ABS3 Flashcards

(122 cards)

1
Q

The affinity of carbon monoxide for haemoglobin is

A

200-250 times greater than oxygen

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2
Q

A 100-kg patient with a 50% TBSA full thickness burn receives 10 L of 0.9% NaCl solution in transit to the hospital. His laboratory values 6 hours after the injury are likely to reflect

A

Acidosis

*0.9% NaCl results in hypernatremia and hyperchloremic acidosis

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3
Q

The topical antimicrobial agent mafenide acetate is most likely to cause

A

Metabolic acidosis

*Resulting from carbonic anhydrase inhibition
*Is effective in the presence of eschar

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4
Q

What chemical burn should be initially treated by careful wiping or sweeping of the skin rather than water

A

Powdered form of lye

*In cases of concrete powder or powdered forms of lye – should be swept from the patient to avoid activating the aluminium hydroxide with water

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5
Q

Formic acid burns are associated with

A

Hemoglobinuria and hemolysis

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6
Q

The agent most effective in treating hydrofluoric acid burns is

A

Calcium

*Calcium-based therapies are the mainstay of treating hydrofluoric acid burns

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7
Q

Most common indication for intubation

A

Altered mental status

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8
Q

Fracture of the proximal third of the ulna with dislocation of the radial head

A

Monteggia fracture

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9
Q

Fracture of the middle-distal third of radius with dislocation of the radioulnar joint (Piedmont fracture)

A

Galeazzi fracture

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10
Q

Most commonly injured intra- abdominal organ in blunt abdominal trauma

A

Liver

*2nd = Spleen

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11
Q

Topical therapy for burn patients has a side effect of metabolic acidosis

A

Mafenide acetate

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12
Q

The following would mandate elective intubation in a patient with a normal voice, normal oxygen saturation, and no respiratory distress

A

 Penetrating injuries to the neck and an expanding hematoma
 Evidence of chemical or thermal injury in the mouth, nares or hypopharynx
 Extensive subcutaneous air in the neck
 Complex maxillofacial trauma
 Airway bleeding

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13
Q

In patients under the age of 8, cricothyroidotomy is contraindicated due to

A

Risk of subglottic stenosis

*Tracheostomy should be performed

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14
Q

Emergent tracheostomy is indicated in patients with

A

Laryngotracheal separation or laryngeal fractures

*In whom cricothyroidotomy may cause further damage or result in complete loss of the airway

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15
Q

Most appropriate treatment of sucking chest wound

A

Occlusive dressing taped on 3 out of 4 sides

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16
Q

A 4-year-old is brought hypotensive to the ED after an MVA. Peripheral IV access is attempted but is unsuccessful. The next best access is

A

Intraosseous catheter

*Preferred site = Proximal tibia or distal femur of an unfractured extremity

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17
Q

During the circulation section of the primary survey, four life-threatening injuries that must be identified are

A
  • Massive hemothorax
  • Cardiac tamponade
  • Massive hemoperitoneum
  • Mechanically unstable fractures (e.g., femoral artery injury)

*A pericardial effusion (without tamponade) is not immediately life threatening

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18
Q

A massive hemothorax is define as

A

> 1500 mL of blood or, in the pediatric population, one third of the patient’s blood volume in the pleural space

*Blood volume can be quickly estimated by multiplying body weight (kg) x 70 (e.g., 20-kg child would have a total blood volume of 1400 mL, and one third of his blood volume is 466 mL, the amount necessary to be classified as massive hemothorax)

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19
Q

Best initial treatment for acute traumatic pericardial tamponade in a patient with a SBP of 90 mmHg

A

Ultrasound guided placement of a pericardial catheter

*Followed by transfer to the operating room for definite treatment
*Patients with SBP <70 mmHg warrant emergency department thoracotomy (EDT) with opening of the pericardium to address the injury

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20
Q

Management of suspected blunt cardiac injury includes

A

Continuous monitoring if EKG abnormalities are noted

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21
Q

A patient presents with stable vital signs and respiratory distress after a stab wound to the chest. Chest tubes are placed and an air leak is noted. The patient is electively intubated. The patient arrests after positive pressure ventilation is started. What is the most likely diagnosis

