ABS3 Flashcards by Clinica Babaran

Approximately how long does it take from migration of a keratinocyte from the base layer to the time it is shed from the epidermis

50 days (40 to 56 days)

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What is the embryologic origin of melanocytes

Neural crest

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Primary type of collagen present in fetal skin

Type III

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A pressure of 60 mmHg can result in pressure necrosis of the skin and underlying soft tissue after

1 hour

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Radiation wavelengths that is primarily responsible for the development of skin cancer after exposure to the sun

UVB

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Best initial treatment of burn with hydrofluoric acid

Copious irrigation with water

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Is associated with pyoderma gangrenosum

Monoclonal immunoglobulin agammopathy

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A “sebaceous” cyst is removed from the scalp of a 48-year-old woman. What would be expected on histologic exam

The presence of epidermis covered by an external basal layer

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Angiosarcoma associated with Stewart-Treves syndrome arises in areas exposed to

Lymphedema

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Type of melanoma has the best overall prognosis

Lentigo maligna

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A patient presents with a biopsy proven melanoma of the thigh which is 3 mm thick on histologic examination. At the time of excision, how wide should the margins be

2 cm

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A chemotherapeutic agent used in the treatment if some patients with dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans (DFSP)

Imatinib

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A patient presents with a biopsy proven Merkel cell carcinoma 2 mm in diameter. At the time of excision, how wide should the margin be

3 cm

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Nevus sebaceous of Jadassohn is most commonly associated with

Basal cell carcinoma

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The relative risk of developing a squamous cell carcinoma of the head and neck for a patient who abuses both cigarettes and alcohol is

35-fold increased risk

*Smoking alone: Male = 1.9-fold increased risk, Female = 3-fold increased risk
*Alcohol alone: 1.7-fold increased risk

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The primary lymphatic drainage of the midline of the upper lip is

Preauricular nodes

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Features of oral tongue carcinoma

 Presentation as ulcerated exophytic mass
 May involve submandibular and upper cervical lymph nodes
 Can result in ipsilateral paresthesias and deviation of the tongue on protrusion with fasciculations and eventual atrophy
 CO2 laser useful or excision o small early tumors

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Lymphatic drainage from the supraglottic larynx is primarily to

Superior jugular nodes

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Delphian node

Prelaryngeal node

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Infection that is correlated with nasopharyngeal cancer

EBV, Epstein Barr virus

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Most common salivary gland neoplasm

Pleomorphic adenoma

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Level V lymph nodes in the neck are located in the

Posterior triangle

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When the tracheostomy is no longer needed, the tube is removed and closure of the opening usually occurs spontaneously

Over a 2-week period

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Most common causative organism in otitis externa is

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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Bell’s palsy is most commonly associated with

Infection with Herpes simplex

Most common etiology of facial nerve paralysis

Bell’s palsy or idiopathic facial paralysis *Treatment = Oral steroids plus antiviral therapy

Ramsay Hunt syndrome is characterized by severe otalgia followed by the vesicles of the external ear and is caused by

Varicella zoster virus

Strawberry tongue is seen in

Scarlet fever

Indication for tonsillectomy in children

After three or more infections per year despite adequate medical therapy

Most common therapy used in the treatment of recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (RRP)

Laryngoscopy with excision and/ or ablation of lesions *HPV subtypes 6 and 11

Most common site of recurrent respiratory papillomatosis (RRP)

Larynx

Reinke’s edeme is

Edema in the superficial lamina propria of the vocal cord

What temporal bone fracture pattern is most likely to have an associated facial nerve injury

Transverse

Most significant consideration in the management of temporal bone injuries is

The status of the facial nerve *Delayed of partial paralysis = Almost always resolve with conservative management *Immediate paralysis = Considered for nerve decompression

The treatment of choice for a small squamous carcinoma of the lip is

Surgical excision alone

Primary repair is possible after excision of what percentage of the lip

<33%

The most common location for Kaposi’s sarcoma of the oropharynx is

Palate

What is the probability that a neck mass measuring 2.5 cm in an adult is malignant

80% *Neck mass >2cm = Greater than 80% probability of being malignant

What structures is removed in a modified radical neck dissection

Level I-V lymph nodes

Structures removed in a Sistrunk procedure

Portion of the hyoid bone *THYROGLOSSAL DUCT CYST

Branchial cleft anomalies involving the pyriform sinus arise from the

3rd branchial cleft

Most common malignant epithelial neoplasm of the salivary gland

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma *Most common benign = Pleomorphic adenoma or benign mixed tumor

