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Flashcards in Administration and Management Deck (198)
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1
Q
Describe Random Error
A
due to chance and exists in all measurements.
2
Q
Describe systematic error
A
systematic error influences values consistently in one direction
3
Q
describe active error
A
active error occurs at the interface between a laboratorian and the patient samples
4
Q
describe latent errors
A
latent errors are related to the organization or design of a laboratory.
5
Q
This type of error is due to chance and can exist in all measurements.
A
random error
6
Q
This type of error influences values consistently in one direction.
A
systemic error
7
Q
This type of error occurs at the interface between a laboratorian and the patient sample.
A
active error
8
Q
This type of error is related to the organization or design of a laboratory.
A
Latent Error
9
Q
Name six sources of variation (factors that affect the measurement of an analyte):
A
1. sample error2. random analytical error3. method or instrument bias (analytical systemic error)4. operator error5. sample (day-to-day variation within a single patient)6. patient (patient variation - race, sex, age, health status)
10
Q
Using Westgard Rules, when would use a run as a warning and why?
A
1(2S) - accept the run; use as a warning when one control results exceeds 2 SD
11
Q
Define Reflex Testing.
A
The performance of a test on a patient specimen only after a particular analyte is abnormal or outside of a predetermined range. It includes follow-up testing automatically initiated when certain test results are observed in the laboratory; it is used to clarify or elaborate on primary test results.
12
Q
Give an example using sickle cell screening of reflex testing.
A
A positive sickle cell screen reflexes a hemoglobin electrophoresis.
13
Q
Give an example using leukocyte esterase of reflex testing.
A
A positive reagent strip leukocyte esterase reflexes a urine culture.
14
Q
Name Four Common Types of Error.
A
Random Error exists in all measurements and is due to chance.Systematic error influences values consistently in one direction.Active error occurs at the interface between a laboratorian and the patient samples.Latent errors are related to the organization or design of a laboratory.
15
Q
What are the main responsibilities of a laboratory director?
A
The lab director is responsible for the overall operation and administration of the laboratory and for assuring compliance with the applicable regulations.
16
Q
What happens in the case that a laboratory has more than one individual that qualifies as a director?
A
The laboratory is required to designate one individual who has ultimate responsibility for overall operation and administration of the laboratory.
17
Q
What are the five main overall management processes used in a clinical laboratory by the director?
A
1. planning and decision making2. organizing3. staffing4. controlling (monitoring and correcting)5. directing
18
Q
Summarize the Planning and Decision Making Duties of a laboratory director.
A
Determining the organizations goals and deciding how to best achieve them.
19
Q
Summarize the Organizing Duties of a laboratory director.
A
Determining how best to group activities and resources.
20
Q
Summarize the Staffing Duties of a laboratory director.
A
Finding, placing, and keeping the right staff
21
Q
Summarize the Controlling Duties of a laboratory director.
A
monitoring and correcting the ongoing activities to facilitate goal attainment.
22
Q
Summarize the Controlling Duties of a laboratory director.
A
monitoring and correcting ongoing activities to facilitate goal attainment.
23
Q
Summarize the Directing Duties of a laboratory director.
A
Telling people what to do and seeing that they do it.
24
Q
Describe a forecast budget.
A
where budget line items, such as salaries and benefits, are increased or decreased on the basis of a previous year's budget. This type of budget is based primarily on the number of tests performed in the laboratory. The budget for the next year is based on the revenues produced from the past year together with the expected forecast from the anticipated number of tests to be performed in the next year.
25
Q
Describe an Appropriation Budget.
A
where a fixed amount of money is granted for a fixed period of time, usually 1-2 years. This type of budget can cause shortfalls and inappropriate spending. This type of budgeting is most often associated with government bodies.
26
Q
What type of budget is most often associated with government bodies and can often cause shortfalls or inappropriate spending?
A
An Appropriation Budget.
27
Q
Describe a Flexible Budget.
A
where fixed (ie. overhead) and variable expenses (ie, reagents and consumables) are itemized. This type of budgeting is useful where a certain level of activity, such as test volume, is subject to change since the variable portion of the budget can be adjusted accordingly.
28
Q
What type of budgeting is useful where the level of activity, such as test volume, is subject to change?
A
Flexible budget
29
Q
Describe an Operational Budget.
A
used primarily by laboratory managers for the continuous operation of an organization.
30
Q
Describe a Capital Budget.