A

Air embolism

*The patient should immediately be placed in Trendelenburg’s position to trap the air in the apex of the left ventricle and the aortic root with an 18-gauge needle and 50-mL syringe
*Vigorous massage is used to force the air bubble through the coronary arteries, if this is unsuccessful, a tuberculin syringe may be used to aspirate air bubbles from the right coronary artery
*Once circulation is restored, the patient should be kept in Trendelenburg’s position with the pulmonary hilum clamped until the pulmonary venous injury is controlled operatively

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22
Q

What is the expected blood loss in a patient with 6 rib fractures

A

750 mL

*For each rib fracture = 100 to 200 mL of blood loss
*Tibial fractures = 300 to 500 mL
*Femur fractures = 800 to 1000 mL
*Pelvic fracture = >1000 mL

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23
Q

A 25-year-old man presents following blunt trauma to the abdomen. FAST exam shows injury to the spleen. His HR is 110, RR is 25 and he is mildly anxious. What percentage of his blood volume do you estimate he has lost

A

15-30%

*Class II hemorrhagic shock (based on his vital signs) = loss of between 15-30% of his blood volume

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24
Q

A 27-year-old man presents to the ED after receiving blows to the head. He opens his eyes with painful stimuli, is confused, and localizes to pain. What is his GCS

