Academic Instrument PEs Flashcards

(116 cards)

1
Q

How to breakdown a METAR can be found in what section?

A

Section C. (FIH, pg. C-60)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What does transponder code 7600 signify?

A

An aircraft experiencing a loss of two-way radio capability (Radio Failure)FIH, Section A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the millibar equivalent of 29.92 inches?

A

1013.2FIH, Section D-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

In what section would you find the information about FLIP and NOTAM Abbreviations?

A

Section F (FIH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

TRUE or FALSE. Flights operating at 19,500’ MSL can utilize the IFR Enroute Low Altitude Charts?

A

FALSE, only up to but not including 18,000’ MSL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A depiction of the contiguous states is on the lower half of the front panel. Several cities are listed, some in black and some in green. What is the significance of the two colors?
– Black indicates - ___
– Green indicates - ___

A

– Major traffic hubs for which Area Charts are provided

–Cities to assist you in ORIENTATION and selection of the appropriate char

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the revision cycle for DoD FLIP General Planning?

A

32 weeks (GP, Chapter 3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which Publication gives detailed Supplemental Information about a Nation’s Airspace and Aviation Procedure?

A

Area Planning (AP/1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which publication(s) provide(s) information on Instrument Approach Procedures?

A

Terminal charts (TLA and TPP (Terminal Procedure Publications))

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Where can the Index for Aeronautical Information be found?

A

GP, Chapter 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What Aircraft Identification Code is used for an Army Helicopter when submitting a DD Form 1801 Flight Plan?

A

– R (Army) followed by the last five digits of the aircraft tail / serial number

– GP, Chapter 4-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the purpose of an IFR flight plan?

A

to communicate the pilot’s desires to Air Traffic ControlGP, Chapter 4-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Define instrument flying in helicopters.

A

Instrument flying in helicopters is essentially visual flying with the flight instruments substituted for the various reference points on the helicopter and the natural horizon (TC 3-04.5, Chp. 2)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the basis for helicopter control during instrument flight?

A

Proper Instrument Interpretation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the three fundamental skills of instrument flying?

A
  1. Cross-check (scanning)
  2. Instrument interpretation
  3. Aircraft Control
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the three types of cross-checking (scanning) errors?

A
  1. Fixation
  2. Omission
  3. Emphasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An aircraft is flown in instrument flight by controlling ___ and ___, as necessary, to produce desired performance.

A

– attitude
– power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Flight instruments that display immediate attitude and power information and that are calibrated to permit precise attitude and power adjustments are known as ___ instruments.

A

Control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Flight instruments that indicate the helicopter’s actual performance are known as ___ instruments.

A

Performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

List the four instruments used for pitch attitude control information:

A
  1. Airspeed indicator
  2. Attitude indicator
  3. Altimeter
  4. Vertical Speed indicator
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List four instruments used for bank attitude control information:

A
  1. Attitude indicator
  2. Heading indicator
  3. Turn & Slip indicator
  4. Magnetic Compass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The Angle of Bank formula to achieve Standard Rate turns is:

A

TAS / 10 + 1/2 of result = Approx. Bank Angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

To level off from a climb, lower the pitch attitude to regain ___, then adjust collective to obtain cruise power.

A

Airspeed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Lead the level-off by ___ percent of the rate of climb. If climbing at 500 FPM, the level-off should be started ___ feet prior to the desired altitude.