A
specifically designed for the purchase of equipment, expansion of a program or building, or remodeling.
31
Q
Describe a zero-based budget.
A
historical budget information is disregarded and each budget cost and revenue item is developed new. This process involves developing a description and ranking of all activities, ongoing and proposed. The highest ranked items are funded. Can be used to eliminate 'dead wood'.
32
Q
What type of budget can be used to rank items and fund the highest ranked items, which can be useful to eliminate 'dead wood'?
A
A Zero-Based Budget
33
Q
Fixed Costs / Test Price - Variable Costs
A
cost analysis formula for Tests to Break Even
34
Q
(Fixed Costs/Test Volume) + Variable Costs
A
cost analysis formula for Charge to Break Even
35
Q
Fixed Costs / (Test Price/Unit - Variable Cost/Unit)
A
Minimum to Break Even
36
Q
Fixed Costs / Contribution Margin %
A
Minimum to Break Even
37
Q
(Test Price/Unit - Variable Cost/Unit) / Test Price/Unit
A
Contribution Margin %
38
Q
Salary expenses (costs) account for approximately what percentage of the laboratory budget?
A
60 - 80%
39
Q
What costs are associated with Salary Costs?
A
hourly pay or salaried wagefringe benefitscosts associated with recruitment and selectionorientationinitial training costsongoing growth developmentcontinuing education
40
Q
What percentage of salary are fringe benefits?
A
20-25%
41
Q
Prime Costs
A
= direct labor + direct materials
42
Q
conversion costs
A
= direct labor + section overhead
43
Q
full production costs
A
= direct labor + direct materials + section overhead
44
Q
Ready to Serve Costs
A
= section overhead + collection and reporting + general laboratory overhead
45
Q
Fully Loaded Costs
A
= prime costs + ready to serve costs
46
Q
Describe financial accounting.
A
uses double entry bookkeeping and standard reporting forms and follows general accepted accounting principals. Looks at costs in aggregate and is useful for only external review.
47
Q
Describe cost accounting.
A
uses less formal rules, identifies costs on a unit basis and is useful only for internal purposes. permits assignment of costs to each revenue generating activity in the detail desired.
48
Q
Describe cost accounting.
A
uses less formal rules, identifies costs on a unit basis and is useful only for internal purposes. permits assignment of costs to each revenue generating activity in the detail desired.
49
Q
This type of accounting is useful for external review.
A
financial accounting
50
Q
This type of accounting is useful for internal purposes
A
cost accounting
51
Q
Describe Direct Costs.
A
those costs directly assigned to the production of a product, and in the case of a laboratory, the product is a billable test result. Includes consumables and supplies required to perform the test, technical labor related to performing the test and QC related to the test, and apportioned and depreciation equipment costs.
52
Q
Describe Indirect Costs
A
those costs not directly involved with the production of a billable test.
53
Q
Describe some of the items included in indirect costs.
A
costs to acquire specimens and bill for tests,major component is personnel costs,personnel time of those not performing the tests (ie. supervisor, phlebotomists, secretaries), office supplies,billing costs,courier service
54
Q
Describe Variable Costs
A
those costs which change with production volume
55
Q
Describe Fixed Costs
A
those costs that do not change with production volume
56
Q
Describe some of the items included in Fixed Costs
A
lease on equipment,building costs (rent, utilities),technologists needed for coverage regardless of work level,administrative overhead (client services, sales, marketing),management related supplies
57
Q
Describe three items included in administrative overhead.
A
client services, sales, and marketing
58
Q
Describe Prime Costs.
A
director labor and direct material costs which are necessary to produce a billable result.
59
Q
Describe Conversion Costs.
A
those costs necessary to produce a billable result without considering cost of materials.
60
Q
True or False: Under CLIA '88, not all laboratories are required to implement a quality assurance program to monitor and evaluate the overall quality of lab services.
A
False
61
Q
Describe a Quality Assessment program.
A
Used to monitor and evaluate the overall quality of laboratory services.
62
Q
What are the three main purposes for having a quality assessment program?
A
1. assess and improve the reliability and efficiency of the laboratory.2. ensure the highest possible quality of service is provided3. comply with regulatory requirements.
63
Q
True or False: A Quality Assessment Program does not have to address pre-analytical phases of laboratory operation.
A
False; a QA program must include all phases of laboratory operations including pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical.
