Adult 3 N2550 Unit2 Flashcards
(170 cards)
1
Q
Vasodilators
A
Nitroglycerin
Morphine
Isosorbide dinitrate
Isosorbide mononitrate
Nitroprusside
Indications: HTN/CP
2
Q
Inotropes
A
Dobutamine
milrinone
Indications: HF
3
Q
Cardiac glycosides
A
Digoxin
Indications: HR, dysthymias
4
Q
Vasopressors
A
Dopamine
norepinephrine
Vasopressin
Phenylephrine
Indications: raise BP
5
Q
Antiplatelets
A
ASA
Clipidogrel
Keeps platelets from sticking together, used to prevent not dissolve existing clots, reduces risk of future stroke, MI
6
Q
Anticoagulants
A
Heparin
Enoxaprin
warfarin
Novel oral anticoagulants
Rivaroxaban
Apixaban
Blood thinners used to prevent not dissolve existing clots, heparin, and Lovenox used in acute care Setting keeps blood thin enough until client can get to surgery. Coumadin used in the home setting.
7
Q
Thrombolytics
A
Alteplase
Clot busters
Within six hours of MI risk for reperfusion dysrhythmia as decreases size of MI indicated for chest pain longer than 30 minutes unrelieved by nitroglycerin
STEMI
8
Q
Diuretics
A
Furosemide
Bumetadine
Indications: HF
Excess fluid volume
Renal insufficiency
Decreases circulating volume by promoting diuresis
9
Q
Statins
A
Lovastatin
Atrovastatin
Simvastatin
Indications: high cholesterol
10
Q
Ace inhibitors
A
Lisinopril
Captopril
Decrease SVR WITHOUT increasing
Cardiac output
HR
Improves outcomes in HF Pts
11
Q
Angiotensin receptor blockers (ARB’s)
A
Olmesartan
Indications:
Similar to ACE, (given when there is an intolerance to ACE-I)
12
Q
Beta blockers
A
Metoprolol
Atenolol
Propranolol
Carvedilol
Slows HR and decreases force of contraction
Indications: antiarrhythmic
HTN
POST-CABG
13
Q
Calcium channel blockers
A
Amlodipine
Diltiazem
Promotes vasodilation & myocardial perfusion
Diltiazem-Blocks CC’s slowing rate of conduction through AV node
Indications: Afib
HTN
ANgina (chronic, stable)
14
Q
2B/3A Inhibitors
A
Abciximab
Tirofiban
Eptifibatide
Indications: MI
PCI
anti-platelet medications that prevent platelets from aggregating at side of MI
15
Q
Angiotensin receptor neprilysin Inhibitor (ARNI) Hormone regulates BP
A
Sacubitril/valsartan
Combination medication used in place of ACE-I and ARB
Indications: HF
16
Q
MI
A
Assessment:
Physical
Hx
Vital signs
EKG
blood draws
IV Access
17
Q
Meds/interventions for MI
A
THROMBINS2
2-Thienopyridines
2-heparin/enoxaparin
4-RAS-Renin-Angiotensin-Aldosterone System
ACE-Inhibitors- prevents development of HFa d ventricular remodeling
Oxygen
Morphine
Beta blockers
IV:
Nitro
Salicylates
Statins
Other:
Thrombilytics (TPA, alteplase)
2B/3A Inhibitors
18
Q
MI
A
S/S:
Chest Pain
Radiation to left arm, neck, back
Increase BP
Respiratory:
SOB
CRACKLES IN lungs
Tachypnea
General:
N/V
Anxiety
Weakness
Cool, clammy, diaphoretic skin
Grey or ashen appearance
Fear of impending doom
19
Q
MI
A
Labs/Diagnostics
Troponin elevation
WBC
Potassium
BUN
Cr
PTT
PT
INR
EKG
Chest X-Ray
CK marathon runner
CK MB SVT
STEMI
NSTEMI
20
Q
Coronary artery disease
Risk factors
A
Risk factors:
Smoking (M)
HTN (M)
Increased lipid levels (both)
Diabetes (both)
Family hx (M)
Metabolic syndrome (enlarged waist, high triglycerides, low HDL, HTN, elevated fasting glucose)
21
Q
Coronary artery disease
Prevention and EDU
A
Quit smoking
Low fat diet
Monitor cholesterol levels
Exercise
Manage BP
Manage DM
Medications if necessary
Be mindful of family hx
22
Q
Coronary artery disease
Ischemia: lack of oxygen that occurs with angina. can lead to injury or necrosis
Chronic stable angina
A
Predictable
Brought on by exertion
Relieved by rest
Last less than 15 minutes
Interventions:
Treat the angina (nitro)
Prevent pain
Reduce anxiety
*Rarely requires aggressive therapy *
23
Q
Coronary artery disease
Ischemia: lack of oxygen that occurs with angina. can lead to injury or necrosis
Acute Coronary Syndrome
Unstable Angina
A
Pain at rest or exertion
Causes activity limitations
Can progress to an MI
Increases in severity and frequency
Interventions:
Obtain EKG
EKG may show abnormalities but by definition there is no ST segment elevation
Nitro sub times three
02
Obtain labs
No changes, troponin or cardiac markers
Educate client
If at home and pay not relieved prior to third nitro contact EMS
24
Q
Coronary artery disease
Ischemia: lack of oxygen that occurs with angina. can lead to injury or necrosis
Acute Coronary Syndrome
MI
A
Myocardial Infarction (MI)
See MI map
25
What is Lidocaine (Lidoderm) used for?