A

11

*2 (E) + 4 (V) + 5 (M) = 11

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25
A 75-year-old woman presents to the ED following an MVA. She has decreased strength and sensation in her arms. She has normal strength and sensation in her legs. The most likely diagnosis is
Central cord syndrome
26
The appropriate treatment of an asymptomatic patient with a stab wound to Zone III of the neck is
Observation *If symptomatic – should be evaluated with angiography and, if necessary, embolization of bleeding vessels
27
An indication for CT of the chest to rule out a thoracic aortic injury
High speed head-on MVC with normal chest radiograph *CXR finding of a left apical cap is suggestive of a thoracic aortic injury
28
A 20-year-old young man presents with a left anterior 8th intercostal space stab wound. He is in no distress and a chest x-ray is normal. A diagnostic peritoneal lavage is performed and has a RBC count of 8,000/µL and a WBC count of 300/µL. Which of the following is the best treatment for this patient
Laparoscopy *Patient with a DPL RBC count between 1000/µL and 10,000/µL – should undergo laparoscopy or thoracoscopy *RBC count of >10,000/µL – an indication for laparotomy
29
A 45-year-old, otherwise healthy woman presents after a moving vehicle accident. She is hemodynamically stable and with only minimal tenderness in her right upper quadrant. A FAST exam (focused abdominal sonographic test) is positive with fluid seen in the hepatorenal fossa and the pelvis. Next best step in her management is
CT scan *Patients with fluid on FAST examination (considered a positive FAST) who do not have immediate indications for laparotomy and are hemodynamically stable undergo CT scanning to quantify their injuries *If she has an isolated liver or spleen injury, the correct treatment is most likely observation – therefore, both laparoscopy and laparotomy would not be indicated
30
After CT scan, she is shown to have a liver laceration. There is a 4-cm laceration into the right lobe with a 10-cm subcapsular hematoma. What grade liver injury does she have
Grade III *Laceration >3 cm in depth = Grade III
31
A stable patient with a Grade III splenic laceration has the following laboratory results 2 hours after admission: Hgb 8.7, Hct 29, Plt 70,000, INR 1.3
Transfuse PRBCs only *In acute phase of resuscitation the endpoint is 10 g/dL *This patient, who is in the acute phase of resuscitation, should receive PRBCs because the Hgb is less than 10 *Because platelets are >50,000 and INR is <1.5, transfusions of platelets and/or FFP are not indicated
32
Indication for operative intervention in a patient with an isolated duodenal hematoma
Contained retroperitoneal leak *Patients with persistent duodenal occlusion after 3 weeks – should undergo operative exploration *Any sign of perforation is an indication *The size of the hematoma is not a criterion for operative intervention, nor is the degree of initial occlusion by the hematoma
33
An indication for a lower leg fasciotomy
>35 mmHg difference in diastolic pressure and the compartment pressure *Fasciotomy is indicated in:  Patients with gradient of >35 mmHg (gradient = diastolic – compartment pressure)  Ischemic periods of >6 hours  Combined arterial and venous injuries *In the absence of clinical signs such as pain and paresthesias, compartment pressures are used to determine the need for fasciotomy
34
What bladder pressures is an absolute indication for a decompressive laparotomy
>35 mmHg (≥48 cm H2O) = Grade IV abdominal hypertension *Mortality is directly affected by decompression: * 60% mortality in patients undergoing presumptive decompression * 70% mortality in patients with a delay in decompression
35
Produced by the appendix
IgA
36
Lymphoid tissue in the appendix
 Is maximally present during puberty  Appears approximately 2 weeks after birth  Disappears after the age of 60 years
37
The luminal capacity of normal appendix
0.1 mL
38
Appendectomy may decrease the risk of developing which disease
Ulcerative colitis
39
Culture should be taken at the time of surgery
For immunocompromised patients with appendicitis
40
Pain in the right lower quadrant with compression of the left lower quadrant
Rovsing sign
41
Important to consider in the differential diagnosis of an HIV positive patient with right lower quadrant abdominal pain
Cytomegalovirus infection
42
A patient with a 1.5 cm carcinoid tumor of the mid appendix should undergo
Appendectomy only Appendiceal Carcinoid * ≤ 1 cm = Appendectomy * >1 - ≤ 2cm o Tip or mid appendix = Appendectomy o Base, mesoappendiceal invasion, metastases = Right hemicolectomy * >2 cm = Right hemicolectomy
43
At the time of laparoscopic surgery for presumed appendicitis, the patient is noted to have a mucous-filled, distended appendix measuring 3 cm in diameter. There is no acute inflammation or signs of perforation. The correct treatment for this patient is
Diagnostic laparoscopy only (no resection) with CT scan staging before proceeding with further surgery *An intact mucocele presents no future risk for the patient, however, the opposite is true if the mucocele has ruptured and epithelial cells have escaped into the peritoneal cavity
44
Indicated in a patient with pseudomyxoma peritonei of appendiceal origin
Hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy *Because 5-year survival of mucinous appendiceal neoplasms is only 30%
45
The treatment for lymphoma confined to the appendix is
Appendectomy alone
46
Half-Life of low dose radiation Iodine 123
12 - 14 hours
47
Half-Life of high dose radiation Iodine 123
8 – 10 days
48
Irreversible side effect of anti-thyroid drugs
Aplastic anemia