64
Q
True or False: A laboratory must have written policies and procedures dealing with their quality assurance program.
A
True
65
Q
Name the five major goals associated with a quality assessment program.
A
1. ensure policies and procedures are effective and comply with lab laws and regulations.2. ensure accurate, reliable, and efficient performance of tests and test reporting.3. improve overall quality4. ensure a safe environment for patients and staff.5. meet the physician's need for rendering a diagnosis and treatment of patients
66
Q
Define "Critical indicators".
A
processes or events that reveal how well the laboratory is functioning
67
Q
Where in CLIA '88 can you find information describing specific areas of the laboratory that must be monitored by critical indicators?
A
CLIA '88, Subpart M
68
Q
What 8 categories should always have critical indicators?
A
1. appropriate utilization of services2. competency of personnel3. observed or reported incidents4. proficiency testing5. quality control6. Safety7. test management and performance8. user satisfaction
69
Q
What members of the laboratory should discuss the quality assurance reviews?
A
lab staff, lab director, and lab management
70
Q
The scope of a Quality Assurance procedures should address what aspects of the plan?
A
Who, What, Where, When, Why and How
71
Q
The HOW question addresses what portion of a Quality Assurance plan?
A
The method that will be used to collect the data to evaluate the critical indicator threshold or expectations.
72
Q
Name some examples of methods used to address the critical indicators of a Quality Assurance plan.
A
chart audits, laboratory test log reviews, corrective, remedial action log reviews, QC record reviews.
73
Q
Describe what elements are in a Quality Assurance plan.
A
Elements are the policies and procedures associated with each phase of testing.
74
Q
What represents the WHAT of a QA plan?
A
elements (policies and procedures associated with each phase of testing) are used to determine the critical indicators.
75
Q
What is the WHERE portion of a QA plan?
A
These are all the sites of a laboratory. These sites may include satellite clinics, draw sites, or stat laboratories.
76
Q
HOW can a laboratory achieve its QA plan?
A
A checklist that is reviewed monthly or quarterly can be used to cover many of the critical indicators. A log book of complaints that can be reviewed. A planned audit of patient charts can also be used to identify critical indicators.
77
Q
WHO should perform the Quality Assurance reviews?
A
The WHO will depend on the size of the laboratory.
78
Q
What seven items of information should be included in the documentation of QA activities?
A
1. Date of QA review, complaint or problem2. initials or name of the person conducting the review or investigating a complaint or problem3. scope or method of the review4. analysis of the problem5. written documentation of any corrective action taken6. a description of the effectiveness of the corrective action and date of the follow-up review7. documentation that the QA review has been discussed with the lab staff, director, and manager(s)
79
Q
How long should a lab retain QA documents?
A
2 years
80
Q
What is the purpose of laboratory Compliance Plans?
A
to assist hospitals, health systems, and their agents in devising internal controls that effectively foster adherence to applicable federal and state laws and regulations to program requirements of federal, state, and private health plans.
81
Q
What are the seven primary principals and elements of a lab Compliance Plan?
A
1. Written policies, procedures, and standards of conduct that promote the lab's commitment to compliance.2. A chief compliance officer and compliance committee with overall responsibility for developing, monitoring, updating, and enhancing the program.3. education and training of all employees4. ways that individuals can report suspected compliance violations anonymously5. a system to respond to allegations of illegal or improper activities and take appropriate disciplinary action against employees involved.6. internal monitoring, audits, and other evaluative methods to assess compliance efforts and reduce problems.7. investigation and correction of identified problems, as well as development of policies governing employment or retention of individuals sanctioned for healthcare fraud.
82
Q
What codes are important for identification of medical necessity?
A
ICD-9 codes (soon ICD-10)
83
Q
What is one thing the lab can do to assist with monitoring medical necessity?
A
the lab can develop a method to monitor test utilization over time to ensure that physicians are ordering only medically necessary tests.
84
Q
Who is responsible for identification of appropriate ICD-9 codes?
A
the lab should only use ICD-9 codes obtained from the ordering physician.
85
Q
What codes are used to designate diagnostic information?
A
ICD-9 or ICD-10
86
Q
True or False: Laboratories should use past information or computer programs that automatically insert ICD-9 codes without physician information.
A
False
87
Q
True or False: Laboratories should only bill for appropriate automated multi-channel chemistry tests.
A
True
88
Q
True or False: Laboratories should only bill for tests that were both ordered and performed.