Local anesthesia
## Footnote
Lidocaine is primarily used for local anesthesia and pain relief.
26
What are the primary effects of Epinephrine?
* ↑HR
* ↑BP
* ↑blood sugar
* dilates airways
## Footnote
Epinephrine is used in allergic reactions, asthma attacks, and cardiac arrest.
27
What is the purpose of Midazolam (versed)?
Produces sleepiness or drowsiness and relieves anxiety before surgery
## Footnote
It is often used for sedation during procedures.
28
What condition is Dopamine (inotropin) primarily used to treat?
Hypotension and low cardiac output
## Footnote
It is particularly used in septic shock patients.
29
What is Succinylcholine (anectine) used for?
Skeletal muscle relaxation during intubation
## Footnote
It is a depolarizing muscle relaxant used adjunctly to anesthesia.
30
What does Atropine sulfate (atropine) do?
Blocks nerve stimulation of muscles and glands
## Footnote
It increases heart rate and reduces secretions.
31
What is the primary use of Dobutamine (dobutrex)?
Increase the strength of the heart muscle
## Footnote
It is used to treat congestive heart failure.
32
What is Mannitol (osmitrol) primarily used to treat?
Intracranial pressure and cerebral edema
## Footnote
It acts as a diuretic to reduce brain mass.
33
What is the function of Albuterol (pro air)?
Bronchodilator that relaxes airway muscles
## Footnote
It makes breathing easier for patients with respiratory conditions.
34
What condition does Diltiazem (cardizem) treat?
High blood pressure and angina
## Footnote
It is a calcium channel blocker.
35
What is Nitroprusside sodium (Nipride) used for?
Management of acute hypertension
## Footnote
It is a potent vasodilator administered via IV infusion.
36
What is Propofol (diprivan) used for?
Anesthetic and sedative for surgery
## Footnote
It helps patients relax or sleep during medical procedures.
37
How does Adenosine (adenocard) help in cardiology?
Dilates heart arteries and increases blood flow
## Footnote
It helps identify coronary artery disease.
38
What is the action of Phenylephrine (neo synephrine)?
Increases blood pressure and slows heart rate
## Footnote
It causes constriction of blood vessels.
39
What does Naloxone (Narcan) do?
Rapidly reverses an opioid overdose
## Footnote
It is crucial in emergency situations involving opioids.
40
What condition does Vasopressin (pitressin) treat?
Diabetes insipidus and stomach bloating
## Footnote
It reduces urine production and tightens blood vessels.
41
What are the effects of Norepinephrine (levophed)?
* ↑BP
* Vasoconstrictor
* Mood concentration
## Footnote
It is used in septic shock and hypotension.
42
What is Amiodarone (cordarone) used for?
Prevents and treats irregular heartbeat
## Footnote
It stabilizes heart rhythm.
43
What is the purpose of Eptifibatide (integrillin)?
Prevents blood clots in heart arteries
## Footnote
It is used after certain types of chest pain and heart attacks.
44
What does Aggrastat (tirofiban) do?
Prevents platelets from coagulating
## Footnote
It is used to prevent blood clots or heart attacks.
45
What is right-sided heart failure?
A condition where the right side of the heart cannot pump blood effectively to the lungs.
46
List common symptoms of right-sided heart failure.
* Swelling in the legs and ankles
* Abdominal swelling
* Fatigue
* Rapid or irregular heartbeat
* Increased urination at night
47
True or False: Right-sided heart failure can cause fluid build-up in the abdomen.
True
48
Fill in the blank: A common symptom of right-sided heart failure is _______.
swelling in the legs and ankles
49
What can increased urination at night indicate?
It may indicate right-sided heart failure.
50
What is the primary function of the right side of the heart?
To pump deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
51
List two consequences of right-sided heart failure.
* Fluid retention
* Decreased oxygenation of blood
52
True or False: Fatigue is not a symptom of right-sided heart failure.
False
53
Fill in the blank: Rapid or irregular heartbeat can be a symptom of _______.
right-sided heart failure
54
What does abdominal swelling in right-sided heart failure result from?
Fluid accumulation.
55
What is Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)?
A condition caused by an acute lung injury or other conditions, leading to impaired gas exchange and hypoxemia
## Footnote
ARDS is not an independent disease but a syndrome resulting from various precipitating factors.
56
What are common causes of acute lung injury that can lead to ARDS?
* Aspiration * Pneumonia * Drowning * Shock * Sepsis * Burns * Trauma
## Footnote
These conditions can either be lung-related or non-lung-related.
57
What is the function of the alveolar capillary membrane?
To exchange gases and prevent fluid, debris, and protein from entering the lungs
## Footnote
The membrane's injury in ARDS allows harmful substances to infiltrate the alveoli.
58
What happens to the alveoli in ARDS?
They become flooded with fluid, impairing gas exchange
## Footnote
This flooding is a result of the injury to the alveolar capillary membrane.
59
What is the significance of decreased pulmonary compliance in ARDS?
It indicates that the lungs are stiff and less pliable due to flooded alveoli
## Footnote
Decreased compliance leads to difficulty in expanding the lungs during inhalation.
60
List the key characteristics of ARDS.
* Hypoxemia despite 100% FIO2 * