

* Posttraumatic stress disorder * Acute stress disorder * Adjustment disorders * Reactive attachment disorder * Disinhibited social engagement disorder

Answer 106

* Obsessive-compulsive disorder * Hoarding disorder * Trichotillomania (hair pulling disorder) * Excoriation (skin-picking disorder) disorder * Body dysmorphic disorder

Answer 107

: Marked fear or anxiety about one or more social situations in which the person is exposed to possible scrutiny by others e.g. social interactions, being observed, performing in front of others

Answer 108

The individual fears that he or she will act in a way or show anxiety symptoms that will be negatively evaluated (that is, will be humiliating or embarrassing; will lead to rejection or offend others)

Answer 109

The social situations almost always provoke fear or anxiety

Answer 110

The social situations are avoided or endured with intense fear/anxiety

Answer 111

The fear or anxiety is out of proportion to the actual threat posed by the social situation and to the sociocultural context

Answer 112

o Is persistent, typically lasting for 6 months or more  Flexible with specifying time- can diagnose those with social anxiety disorder with times for less than 6 months o Cause clinically significant distress or impairment in social, occupational or other important areas of functioning  If does not affect their lives, does not get diagnosis o Is not attributable to the physiological effects of a substance or another medical condition o Is not better explained by symptoms or another mental disorder, such as panic disorder, body dysmorphic disorder or autism spectrum disorder  Distinguish what person is fearing and avoiding  Body dysmorphic- avoidance because impression that one of their body parts is horribly wrong o If another medical condition (obesity, disfigurement from burns or injury) is present the fear, anxiety or avoidance is clearly unrelated or is excessive  Clinical judgement is involved

Answer 113

o Performance only  Socially anxious only when they perform in public but completely fine in social situation  Fear restricted to speaking/performing in public  Impacts actors or musicians

Answer 114

o Lower rate in European and Asian countries  In some countries (Japan, Korea…), people are not as much afraid of negative evaluation by others, but fear they are offensive to others  In cultures that are highly collectivistic, there seem to be more social anxiety in the general population- people seem to judge each other more but less prevalence in terms of anxiety disorders-symptoms are not clinical: high social anxiety but not social anxiety disorder

Answer 115

o In the general population: 1.5 higher in women o In clinical samples: gender rates are equal  Men seek treatment more often than women if they are socially anxious  Depends on culturally accepted gender roles  Less acceptable for men to be socially anxious than women in cultural

Answer 116

o Childhood or adolescence  75% will develop the disorder between the age of 8 years old and 15 years old  Might have high levels of shyness until it increases to become social anxiety disorder  Others: the disorder might trigger from traumatic experiences such as being bullied, rejected… o Not very common to develop disorder in adulthood  Would be due to crisis or traumatic situation

Answer 117

o Chronic without treatment o About 10% of people will recover within a year without any treatment o About 30% will be better by themselves within 2 years o About 60% will remain chronically anxious for most of their lives

Answer 118

o Only 50% seek treatment (20 years after the onset of symptoms- delayed treatment)  Difficult to seek treatment as embarrassment about symptoms

Answer 119

o Women tend to have more:  Other anxiety disorders  Depression o Men tend to have more:  Substance use (alcohol to cope with it better)  Avoidant personality disorder o But both genders can experience all of them

Answer 120

• Genetic vulnerability- 2 to 3 fold increased risk of social anxiety disorder among the relatives of people with the disorder

Answer 121

• Pyshosocial factors- excessive parental criticism may reduce child’s confidence, or child could learn from his/her parents and be overly concerned with the opinions of others

Answer 122

• Expectation of entering social situation will trigger assumptions or long-standing beliefs that the person holds. Four different types of beliefs o Excessively high standards on themselves o Conditional beliefs about consequences of social performance -very negative expectations of what’s going to happen o Unconditional beliefs about self  Conditional beliefs will enhance the fact that you will make a mistake if you have the unconditional beliefs about self o Lead to perceived danger • All this will cause anxiety o Symptoms will start triggering • Interpret ambiguous social cues as signs of negative evaluation with expectation that it will go badly • Attention shifts to the self o Interpret internal cues as signs of how they are being seen by others o Hypervigilant to signs of anxiety o More you pay attention to yourself, the more anxious you get • Safety behaviours o Keep yourself safe to avoid negative behaviours o Hide signs of anxiety o Don’t make eye contact o Speak very quietly- don’t draw attention to yourself o Do not show signs of weakness  People can come across as cold and aloof  So people will not be friendly back- fears will be confirmed o Safety behaviours backfire o Interferes with ability to participate with conversation or look at social cues • Increase self-focused attention • Increase anxiety symptoms • Interfere with social performance • Confirm social fears