A
True
89
Q
True or False: Laboratories are permitted to perform 'standing orders'.
A
True, but the lab must monitor their continued validity.
90
Q
Describe the Stark Law.
A
The Stark law prohibits a physician from making referrals for the furnishing of lab testing to a lab with which the physician or a family member has a financial relationship.
91
Q
True or False: The Stark Law allows for physicians to refer lab testing to a lab in which the physician has a financial relationship.
A
False
92
Q
True or False: A 'group practice' may allow a group of physicians to qualify for certain exceptions to the Stark Law.
A
True
93
Q
True or False: The Stark Law applies to Medicare and medicaid patiently only.
A
True
94
Q
True or False: The Stark Law allows labs to supply items to be used solely to collect or process specimens.
A
True
95
Q
True or False: The Stark Law does NOT allow laboratories to supply equipment to physicians solely to communicate test results.
A
False
96
Q
Who does the Anti-Kickback Statute penalize?
A
The anti-kickback statute penalizes anyone who knowingly solicits, receives, offers, or pays remuneration in cash or in kind support for referring patients for lab testing.
97
Q
Describe an inducement.
A
An inducement maybe anything of value not paid for at a fair market value.
98
Q
Does the Anti-kickback statute apply to Medicare and Medicaid services?
A
Yes
99
Q
Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?A phlebotomist performing other duties besides phlebotomy such as taking vital signs or other nursing functions.
A
Yes
100
Q
Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?A laboratory providing free pick-up and disposal of biohazardous waste unrelated to specimen collection.
A
Yes
101
Q
Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?A laboratory providing free pick-up and disposal of biohazardous waste related to specimen collection.
A
No.
102
Q
Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?Provision of computers used exclusively for the performance of laboratory work.
A
No.
103
Q
Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?Provision of computers and fax machines, unless used exclusively for the performance of outside laboratory work.
A
Yes
104
Q
Is this an example of an Anti-kickback statute violation?Providing free laboratory testing for physicians, their employees or family members.
A
Yes.
105
Q
What is HIPAA?
A
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996.
106
Q
When was HIPAA passed?
A
August 21, 1996
107
Q
What is another name for the 1996 HIPAA?
A
"Privacy Rule" or Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Health Information.
108
Q
What did the Standards for Privacy of Individually Identifiable Health Information establish?
A
for the first time, there is a set of national standards for teh protection of certain health information.
109
Q
What is included in protected health information?
A
1. the individual's past, present, or future physical or mental health or condition.2. the provision of health care to the individual.3. the past, present, or future payment for the provision of health care to the individual, and that identifies the individual.
110
Q
What common identifiers are included as identifiable health information?
A
name, address, birth date, social security number
111
Q
What covered entities are subject to the Privacy Rule?
A
Health care clearinghousehealth plan companieshealth care providers
112
Q
Under what circumstances is a laboratory considered a health care provider and subject to the Privacy Rule?
A
A lab is considered a covered entity if it conducts one or more covered transactions electronically, such as submitting health care claims or equivalent information to a health plan, requesting prior authorization, or sending eligibility inquiry to a heath plan to confirm the individual's coverage under that plan.
113
Q
How many days after a patient requests access their health information does the provider have to comply?
A
30 days
114
Q
What is required by a provider if they cannot give a patient access to their health information within the 30 day timeframe?
A
A covered laboratory may request one 30-day extension, if it provides the reason for the delay in writing to the requesting individual.
115
Q
How many extensions does the HIPAA Privacy Rule allow for an access request?
A
one
116
Q
True or False: An individual has the right to access his or her protected health information from both the referring laboratory and the laboratory that performed the test in the instance that a lab refers the specimen to another laboratory.
A
True
117
Q
True or False: When an individual requests protected health information, a laboratory is required to interpret the test results for the patient.
A
False
118
Q
What is a Confidence Interval?
A
A confidence interval is an estimated range of values calculated from the mean and standard deviation. It estimates the statistical probability of values falling above or below the mean value on a normal bell-shaped Gaussian curve. Often expressed as a percentage.
119
Q
What does a Confidence Interval estimate?
A
the statistical probability of values falling above or below the mean value on a normal bell-shaped Guassian curve.
120
Q
Given a mean (X) of 9.8 and a standard deviation (SD) of 0.2, calculate the 95% CI for the control.
