CH47 Tactics DQs

Question 1

When planning a tactical mission, what does METT-TC stand for?

Answer 1

– Mission
– Enemy
– Terrain and Weather
– Troop
– Time
– Civil Considerations

Question 2

What is an Air Control Point (ACP) and when should an ACP be used?

Answer 2

– An air reference measure which is an easily identifiable point on the terrain or electronic NAVAID used for navigation, command and control, and communication.
– ACPs are generally designated at each point where the flight route or air corridor makes a definite change in any direction and at any other point deemed necessary for timing or control of the operation.

Question 3

How far apart should ACPs be spaced?

Answer 3

– ACPs should be 5-20 km or NMs apart.
– As a general rule, select ACPs 5-20 km apart when utilizing map scales of 1:100,000 and below & use NM when utilizing map scales of 1:250,000 and above.

Question 4

What are start points (SPs) and release points (RPs)? How far from the PZ/LZ should they be positioned?

Answer 4

– The SP and RP are important ACPs. Aviators use easily identifiable terrain features even if they must alter their route slightly.
– These points should be 3-8 km or NM from the PZ/LZ to aid timing and navigation and should not involve significant turning.

Question 5

What are the hazards to terrain flight?

Answer 5

– Physical - Manmade and Natural
– Weather - Visibility and Wind
– Human Factors - Fatigue and Obstacle detection abilities.

Question 6

Where do I find the list of maneuvers aircrew will not attempt when OGE power is not available?

Answer 6

– ATM - Any task requiring hovering flight in OGE conditions

Question 7

When will the FWD HOOK LOAD and AFT HOOK LOAD advisories illuminate?

Answer 7

The sensor will close and a hook load advisory marked FWD HOOK LOAD and AFT HOOK LOAD will be displayed on the MFD when the hook load exceeds approx. 150 lbs.

Question 8

With an external load hooked up, on the ground and slack in the slings, the cargo hook master switch in ALL, and the cargo hook release button depressed, why might the FWD and AFT hooks fail to open?

Answer 8

– The FWD and AFT hooks may fail to open if the slings are slack when the release solenoids are energized (a load of approx. 20 lbs. is required for opening).
– The hooks can be opened by selecting the desired hook(s) and depressing the release switch as the aircraft is lifted to apply tension to the slings.

Question 9

According to the CH-47F -10, what are the three major groups of external loads?

Answer 9

– Low Density - airspeed limited by amount of clearance.
– High Density - usually flown @ cruise airspeed.
– Aerodynamic - airspeed limited by lift capabilities of load.

Question 10

When does the DD Form 365-4, Weight and Balance, have to be reviewed?

Answer 10

All weight and balance records will, as a minimum, be reviewed every 12 months. The last day of the month is the final day for completing the review.

Question 11

What is the change in drag area in square feet for an ISU-90 external load and if you had an external load that was not in the table, what chart would you use to find out the additional torque required?

Answer 11

– 81 sq. ft.
– Drag Chart (Fig 7-78, pg. 7-145,146).

Question 12

What are the three types of fatigue?

Answer 12

– Acute - associated w/ physical or mental activity between 2 regular sleep periods.
– Chronic - much more serious than acute, occurs over a longer period, and is typically the result of inadequate recovery from successive periods of acute fatigue.
– Motivational Exhaustion (Burnout) - if chronic remains untreated for too long, the individual will eventually “shutdown,” and cease functioning occupationally and socially.

Question 13

What are the self-imposed stressors?

Answer 13

– Drugs
– Exhaustion
– Alcohol
– Tobacco
– Hypoglycemia (Nutritional Deficiency).

Question 14

What are the PZ selection considerations? LONACSW

Answer 14

– Location
– Obstacles
– Number
– App/Dep Routes
– Conditions
– Size
– Wind

Question 15

What are the LZ selection considerations? LONAACTI

Answer 15

– Location
– Obstacles
– Number
– App/Dep Routes
– Alternatives
– Capacity
– Threat
– Identification

Question 16

What are the different classifications for external loads (TM 4-48.11)?

Answer 16

– Certified - completed evaluations and testing.
– Suitable - not certified, but demonstrated acceptable lift.
– Unique - one time or low frequency basis.
– Prohibited - denied sling load cert and safety hazard if carried.