Answer 123

``` o Anticipatory processing o Imagine/review what might happen  Anxiety  Avoid social event or enter in self-focussed processing mode o People will remember when I stuff up ```

Answer 124

o Remember negative aspects of the social situation  Sense of shame  Evaluating themselves with negative judgment  What they should have done differently  Everyone is talking about them/laughing about them o Remember similar past failures  Negative beliefs strengthened  Person is hopeless and can’t do this  Irrational about how much they might have offended the person/make them look stupid o Increase/maintain anxiety

Answer 125

``` • Cognitive behavioural therapy (CBT) o First line evidence-based treatment o Aim: to reduce negatively biased threat appraisal  Reduce likelihood of negative event  Reduce cost of negative event  Increase exposure to event • Psycho-education • Cognitive techniques • Behavioural techniques • Reducing safety behaviours • Attention training • Video feedback • Exposure tasks with cognitive rationale • Often carried out in group settings • About 2/3 achieve substantial improvement ```

Answer 126

• Biological approach- focus on genetic, hormonal, and neurochemical explanations of behaviour

Answer 127

innate drives of sex and aggression (nature). Social upbringing during childhood (nurture)

Answer 128

Innate mental structures such as schemas, perception and memory and constantly changed by the environment

Answer 129

Maslow emphasized basic physical needs. Society influences a person’s self concept

Answer 130

all behaviour is learned from the environment through conditioning

Answer 131

o Dominant model in clinical psychology research and clinical practice  What we think influences how we feel and what we do o Maladjustment: latent core negative beliefs (Aaron Back)  Guide our understanding of the world  Interpretations of experiences are consistent with our core beliefs  Cognitive distortions/biases (e.g. overgeneralisations, selective attention, catastrophising, black and white thinking etc.)  Automatic negative thoughts o Treatment:  Cognitive restructuring • Challenging content of thinking  Exposure  Behavioural experiments

Answer 132

 Modern (third wave) CBT and evidence based therapy A wider range of approaches from humanistic, existential, analytic and spiritual traditions • But should not practise just one thing because of different patients and different presentations of disorders  CBT’s focus on the content of symptoms changed to a process- based therapy  change from WHAT people think about to HOW people think  Symptom/syndromal/psychopathology focus weakens  Focus on a process

Answer 133

- Mindfulness based cognitive therapy - Acceptance commitment therapy - Dialectic behavioural therapy

Answer 134

o Mental events o Don’t have to grab thoughts and make them feel like they are reality o Observe and distance yourself from thoughts/emotions o Don’t judge or identify them o Effective for reducing frequency of depressive relapses o Good for emotional regulation which is good for borderline personality disorder

Answer 135

o Assumes person is uncomfortable with negative and painful feelings o Try to tolerate feeling- feeling is temporary and necessary – it is just a feeling/thought o Do something despite the uncomfortable feeling o Psychological flexibility- being present, open, doing what matters to you o Contact with the present moment o Chosen values- Chosen values of a person and what can guide their behaviours  Commitment to values o Committed action- Effective mental and physical actions guided by values o Self as context- Observing self, pure awareness of thoughts, behaviours, moods o Thought defusion- observing thoughts as they come and go without attaching meaning or judgment, detaching from thoughts o Acceptance/willingness- open to whatever comes

Answer 136

• Important to tailor psychotherapy components to the person o Different types of clients require different treatments/relationships o Applying an identical psychosocial treatment for all patients is inappropriate and perhaps even unethical  Want to personalise and treat holistically

Answer 137

• Clinical training programs now have to include training in evidence-based therapies to be accredited