A
= X + 2 SD= 9.8 + 2 (0.2)= 9.8 + 0.4= 9.8 - 0.4 = 9.4=9.8 + 0.4 = 10.2
121
Q
What is the formula for a 68% Confidence Interval?
A
X + 1 = 68%
122
Q
What is the formula for a 95% Confidence Interval?
A
95% = X + 2 SD
123
Q
What is the formula for a 99% Confidence Interval?
A
99% = X + 3 SD
124
Q
What is the coefficient of variation (CV)?
A
ratio of the standard deviation to the arithmetic mean
125
Q
What is the formula for Coefficience of Variation (CV)?
A
CV = (SD/mean) x 100
126
Q
What is the calculated coefficient of variation for the following:mean = 200SD = 5
A
CV = (SD/mean) x 100= (5/200) x 100= 2.5%
127
Q
What is standard deviation (SD)?
A
the root mean square deviation of the values from their mean;orthe square root of the variance
128
Q
Define a Chain of Custody.
A
Chain of custody refers to the chronological documentation, and/or paper trail, showing the procurement, custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of the specimen.
129
Q
What is the purpose of a chain of custody?
A
a chain of custody form is required for any specimen used as legal evidence in court.
130
Q
Describe a Competency Evaluation.
A
A competency evaluation is a process of documenting, usually in measurable terms, the employee's technical skills. Should be done annually.
131
Q
How often should employee competency be evaluated?
A
annually
132
Q
Describe Accreditation.
A
Accreditation is a voluntary process by which a non-governmental agency grants recognition to an organization that has achieved a set of predetermined standards.
133
Q
Describe Licensure.
A
Licensure is a mandatory process by which some states grant permission to an individual or organization to engage in a given occupation.
134
Q
Computer Network
A
collection of computers and other hardware interconnected by communication channels that allow sharing of resources and information.
135
Q
Network
A
collection of computers and other hardware interconnected by communication channels that allow sharing of resources and information.
136
Q
LAN
A
Local Area Network
137
Q
Local Area Network
A
computer network that interconnects computers in a limited area such as a health care facility, using network media.
138
Q
HIS
A
Hospital information system
139
Q
Hospital Information System
A
comprehensive, integrated information system designed to manage the medical, administrative, financial, and legal aspects of a hospital and its service processing.
140
Q
LIS
A
Laboratory Information System
141
Q
Laboratory Information System
A
series of computer programs that process, store, and manage data from all stages of laboratory process
142
Q
EMR
A
Electronic Medical Record
143
Q
Electronic Medical Record
A
computerized medical record created in a health care organization
144
Q
intranet
A
computer network that uses internet technology to share information, operational systems or computing services within an organization
145
Q
HTML
A
HyperText markup Language
146
Q
HyperText Markup Language
A
main markup language for displaying web pages and other information that can be displayed in a web browser.
147
Q
What is the main markup language that can be used to display web pages and other information to be displayed in a web browser?
A
HyperText Markup Language (HTML)
148
Q
HTTP
A
HyperText Transfer Protocol
149
Q
HyperText Transfer Protocol
A
HTTP is an application protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems. it is the foundation of the world wide web.
150
Q
CPOE
A
Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE)
151
Q
Computerized Provider Order Entry (CPOE)
A
CPOE is a computerized process for health care providers to electronically enter and order medical procedures and laboratory tests based on a predetermined algorithm.
152
Q
CPT
A
Current Procedural Terminology
153
Q
What is the purpose of Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) codes?
A
The purpose of CPT is to provide a uniform language accurately describing medical, surgical, and diagnostic services.
154
Q
Do CPT codes serve as a type of communication nationwide within the health care industry?
A
yes
155
Q
Name two reason that a CPT code might have a modifier.
A
1. a service or procedure has both a technical and professional component2. a service or procedure was performed by more than one physician and/or in more than one location
156
Q
What does a -26 CPT code modifier stand for?
A
26 - Professional Component
157
Q
What does a -59 CPT code modifier stand for?
A
59 - Distinct Procedural Service
158
Q
What does a -91 CPT code modifier stand for?
A
91 - Repeat Clinical Diagnostic Laboratory Test
159
Q
In the interpretation of a Levey-Jennings plot, what does shift refer to?
A
6 consecutive points on one side of the mean
160
Q
In the interpretation of a Levey-Jennings plot, what does trend refer to?
A
6 consecutive points increasing or decreasing that may cross the mean
161
Q
What three types of error are included as sources of variation?