A

– 10%
– 50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Generally for straight and level flight, what are the primary instruments for helicopter attitude control? -- Pitch - ___ -- Bank - ___ -- Power - ___
-- Altimeter -- Heading Indicator -- Airspeed Indicator
26
What does the abbreviation ADS-B stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance - Broadcast
27
The two main navigation systems used by Army aviators are:
1. Spaced-based 2. Ground-based
28
The signal from a VOR ground station provides a 360 usable course known as... ___
Radials
29
How many satellites are required by the GPS receiver to yield a three dimensional position?
Four
30
Which NAVAID transmits on a VHF frequency band and is subject to line-of-sight-restriction?
VOR
31
What are the only positive methods of identification for the VOR?
Morse code Identification, Aural, or Visual
32
What is the accuracy of the VOR ground transmitter?
The accuracy of course alignment with VOR is generally plus or minus 1 degree
33
What name is used for airways formed with radials from VORs?
VOR Airways "Victor Airways"
34
The three classes of VORs are:
T - Terminal L - Low Altitude HA - High Altitude
35
What is the normal range (SSV) of an L or HA class VOR at 1000 feet AGL?
40 NM
36
In order to use GPS for IFR navigation, the GPS equipment must include a ___ database.
Current
37
You are tracking an off airway (Direct) route between two HA class VORTACs. Your altitude is 10,000 feet MSL. The maximum distance between the VORTACs is ___.
80 NM
38
What is the name used for airways formed with GPS routes?
RNAV routes ("T-Route")
39
When navigating along a VOR Airway between two adjacent navigation facilities, where should changeover in navigational facilities occur?
-- Midway between the navigational facilities for straight route segments -- At an indication of course change (dogleg) -- A VOR changeover point (COP) as depicted on the ELA chart by the symbol.
40
GPS is composed of what three major segments?
1. Space segment 2. Control segment 3. User segment
41
In which DoD FLIP would you find information about a Two-Way Radio Failure?
FIH - Flight Information Handbook
42
TRUE or FALSE. The (AP/1) Area Planning has information about flight hazards contained in it?
TRUE
43
Today, you heard an aviation term that you are not familiar with. In what DoD FLIP might you find the definition?
GP - General Planning Chapter 2
44
What does the symbol "(B)" under the airport name, preceding "RWY-15" (for example) indicate?
Rotating Beacon is available and operates sunset to sunrise
45
TRUE or FALSE. While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, on a magnetic course of 270 deg, an even thousand foot MSL cruising altitude would be appropriate.
TRUE
46
TRUE or FALSE. The Minimum Enroute IFR Altitude (MEA) guarantees obstacle clearance and is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage between those fixes.
TRUE
47
What does a ++ symbol following operating hours in an IFR Supplement Terminal listing mean?
"++" following an "Z" times shown in Service, Remarks, Communications, NAVAIDs, and/or ILS/RADAR entries reminds users to apply the DT conversion to obtain local DT. Absence of the DT conversion and "++" symbology indicates DT is not observed.
48
TRUE or FALSE. A listing of known laser light hazards are listed in Section C of the IFR Supplement.
TRUE
49
What does PAPI (L50) stand for (lighting system)?
Precision Approach Path Indicator
50
The standard initial wind drift correction to regain a course for airspeeds under 90 knots is ___ degrees; for airspeed 90 knots or over, ___ degrees. First Trial is ___.
-- 30 deg -- 20 deg -- half the initial correction after course re-interception
51
If a trial drift correction is too large to maintain a course track, what is the procedure used to return to course?
Turn to parallel course and allow wind to drift aircraft back on course; then decrease correction by half on next trial correction.
52
If a trial drift correction is too little to maintain a course track, what is the procedure used to return to course?
Repeat initial correction to return to course. Second trial: Increase correction by applying 1/2 of the first trial correction.
53
What indicates that station passage occurs while tracking inbound using a bearing pointer?
For RMI only, the station passage is determined when the bearing pointer passes 90 degrees to the inbound course.
54
GP Chapter 2 states: The source from which the definition is taken is shown in parenthesis beside the term in a code form as follows: NO CODE - ___ (P/CG) - ___ (ICAO) - ___
-- There is only one definition for this term in this chapter and it is taken from the Pilot/Controller Glossary (P/CG). --The definition published beside the term is taken from the Pilot/Controller Glossary located in the FAA Aeronautical Information Manual (AIM) -- The definition is taken from the ICAO Document 9713, International Civil Aviation Vocabulary, and is different than that in the P/CG.