Answer 138

o The drive to identify evidence-based treatments is a relatively new idea  previously, client report was sufficient  Psychiatrists thought it was enough to see if therapy was effective if person had positive feedback, but would not look at dropout rate or worsening o Need for evidence-based treatment is due to a need for accountability: social/economic (third party payers) want to know that what they’re paying for is worth it and ethical accountability o Patient care can be enhanced by acquisition and use of up-to-date empirical knowledge o It is difficult for clinicians to keep up with newly emerging information pertinent to their practice o If do not keep up with newly emerging information, their knowledge and clinical performance will deteriorate over the years after their training o Clinicians need summaries of evidence provided by expert reviews and instructions on how to access this information during their routine practice

Answer 139

• Study: Hans Eysenck o People receiving psychotherapy are not better (could be worse off) than no treatment o People recovered by themselves in about 2 years and found that therapy didn’t really help for everyone o Predominant theory during this time was psychoanalysis

Answer 140

o Recent studies suggest that treatment is better than no treatment o But little or no specific effect when comparing two different treatments o Nonspecific factors could be responsible for this treatment effect, such as:  Client motivation and hope  Therapist empathy, general counselling skills  Therapist-client alliance • Have someone on their side o Need for placebo control groups which would reflect those general factors and there is a lack of power in study designs (hard to conduct clinical studies with patients that are not feeling well)  Hard to get large sample sizes in these studies

Answer 141

 At least two good between-group design experiments (Randomised controlled trials-RTCs) must demonstrate that the treatment is superior to: • Placebo pill • Psychotherapy placebo o Needs to account for general effects- type of therapy that has the same duration, counselling aspect, validation and normalization of what person is feeling o What’s missing is the activate component of therapy that is being tested • Other treatment  OR equivalent to an already established treatment (with adequate sample sizes) o Set by APA task force on promotion and dissemination of psychological procedures

Answer 142

o Random allocation of participants to treatment groups o Blind or double-blind design o Experiments must be conducted with treatment manuals or clear description of treatment enables precise replication o Characteristics of samples must be specified  Diagnoses, exclusion criteria etc (DSM)  Exclusion of comorbidity or not specification o Characteristics of therapists must be specified o Effects must be demonstrate by at least two different investigators or teams- to rule out experimenter bias

Answer 143

o At least 2 experiments show that the treatment is superior to the waiting list control group (rather than placebo control) o OR meets well-established criteria but experiments not carried out by 2 different teams

Answer 144

• Experimental treatments (emerging treatments) are those not yet tested in RTCs with adequate methodology o E.g. not randomised, pre-post only, not manualised

Answer 145

• EST findings will be: o Misused by managed care companies to disenfranchise practitioners of psychotherapies that are not so designated o Will make these same practitioners more vulnerable to malpractice suits o Will restrict practice to a limited number of treatments, thus precluding flexibility and clinical innovation • Reliance on DSM to describe samples • Reliance on treatment manuals • Reliance on randomised control trials

Answer 146

o Diagnosis is dehumanising o DSM medical model is not appropriate but need to evaluate generalisability somehow o Clarity of the criteria and methods for reaching decisions vague

Answer 147

o Reduces treatment quality: treatment should be designed for individual cases but there is no data supporting this contention (no evidence that they don’t work)  Tailoring more relevant for complex disorders o Limits generalisability: clinicians don’t normally use treatment manuals but may they should

Answer 148

o Advantage for CBTs  CBT is structured  Measurable  Observable o Findings are unlikely to generalise to ordinary treatment settings  strongest argument against evidence-based research findings  Efficacy vs effectiveness (internal vs external validity)  Treatment not necessarily equally effective if used in: • Private practise, community mental health settings or unselected client base o Ecological validity is an issue o Some evidence for external validity, but effects sizes are often lower  Are working in real life, but not to same extent as clinical trials o More research is needed

Answer 149

* Differ in approaches to understanding and treating mental illness, each having different but complementary skills  holistic treatment/support * May work independently or as part of a multi-disciplinary team

Answer 150

• Empathy and genuine concern: active listening and reflection o Builds an open and trusting rapport with client/patient • Appropriate boundaries: maintaining appropriate personal distance • Trustworthiness: confidentiality emphasised (exceptions explained) • Patience: guiding the client in the process of self-discovery • Solid ethical core: openness, honestly, transparency • Cross-cultural sensitivity: self-awareness and commitment to diversity • Scientist-practitioner: commitment and passion for a life-long learning o Provides individualised/tailored psychotherapy