Most common malignancies of salivary gland in pediatric population

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma and acinic cell carcinoma *Adult = Pleomorphic adenoma

Most common site of salivary neoplasm

Parotid gland

The breast receives its principal blood supply from

(1) Perorating branches of the internal mammary artery (2) Lateral branches of the posterior intercostal arteries; and (3) Branches from the axillary artery, including the highest thoracic, lateral thoracic, and pectoral branches of the thoracoacromial artery

Initiates ductal development

Estrogen

Responsible or differentiation of epithelium and or lobular development

Progesterone

Primary hormonal stimulus for lactogenesis in late pregnancy and the postpartum period

Prolactin

Regulate the release of estrogen

Gonadotropins luteinizing hormone (LH) and follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

Also called recurrent periductal mastitis, is a condition of recurrent retroareolar infections and abscesses

Zuska disease

Chronic inflammatory condition that originates within the accessory areolar glands of Montgomery or within the axillary sebaceous glands

Hidradenitis suppurativa of the nipple-areola complex or axilla

A variant of thrombophlebitis that involves the superficial veins of the anterior chest wall and breast

Mondor disease

Risk actors or the development of breast cancer include

Early menarche Nulliparity Late menopause Longer lactation period * Increased exposure to estrogen is associated with an increased risk for developing breast cancer, whereas reducing exposure is thought to be protective * Factors that increase the number of menstrual cycles, such as early menarche, nulliparity, and late menopause, are associated with increased risk * Moderate levels of exercise and a longer lactation period, actors that decrease the total number of menstrual cycles, are protective

Postmenopausal women at high risk for breast cancer to receive either

Tamoxifen or raloxifene

The gold standard against which breast conservation therapy or DCIS is evaluated is

Mastectomy * Women with DCIS and evidence o extensive disease (>4 cm o disease or disease in more than one quadrant) usually require mastectomy * Adjuvant tamoxifen therapy is considered or DCIS patients with estrogen-receptor (ER)-positive disease

Clinical situations where sentinel lymph node (SLN) dissection is not recommended include

 Patients with inflammatory breast cancers  Those with palpable axillary lymphadenopathy and biopsy-proven metastasis  DCIS without mastectomy  Prior axillary surgery

How many lactiferous ducts drain into the nipple of the mature female breast

15-20

During pregnancy, alveolar epithelium develops in the breaths which is responsible after delivery for the production of milk. Which part of the alveolar epithelial cell is responsible for the production of the fat present in human milk

Cytoplasm

Protein component of the milk

Endoplasmic reticulum (merocrine secretion) Lipid component = Cytoplasm (apocrine secretion)

The medial mammary artery is a tributary of the

2nd, 3rd, and 4th intercostal arteries

Absence of the breast (amastia) is associated with

Poland syndrome

Increased risk of breast cancer in men with

Klinefelter’s syndrome Klinefelter’s syndrome = Gynecomastia Fleischer’s syndrome = Polymastia

The treatment of choice for Zuska’s disease is

Antibiotics, incision, and drainage

Conditions lead to gynecomastia due to an increased production of estrogen

Nontesticular tumors – Adrenal cortical neoplasms, lung carcinoma, hepatocellular carcinoma

Conditions lead to gynecomastia due to an decreased in testosterone production

 Klinefelter’s syndrome  Aging  Renal failure

The treatment of choice for Mondor’s disease is

Observation and nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

The appropriate therapy for Paget’s disease of the nipple is

Resection

Pathognomonic of Paget’s disease of the nipple

Presence of large, pale, vacuolated cells (Paget cells) in the rete pegs of the epithelium

A 35-year-old woman with a BRAC1 gene mutation seeks your advice about her known increased risk of breast cancer. You should recommend

Prophylactic bilateral mastectomy and, if she has completed childbearing, prophylactic bilateral oophorectomy

Present screening recommendations for BRCA mutation carriers who do not undergo prophylactic mastectomy include

Clinical breast examination every 6 months and mammography every 12 months beginning at age 25 years

Appropriate treatment for a 3-cm fibroadenoma

Option for treatment include surgical removal, cryoablation, or observation (especially those larger than 2 cm)

The average lifetime risk for a woman to develop breast cancer is approximately

12% Aged 50 years = 11% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer Aged 70 years = 7%

Routine mammography in women over 50 years of age decreases mortality from breast cancer by approximately

33%

Current recommendations are that women undergo baseline mammography at age

35 *Annual mammographic screening beginning at age 40

The most common genetic cause of breast cancer is a mutation in

BRAC2

ABS3 Flashcards

(75 cards)