Question 17

When selecting a landing site, what is the minimum diameter of a landing point for Sling Load Operations?

Answer 17

– According to the Army Aviation Handbook (pg. 19 (23)) For a CH-47F, 100 meters.

Question 18

During external load hookup, what is the first area to be coordinated between the ground crew and aircraft crew in the event of an aircraft emergency?

Answer 18

– The first area to identify is the aircraft emergency area, because the rendezvous point location is directly influenced by the aircraft emergency area location.
– In an emergency situation, the pilot will attempt to maneuver the aircraft to an open area that affords the crew the best chance of survival.

Question 19

Which type of spatial disorientation is considered the most dangerous?

Answer 19

– Type I SD is the most dangerous type of disorientation.
– In type I SD, an aviator does not perceive any indication of SD or necessarily think anything is wrong.

Question 20

What vestibular illusion can give rise to an overwhelming “tumbling” sensation?

Answer 20

– Coriolis Illusion - The combined effects of “cross-coupling” of canals may create a perception of motion within a new orthogonal axis (and may give rise to an overwhelming “tumbling” sensation).

Question 21

What effective SD countermeasures can a flight crew take to mitigate the risk? UEADMTR

Answer 21

– Understand the risk factors.
– Employ good aircrew coordination.
– Asses the mission’s geographical environment, forecasted weather and night illumination, and conditions where DVE operations are likely to occur.
– Do not attempt visual flight below established minimums or in areas of deteriorating weather conditions.
– Maintain proficiency in instrument flight.
– Trust your instruments and read them right.
– Reference instruments with good cross-check and ignore conflicting sensory inputs.

Question 22

What does the term Degraded Visual Environment (DVE) mean?

Answer 22

A state of reduce visibility whereby spatial situational awareness and aircraft control cannot be maintained with the same precision as in normal VMC. (brownout, whiteout, fog, smoke, blowing dust, snow, heavy rain, sea spray, or low illumination).

Question 23

What stage of Hypoxic Hypoxia occurs when there is 89-80% oxygen saturation and occurs between 10k and 15k feet PA?

Answer 23

– Compensatory - Symptoms include drowsiness, poor judgement, impaired coordination and efficiency
– Four stages are Indifferent, Compensatory, Disturbance, and Critical.

Question 24

Define NOE, Contour and Low Level flight.

Answer 24

– NOE - conducted @ varying airspeeds as close to the earth’s surface as vegetation and obstacles permit (wheels up to 25 ft. above trees/vegetation).

– Contour - conducted @ low altitudes conforming to the earth’s contours. Characterized by relatively constant airspeeds and varying altitudes (wheels between 25-80 ft. AHO).

– Low Level - Constant altitude and airspeed, dictated by threat avoidance (wheels between 80-200 ft. AHO).

Question 25

What can the pilot on the flight controls do if an external load begins to oscillate in flight?

Answer 25

-- Reduce FWD airspeed immediately, regain control, and steady the cargo load. -- If an external load begins oscillating fore and aft, the helicopter should be flown into a shallow bank while decreasing airspeed. This normally shifts the oscillation laterally which can be easily controlled by further decreasing FWD airspeed.

Question 26

During shutdown, if the emergency exit light switch is not properly sequenced from ARM to OFF, what will happen when the battery switch is turned OFF?

Answer 26

-- CAUTION - If the EMER EXIT switch is left in ARM or DISARM with the helicopter shutdown and the battery connected, the charging circuit of the emergency exit light system will discharge the helicopter battery. -- Upon completion of flight, the switch must be momentarily moved to the DISARM position before being placed in the TEST position. This will turn off the lights and prevent the lights from draining the aircraft battery.

Question 27

When logging into TDL with a username and password, how many unsuccessful attempts can you have and what will happen if you have too many unsuccessful attempts?

Answer 27

After 3 consecutive unsuccessful attempts, any further attempts to enter the password result in a TDL LOCKOUT annunciation on both the CDU scratchpad and the TDL advisory block.

Question 28

What is the purpose of shoring? Explain how you would use it.

Answer 28

-- Shoring is used to protect the cargo floor and to distribute load pressure over a greater area on the floor. In general, shoring is required for all wheeled platforms and dollies and for any item of cargo whose contact pressure exceeds the floor limitations. -- General Cargo must not exceed floor pressure of 300 lbs./sq. ft. An easy way to determine floor pressure of various loads is to divide the weight of the load by the contact area (in sq. inches or sq. feet).