Answer 151

Animals are given the opportunity to engage in two or more responses that are reinforced according to separate schedules that are running at the same time

Answer 152

* Rate of behaviour- B * Rate of reinforcement- R * Slope constant-K * B=kR

Answer 153

• We have two behaviours performed at different rates o B1, B2 • Relative rate of responding of B1 is: B1/ (B1+ B2)

Answer 154

* The behaviours are reinforced given at different rates- R1, R2 * The relative rate of reinforcing of R1 is: R1/(R1+R2)

Answer 155

• B1/B2= R1/R2 • B1/(B1+B2) = R1/(R1+R2) o Matching law  Describes the choice in concurrent schedules of reinforcement o The distribution of behaviour can be predicted by the history of the distribution of reinforcement o Change relative rates of behaviour by changing relative rate of reward

Answer 156

* T1 and T2- schedules | * T1/T2=R1/R2

Answer 157

* V1 and V2- values | * B1/B2= V1/V2

Answer 158

• Animals might choose to respond on one alternative or the other on a moment-to-moment basis so as to maximise the momentary rate of reinforcement • Animals choose in a way that somehow maximises the overall rate of reinforcement In the whole session • Animals might keep shifting between the alternatives so as to always improve the local rate of reinforcement o Melioration- stop shifting between alternatives when the two local rates of reinforcement are equal

Answer 159

* Sometimes, animals overmatch so that B1/B2 is consistently a little greater than R1/R2 * Other times, animals undermatch and B1/B2 is a little less than R1/R2

Answer 160

• Madsen et.al o Reinforce alternate behaviour o More kids out of their chairs when the teacher yelled sit down o Artistic work in a book instead of going out of chairs- praised them for working  Kids praised for alternative behaviour to being out of chair and running around  Doesn’t introduce aggression in the situation • Change relative rate of behaviour by reinforcing other behaviours instead

Answer 161

• If your situation in some part influences your behaviour, then modifying your environment will modify your future behaviour: o Behaviours that alter future behaviours  Stimulus control (e.g. studying)  Distraction (ignoring easy options)  Precommittment  Self-reinforcement (reward self for achieving targets)

Answer 162

o Delaying immediate gratification for a bigger longer-term reward

Answer 163

o Forgoing a larger long-term reward for immediate gratification

Answer 164

• A more immediate but smaller reward can have a larger subjective reward value at the time of choice, than a delayed but larger reward o But increase the time until choice, and the subjective value of the smaller reward decays as well to a level that’s below the more valuable delayed reward • But when the average choice-to-reward delay is relatively short, choose the smaller, more immediate reward. When the choice-to-reward delay is relatively long, choose the larger, more delayd reward

Answer 165

• Risk of losing reward o For each period of time (Delay,D) there is a risk (r ) that the reward (A) may be lost. This risk is compounded for each period of time o This predicts an exponential curve for the present value of a delayed reward to be B=Ae(-rD) o However, behavioural data does not fit this but better fits a hyperbolic function -devaluation curve  Subjective decay in value o Intertemporal choice- immediate gratifications vs holding out for something in the future • Expected transaction costs o More effort to come back for reward later when there is one right in front of you • Concave utility effects on reward o Rewards have subjective value depending on how much the person has of that reward if have a lot of that reward, increased amount will be needed to be meaningful. If have little of that reward in the first place, even a small amount of reward will be motivating

Answer 166

* Make the immediate rewards less obvious * Distraction from the immediate rewards * Delay the immediate reward too * Make the longer term rewards or risks more salient * Exercise

Answer 167

• Iyengar and Lepper o If given a choice between 6 jams or a choice between 24 jams:  6 choices: 40% stopped at booth, 30% bought  24 choices: 60% stopped at booth, 3% bought o If given a choice between 6 essay topics or 24 essay topics for extra credit:  6 choices: 74% completed the essay  24 choices: 60% completed  Limited choices essays were better technically and intellectually o No-choice, limited choice, wide choice of chocolates:  Frustration: Wide choice > limited choice  Satisfaction of chocolate: limited choice >wide choice > no choice  Purchasing: Limited choice (48%) > wide choice (12%) = no choice (10%)

Answer 168

o Escalation of expectations o Regret and anticipated regret with choice o Opportunity cost o Self-blame