55
DoD FLIP product groups are aligned with the three flight phases:_________Therefore, no single pub. contains all of the information which may be required by aircrews.
1. Planning 2. Enroute 3. Terminal
56
What is the publication cycle for the Flight Information Handbook (FIH)?
32 weeks
57
What is the revision cycle of the Area Planning (AP/1)?
24 weeks
58
What is the revision cycle of the Enroute Low Altitude Charts?
8 weeks
59
What is the purpose of a flight plan?
-- The purpose of an IFR flight plan is to communicate the pilot's desires to ATC. -- A VFR flight plan enables search and rescue agencies to identify an overdue aircraft and know where to look for it.
60
What form is used to file an International Flight Plan?
DD FORM 1801 (DoD INTERNATIONAL FLIGHT PLAN)
61
What chapter of the GP can you use for filling out a flight plan?
Chapter 4
62
(IFR Supplement) The following detailed legend is provided to assist users in becoming familiar with the format use in the Airport/Facility Directory. Information which is self-explanatory will not be covered in this legend. -- All bearings, radials, courses, and tracks are ___. -- All mileages are ___. -- All times are ___. -- All elevations are in ___. -- All geographic coordinates are ___.
-- Magnetic -- Nautical miles (NM) -- Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) -- feet above/below MSL unless otherwise noted. -- compatible with the World Geodetic System (WGS)
63
Symbol Legend (IFR Supplement): (R) - ___ (E) - ___
-- Radar capability -- UHF and VHF emergency frequencies monitored
64
What is an OROCA?
It is based on the highest known terrain feature or obstruction in each quadrangle, and provides a 1000 foot buffer over the feature in designated non-mountainous areas (or 200 foot buffer in designated mountainous areas) within the United States.
65
What does the green dashed box around the airport indicate?
Area of Enlargement (contains only data for through flights). See Area Charts for complete data.
66
Course Deviation Scale: -- LOC (Localizer) - ___ -- VOR - ___ GPS: -- Enroute - ___ -- Terminal Area - ___ -- Approach - ___
-- 2 degrees -- 10 degrees -- 2 NM -- 1 NM -- 0.3 NM
67
When talking about lighting systems, what does a circled "V" and a circled "P" indicate?
VASI - Visual Approach Slope indicator PAPI - Precision Approach Path indicator
68
What does "CLNC DEL" stand for and why is it important?
Clearance delivery - give you IFR clearance
69
If I gave you the radio signals 112.1T and 122.1R, what is the significance of the "T" and "R"?
T - they transmit here R - they receive here
70
What 4 things does a Terminal chart (ex. TLA) provide?
1. Radar Instrument Approach Minimums 2. Instrument Approach Procedures 3. Standard Instrument Departures 4. Airport Diagrams
71
What does it mean if I see "RADAR - SEE TERMINAL FLIP FOR RADAR MINIMA"?
-- An Airport Surveillance Radar (ASR) or Precision Approach Radar (PAR) with DoD-approved minima is available -- They have some sort of ground approach
72
What is the difference of Blue/Green colored airports compared to a Brown colored airport on the ELA?
-- Blue/Green have an approved Instrument Approach Procedure and/or RADAR MINIMA published in either the FAA TPP or the DoD FLIPS (Blue has at least HA DoD FLIPS) -- Brown does not have a published Instrument Approach Procedure or RADAR MINIMA
73
What is the difference in a white VOR | VOR/DME | VORTAC and a black VOR | VOR/DME | VORTAC?
-- White - Non-Compulsory Reporting or Off Airway -- Black - Compulsory Reporting
74
What is an OROCA
Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude - provide 1000 foot buffer (2000 in mountain areas) over the feature in designated areas within the US. Not assessed for NAVAID signal coverage, ATC surveillance, or communications coverage.
75
What is a MEA?
Minimum Enroute Altitude - The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes. The MEA prescribed applies to the entire width of the airway, segment, or route between the radio fixes defining the airway, segment, or route
76
What is a MOCA?
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (has a *)- The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigation signal coverage within 22 NM of a VOR
77
TRUE or FALSE. You can use GPS for a V-Airway?
TRUE
78
TRUE or FALSE. You can use VOR for a GPS route?
FALSE
79
What does this mean " -----| " on the ELA?
Altitude change in the MOCA or MEA
80
What are the 3 main types of lighting codes?
1. Runway Lights 2. Approach lighting systems 3. VGSI (Visual Glide Slope Indicating System)
81
What is a Standard rate turn?
3 degrees per second
82
When doing a check on the limit for a receiver, what is the tolerance for a ground check and an airborne check?
+/- 4 deg for Ground +/- 6 deg for Airborne
83
Just to remind you: Single Bar Bearing Pointer Double Bar Bearing Pointer CDI (Course Deviation Indicator) To/From indicator (2 prong indicator) Course Pointer