A
1. sample error2. random analytical error3. operatory error
162
Q
What are the six sources of variation?
A
1. sample error2. random analytical error3. operatory error4. method or instrument bias5. sample or day-to-day variation within a single patient6. patient (race, sex, age, health status)
163
Q
What is a laboratory's main method for external quality control?
A
Proficiency Testing
164
Q
What does proficiency testing verify?
A
A laboratory's accuracy
165
Q
Proficiency testing specimens should be testing by whom in the lab?
A
routine testing personnel during routine testing
166
Q
Should proficiency testing samples be tested with patient samples?
A
yes
167
Q
Should aliquotes of proficiency samples be saved?
A
yes, in the case that a re-assay is necessary
168
Q
Define a reference range.
A
A reference range is a collection of normal values for a constituent of clinical interest.
169
Q
What did CLIA '88 establish?
A
CLIA '88 established quality standards for all laboratory testing to ensure the accuracy, reliability, and timeliness of patient test results regardless of where the test was performed.
170
Q
When did the final CLIA laboratory regulations become effective?
A
2003
171
Q
What governmental agency was responsible for publishing the final CLIA regulations in 2003?
A
Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)
172
Q
How long are CLIA certificates effective?
A
2 years
173
Q
Where could one find a complete list of CLIA waived tests?
A
www.fda.gov
174
Q
What three types of records must be retained for 2 years according to CLIA '88?
A
1. QC2. patient test records3. quality assessment records
175
Q
What is included as part of an original report, according to CLIA '88?
A
final, preliminary, and corrected reports
176
Q
Do laboratory's that close down or cease operation have to make provisions to ensure that records, blocks, and slides are available for the determined record retention requirements?
A
yes
177
Q
What does CLIA '88 consider a device?
A
Instrument, kit, or test sytem
178
Q
What CFR regulation is related to OSHA?
A
CFR 1910.1030
179
Q
CFR
A
Code of Federal Regulations
180
Q
How long must the record of training for shipping of infectious substances be retained following employee termination?
A
1 year
181
Q
OHSA
A
Occupational Safety and Health Administration
182
Q
GHS
A
The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals
183
Q
What is GHS?
A
The Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals is a system for standardizing and harmonizing the classification and labelling of chemicals.
184
Q
The GHS document is also referred to as what?
A
The Purple Book
185
Q
What was the international madate?
A
The single most important driving force behind the creation of the GHS (Global Harmonized System of Classification and Labelling of Chemicals)
186
Q
When was the International Mandate, which was responsible for the creation of the GHS (Global Harmonized System of Classification of Chemicals) adopted?
A
1992 at the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED)
187
Q
What is another name for the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED), where the International Mandate was created?
A
Earth Summit
188
Q
When was the first version of the GHS formally adopted?
A
December 2003
189
Q
When was the GHS first endorsed and by whom?
A
The GHS (Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals) was endorsed in July 2003 by the UN Economic and Social Council.
190
Q
What more recently adopted hazardous chemical labeling requirements has OSHA used to align with the United Nations Globally Harmonized System of Classification and Labeling of Chemicals (GHS)?
A
Hazardous Communications Standard (HCS), 29 CFR 1910.1200
191
Q
What rule did OSHA publish in 1990 which requires laboratories to ensure that exposure to hazardous chemicals are within permissible exposure limits (PELs)?
A
Occupational Exposures to Hazardous Chemicals in Laboratories
192
Q
What are five examples in which one would need a chain of custody?
A
1. legal blood alcohol to prosecute DUI cases2. DOT drug testing3. paternity testing4. DNA analysis5. rape cases
193
Q
Name two examples of common reflex tests?
A
1. positive sickle screen reflexes to Hgb electrophoresis2. positive ANA (antinuclear antibodies - allergies) test reflexes an ANA profile3. positive urinalysis results to a urine culture
194
Q
What is the definition of reflex testing?
A
The test is performed on a patient sample only after a particular analyte is abnormal or outside of a predetermined range.
195
Q
CPT
A
Current Procedural Terminology
196
Q
Name two major components of pre-analytical testing.
A
1. lab requisition
2. specimen collection, transport, storage
197
Q
Name three major components of analytical testing.
A
1. calibration
2. QC
3. specimen integrity
198
Q
Name two major components of post-analytical testing.
A
1. test records
2. test report