Answer 169

 Watts Et.Al. • Replicated marshmallow test (where have one marshmallow in front of you and if wait for a bit get 2 marshmallows) • Accounted for socioeconomic status • Found that self-control vs impulse of a person was largely controlled by their environment

Answer 170

* Changeable across individuals * Current smokers underestimate subjective values of future rewards  more immediate reward choosing * Smokers who quit have the same level of immediate vs delayed reward choosing than people who’ve never smoked, which is more delayed reward choosing than current smokers

Answer 171

• Matching structure and functions of the brain to psychological processes: o Experimental neuropsychology aims to match behaviour, mood and cognition to brain functioning o Clinical neuropsychology aims to understand, assess, treat psychological disorders with reference to abnormal brain functioning

Answer 172

o Largely concerned with neural physiology

Answer 173

o Seeks to understand psychological processes at different levels of explanation

Answer 174

o Effects of drugs on mood and thinking

Answer 175

o Gall o Brain consists of many mental organs, each dedicated to particular mental function o Hypothesis:  If used a lot, that part of the brain becomes bigger  Should read bumps on head to see which sections of the brain are more developed  Skull shifts to accommodate for this  However, the part of the brain does not get bigger, and there was no evidence for this so it was scrapped

Answer 176

```  Form  Size  Weight  Colour  Arithmetic calculation  Locality (topographic learning and memory)  Eventuality (memory for facts)  Time  Music  Language ```

Answer 177

• Three main sources of evidence that function can be localised to structures include: o The effect of accidental (via disease or injury) or experimental lesions on psychological functions o Psychological effects of stimulation o Recording neural activity while doing tasks

Answer 178

o Lesions in brain can cause rapid and psychological change o Localisation of language by lesions (Broca and Wernicke)  Broca and Wernicke’s aphasia • Broca’s patient was Mr Tan • Wernicke- patient can’t understand what is being said to him o Fluent in producing speech but speech has no meaning o Where temporal lobe joins the parietal lobe • Broca’s aphasia- can’t say what they want to say o Damage in left prefrontal cortex

Answer 179

o Experimentally induced lesions- animals  Chemically induce lesions in brains and examine the effect on function  Requires multiple tests to delineate function of the region  Can repeat among individuals  Can use specific types of techniques for lesions  More accurate as choose where lesion is – more experimental control

Answer 180

o Kobinian Brodmann  Used the Nissl method of staining to look for the fine structure of the brain  Allowed him to see that the brain is organised into morphologically and structurally distinct regions where the cell shapes and sizes differ from each other  Mapped these regions and divided the cortex into structurally distinct regions

Answer 181

o Mapping anatomically distinct regions of the brain- modern atlases  Brains stained with dye  Fine grained map of all regions  Can look at types of neurons and chemoarchitecture

Answer 182

* Great spatial and temporal acuity * Requires surgery * Placed on cortex of person’s brain, then connected to computer which finds signals * Recording activity whilst people are doing/thinking about things

Answer 183

* Great temporal acuity, poor spatial accuracy * Read surface activity of brain- can see localisation of activity * Can only measure activity below skull * Millisecond accuracy

Answer 184

 uses magnetic fields and radio waves to produce high quality images of brain structures  Does not use ionizing radiation (X rays) or radioactive tracers  Excellent resolution of 2-3 mm

Answer 185

 Measures the real-time response of oxygen in the blood stream (different response when bound to haemoglobin) in response to stimuli/tasks, then superimposes that information onto an MRI  Typically requires a rest period (for control), then a task • When there is an increase in activity during task, that part of the brain is used in the task  Can see where brain is doing work by migration of oxygen  Takes 20-30 seconds for whole brain scan  Poor spatial and very poor temporal resolution  Voxels by voxels analysis for graph • Increasing error rate in making poor rejection of null hypothesis because of low power

Answer 186

 Measures emissions from radioactively labelled chemicals injected into the bloodstream • Can see where tracers go in the body  Different compounds can show different things  Tasks must be very short because of decay  Good idea about processes going on in brain- types of neurochemical processes depending on radiolabels we use  Very poor spatial and temporal resolution

Answer 187

 Measurement of the magnetic fields produced by electrical activity in the brain  Excellent temporal resolution • Millisecond accuracy  Poor spatial resolution  Unlike EEG (electrical) skull does not impede measurement

Answer 188