49
Absolute contraindication of RAI
Pregnant women and breastfeeding
50
Lugol’s iodine solution is given
7 to 10 days pre-op
51
How many grams is left in a sub-total thyroidectomy
4-7 grams of normal tissue
52
Plummer’s disease
Toxic multinodular goiter – similar w/ Grave’s disease but ABSENT extrathyroidal manifestations
53
Contraindicated in thyroid storm
Aspirin-containing compounds
54
DeQuervain’s thyroiditis
Sub-acute thyroiditis – Treatment: Medical
55
Most common thyroid malignancy, (+) lymphatic invasion, best prognosis (>95%)
Papillary CA
56
Orphan Annie nuclei
Papillary CA
57
Most common thyroid malignancy in iodine deficiency, no lymphatic spread
Follicular CA
58
Most common malignancy that metastasize to the thyroid
Renal cell CA
59
Most common complication of thyroid surgery
Hypocalcemia (transient/permanent)
60
Most common location of supernumerary glands
Thymus
61
Most common location of ectopic parathyroid glands
Paraesophageal
62
Mainstay treatment of hypercalcemic crisis
0.9% Saline intravenous hydration
63
Provide a route for breast cancer metastases
Batson’s vertebral plexus
64
Subclavicular group LNs
Level III
65
Gynecomastia
Male breast, ≥2 cm
66
Gynecomastia is pre-malignant
NO
67
Gynecomastia in hypoandrogenic state (Klinefelter’s syndrome) is pre-malignant
YES
68
Bloody nipple discharge
Intraductal PAPILLOMA
69
Incision and drainage is contraindicated in what mastitis
Sporadic/ non-epidemic mastitis
70
Mondor’s disease
Superficial thrombophlebitis
71
A patient presents 1 month after a benign right breast biopsy with a lateral subcutaneous cord felt just under the skin and causing pain. The etiology of this condition is
Superficial thrombophlebitis/ Mondor’s disease
72
35 F with (+) breast mass becomes larger just before onset of periods
Fibrocystic disease of the breast
73
Smoking is NOT a risk for breast cancer
YES
74
Breast cancer risk management (3)
Screening mammogram Chemoprevention Prophylactic mastectomy
75
Cytoplasmic mucoid globules are distinctive Bilateral, incidental on biopsy, usually no clinical signs
LCIS
76
Ipsilateral, incidental findings, mammographic abnormality (calcifications), (+) nipple discharge, palpable mass
DCIS
77
(+) Paget’s cells, (+) CEA
Paget’s disease (+) Pagetoid cells or Paget-like cells, (+) S-100 = Melanoma
78
Most common type of breast cancer
Invasive breast CA
79
Small cells arranged in single file orientation or Indian file configuration
Invasive lobular CA
80
(+) Coarse calficications
BENIGN
81
Breast biopsy technique for patients who will receive preoperative systemic therapy
Core needle biopsy
82
Low grade/ negative margin DCIS
Lumpectomy alone Intermediate grade/ close margin = Lumpectomy + RT High grade/ positive margin = Total mastectomy + SLNB
83
Absolute contraindications to breast conservation therapy or BCS
Prior RT Pregnant (1st and 2nd trimester) Persistently positive margin Multicentric lesions Diffuse microcalcifications Active connective tissue disorders (scleroderma, lupus)
84
Breast mass less than 0.5 cm and no adverse features
NOT indicated for adjuvant chemotherapy
85
Toker cells
Nipple
86
Human bites
Eikenella corrodens
87
Coagulation necrosis
Acid
88
Threshold of pressure injury
>2x the capillary perfusion pressure/30 mmHg at least two hours
89
Gamma-secretase gene mutation
Hidradenitis suppuritativa
90
Site of TEN
Dermo-epidermal junction
91
Most common type of skin cancer
Basal cell CA
92
Forms a waxy or pearly appearing papule with raised-well demarcated borders
Basal cell CA
93
Most common subtype or BCC
Nodular
94
Most aggressive variant of BCC
Morpheaform
95
Most common malignant eyelid tumor
BCC
96
Upper lip malignancy
BCC
97
Moh’s surgery
Preserves normal tissue allowing best cosmetic outcome
98
Most common subtype of melanoma
Superficial spreading
99
Most aggressive variant of melanoma or worst prognosis
Nodular
100
Most common non-cutaneous site
Ocular melanoma
101
Most common site of metastasis of skin cancer
Lung and liver
102
Mainstay of treatment for malignant melanoma
Wide excision with 1-2 cm margin depending on the tumor thickness
103
Abdominal layer that does not reach the scrotum
Transversus abdominis
104
Length of inguinal canal
4 – 6 cm (Infants: 1 – 1.5 cm)
105
Posterior wall of inguinal canal
Medial: Conjoint tendon Lateral: Transversalis fascia and transversus abdominis muscle
106
In repair of femoral hernia, the structure most vulnerable to major injury lies
Laterally
107
Most common esophageal pathology
GERD
108
Resting pressure of LES
6 – 26 mmHg
109
Characteristics that prevent reflux
Resting pressure Overall length Intraabdominal length exposed to positive pressure (most common)
110
Gold standard in diagnosis of GERD
24-hours pH monitoring
111
Most common anti-reflux surgery
Nissen fundoplication
112
180 degrees anterior fundoplication of the distal esophagus
Dor fundoplication
113
Most common type of diaphragmatic hernia
Type I – Sliding
114
Borchardt triad (seen in type II)
Chest pain Retching with inability to vomit Inability to pass NGT
115
Treatment is largely surgical
Type II – Rolling/ Paraesophageal
116
Most common esophageal diverticula
Zenker’s diverticula
117
Area of potential weakness situated behind the esophagus at the level of the cricophrayngeus muscle
Killian’s triangle
118
Triad of achalasia
Hypertensive LES Aperistalsis of esophageal body Failure of LES to relax
119
Most effective nonsurgical treatment of achalasia
Pneumatic dilatation
120
Most common primary esophageal motility disorder
Nutcracker esophagus
121
Heller’s myotomy plus partial fundoplication
Achalasia treatment
122
Most common site of perforation
Mid esophagus