Let's see if we remember it!
84
How do you know if you have passed a station?
-- For RMI, when bearing pointer passes 90 degrees -- For CDI, To/From indicator flops from the "To" to "From" or vice versa
85
What does MALSR stand for?
Medium Intensity Approach Light System with RAIL (Runway Alignment Indicator Lights)
86
All turns in a holding should be one of the following, whichever gives the least amount of bank angle:_________
-- 3 deg/sec Standard Rate Turn -- 30 degree bank angle -- 25 degree bank angle provided a Flight Director System (FDS) is used
87
Max airspeed during a holding for a COPTER Approach?
90 knots
88
You're on a mission support flight. Is a report to ATC required after entering a holding pattern for which you received a clearance for? If so, what is required for the report?
Yes, repot time and altitude on arrival
89
Name the three types of holding entries:_________
-- Direct -- Parallel -- Teardrop
90
Holding can be encountered in what 4 phases during an IFR flight?
-- Enroute -- Arrival -- In Lieu of a Procedure Turn -- Missed Approach
91
What are the four main items found in a TLA?
-- Radar Instrument Approach Minimums -- Instrument Approach Procedures -- Standard Instrument Departures -- Airport Diagrams
92
How many TLA/TPP Chart volumes are published?
22 TLA volumes, 24 TPP volumes
93
What does the "L" symbol represent in the TLA/TPP?
Pilot Controlled Lighting
94
How are distances depicted in the TLA/TPP?
NMs
95
What are the exceptions to distances in the TLA/TPP?
-- Visibility (SMs or meters) -- RVR (Runway Visual Range) (hundreds of feet or meters)
96
How are elevations depicted in the TLA/TPP?
MSL
97
How are ceilings depicted in the TLA/TPP?
Feet above airport elevation
98
How are headings, courses, bearings, and radials depicted in the TLA/TPP?
Magnetic
99
What does the abbreviation VASI stand for?
Visual Approach Slope Indicator
100
What does MDA stand for?
Minimum Descent Altitude
101
Where in the TLA/TPP can you find a list of all the approaches charts for airports?
Index
102
What is a FAA flight service station?
Air traffic facilities which provide pilot briefing, en route communications, and VFR search and rescue services, assist lost aircraft and aircraft in emergency situations, relay ATC clearances, originate notices to airmen, broadcast aviation weather and NAS info, receive and process IFR flight plans, and monitor NAVAIDS.
103
Define Instrument Flight rules (IFR).
Rules governing the procedures for conducting instrument flight. Also a term used by pilots and controllers to indicate type of flight plan.
104
Define an Approach control facility.
-- A terminal ATC facility that provides approach control in a terminal area. -- Air traffic control service provided by an approach control facility for arriving and departing VFR/IFR aircraft and, on occasion, en route aircraft
105
Define "Clearance Delivery."
A tower facility at high density airports used to relay ATC instructions to aircraft.
106
What is an Air Route Traffic Control Center (ARTCC)?
A facility established to provide air traffic control service to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace and principally during the en route phase of flight.
107
What are the transponder codes for: VFR flight (normally) - ___ Two-way radio failure - ___ Emergency - ___
1200 7600 7700
108
What are the 9 items in an initial IFR clearance?
1. Aircraft ID 2. Clearance Limit 3. Departure procedure or SID 4. Route of flight 5. Altitude Information 6. Holding instruction 7. Remarks or special information 8. Frequency information 9.Air Traffic Control Radar Beacon System (ATCRBS) / Transponder Code
109
What are the three ways that en-route position reporting points are desingated?
1. Compulsory (solid/filled in color) 2. Noncompulsory "on request" 3. Compulsory (points that define a direct route of flight)
110
What is the required information to be transmitted to approach control when you execute a missed approach?
Report approach has been missed and request clearance for a specific action. (i.e. to an alternate airport, another approach, etc.)
111
In any case of lost commo, what are pilots expected to exercise?
Good judgement
112
Within what time frames would you consider lost commo on a radar approach: Vectored to final - ___ ASR final approach - ___ PAR final approach - ___
-- 1 minute -- 15 seconds -- 5 seconds
113
What minimum altitudes would you fly during lost commo?
-- Last assigned -- Minimum Altitude for IFR operations -- Last expected
114
While IMC, you follow the route clearance limit rule. List the Routes in order of precedence:
1. Last Assigned 2. As vectored 3. Expected 4. As Filed
115
What route of flight would you use to your alternate if you lost commo?
Published IFR routing only
116
What altitudes can be used as the Minimum IFR altitude?
-- MEA -- MSA -- MOCA -- Feeder route altitude -- MIA