Atlantic salmon --Said to react to pictures of humans but it was dead --Found some activity due to chance Shows: -Poor choice of control tasks, leading to poor conclusions -Too little statistical power means that chance results are accepted too readily -Correlational data

Answer 189

Problem determining which particular function(s) have been changed: - -Accidental lesions: - ----Little data on pre-accident functioning of the individual - ----Most detailed neuroanatomy in humans can only be done post-mortem: brain can change a lot in the meantime - -Experimental lesions - ----Usually done in animals, so functional testing is more limited - ----Problem of determining if structures are homologous with humans

Answer 190

- ----Spatial resolution is not as clear as post-mortem analysis - ----Correlational data

Answer 191

- Lesions - Cytoarchitectonics and advances in neuroanatomy - Measuring neural activity - Neuroimaging

Answer 192

• Montreal procedure- Penfield: would ablate part of the brain responsible for epileptic features o Stimulated brain to make sure he didn’t take out anything important and asked the person what they were feeling

Answer 193

- Plasticity in the cortex and developmental effects - Redundancy and pleiotropy - Mass effects and network connectivity of structures - Context-dependent effects

Answer 194

 Brain changes as you age  Changes in one part of the brain can have downstream/compensatory effects in other parts of brain, especially at key developmental stages  If one area of the brain is damaged, the functions can be remapped onto new parts of the brain • Blind people use the visual cortex to discriminate Braille, but there’s a critical period for an increase in visual cortex activity. o Tends to occur in people who were blind from birth or young • TMS of the visual cortex produces phosphenes in sighted people and paraesthesia in the fingers of blind Braille readers o Ptito-  Draw what phosphenes looked like- different mapping in brain  Did same things with people in Braille- variation in remapping

Answer 195

multiple parts of the brain can do similar functions e.g. memory

Answer 196

one part of the brain can have multiple functions

Answer 197

 Functions may require a network of regions correlating activity with each other in a specific way  Degrading single nodes of the network does not necessarily reduce the function of the whole network

Answer 198

• Karl Lashley o Mass action:  If cortical tissue is destroyed following the learning of a complex task, deterioration of performance on the task is determined more by the amount of tissue destroyed than by its location  Experiences are distributed across the brain, so damage to specific part of the brain won’t affect it-damage has to be mass effect

Answer 199

 One part of the cortex can take over the function of another part

Answer 200

 Diffusion tensor imaging- imaging white matter connectivity • Damage may be to the connections between regions • Measure flow of water through brain • Mathematically model synaptic regions

Answer 201

 Network analysis- the default mode network • Functional correlations in activity between connected regions may be affected • Default thought network in brain can predict different pathologies

Answer 202

 The context can influence how a region of the brain functions during a given activity  The background emotional state can influence how regions of the brain respond to stimuli

Answer 203

• A college within the Australian Psychological Society o Most practitioners work within health service teams in hospitals or private practice o Provide advice on assessment, diagnosis, treatment and rehabilitation o Research into the neural basis of psychological functions

Answer 204

 Diagnosis, patient care and its planning, treatment planning, treatment evaluation, research and forensic neuropsychology

Answer 205

* How has the person changed from previous function? | * Is the person declining across longitudinal assessments?

Answer 206

• How is the person’s function compared to their peers in standardised tests?

Answer 207

 History taking in a clinical interview  Selection of the appropriate tests  Report writing for clinicians, the client, their family or carers

Answer 208

 Standard tests to assess cognitive and emotional disorders are commercially available to assess a range of cognitive domains: • Working memory, executive function, verbal or spatial memory, attention etc.

Answer 209

• Valid for the function assessed • Reliable across people and within a single person • Normative data against large populations • Standardised instructions so they can be conducted in a variety of contexts o The test items do not vary o The test instructions are read from a manual in the same way o The testing environment is arranged in a specific way  E.g stroop test (colour and word are different) • Valid across a variety of cultural settings and developmental stages

Answer 210

 Designed to use tasks that don’t rely on language  Reduced cultural effects  Portability and automaticity  Data collections to aid standardisation, and validity and reliability testing

Abnormal behaviour Flashcards

(247 cards)