Question 29

What are the CH-47F cargo restraint criteria?

Answer 29

-- Forward - 4.0 g's -- Aft - 2.0 g's -- Down - 4.0 g's -- Up - 2.0 g's -- Lateral - 1.5 g's

Question 30

What are the contact floor loading limits for concentrated loads FWD and AFT of STA 160.00?

Answer 30

-- The treadways AFT of STA 160.00 and ramp extensions are stressed for a total wheel load of 2500 lbs. -- The treadways FWD of STA 160.00 and the walkway can be loaded to a total wheel load of 1000 lbs. -- Concentrated loads are not to exceed 75psi for pneumatic tires of 50psi for block or roller-type wheels.

Question 31

In accordance with the COMPARTMENT DATA in chp. 6, what consideration should be given to how far forward cargo is loaded and to which station?

Answer 31

In order to keep the emergency exits clear, it is recommended that cargo not be loaded forward of STA 160.00.

Question 32

When using the COOLS system to load a 463L pallets, do the pallets need to be secured with tie down straps?

Answer 32

COOLS have provisions for locking and securing each 463L pallets. This type of pallet does not need to be secured with tie down straps, but the cargo must be secured to the pallet.

Question 33

What is the location and purpose of the rubber vibration isolators?

Answer 33

-- The flooring in the cargo compartment contains sections on either side of the centerline which are strengthened to serve as vehicle treadways. -- The flooring, from STA 200.00 to 400.00 and from buttline 44.00 left to 44.00 right, rests on rubber vibration isolators which reduce overall internal load vibrations.

Question 34

What are the various speeds for the winch/hoist system?

Answer 34

-- The winch has 2 maximum reeling speeds: one for cargo loading (20 fpm) and one for hoisting (100 fpm). -- A selector control lever on the cable drum housing can be moved to CARGO or RESCUE.

Question 35

What are some possible causes of Hypemic Hypoxia?

Answer 35

-- Anemia and blood loss are the most common causes. -- Other possible causes include exposure to carbon monoxide, nitrates, and sulfa drugs that form compounds with and reduce the amount of hemoglobin available to combine with oxygen.

Question 36

What are some possible causes of Histotoxic Hypoxia?

Answer 36

Alcohol, narcotics, or a poison, such as cyanide, is inhaled (or can be ingested) and is delivered to the tissues by the blood where it poisons the tissues, keeping them from using the available oxygen.

Question 37

If you go to the dentist and receive a Novocain shot, how long are you grounded?

Answer 37

-- Medical restriction from flying duty will be a minimum period of 12 hours following any immunization. -- If any type of reaction occurs, local or systemic, the aircrew member remains restricted from flying duties until cleared by an aeromedical provider.

Question 38

What airspeed should the pilot adjust to prior to entering moderate turbulence? Severe turbulence?

Answer 38

-- In moderate turbulence, decrease A/S to Vne minus 10 KCAS or to max. range, whichever is slower. -- In severe turbulence, decrease A/S to Vne minus 15 KCAS or to max. range, whichever is slower.

Question 39

When entering moderate or severe turbulence, what should be done with the LCTs?

Answer 39

LCTs: Select MAN, then adjust both actuators for the A/S to be flown. This is accomplished to prevent the cyclic trim actuators from cycling.

Question 40

According to AR 95-1, is the RADAR ALTIMETER required for a day VMC flight?

Answer 40

-- Required if conducting water operations. -- Other than that, not required.

Question 41

Are both SFDs required for flight?

Answer 41

-- One SFD is required for VMC only if CAAS is 100% operational. -- If CAAS is operating with any MFD, CDU or DCS failure, both SFDs are required.

Question 42

What MFDs must be operational in order to fly VFR?

Answer 42

Minimum of 3 MFDs operational (1 and 4, plus 2 or 3)

Question 43

Shutting down the aircraft in the middle of the summer with a high OAT, what should be considered when bringing the engines to stop?

Answer 43

-- It may be necessary to motor the engines if temp. does not decrease below 350* C. -- It may not be possible to lower the temp. to 260* C. If temp. will not decrease below 260*, terminate motoring when temp. indication stabilizes.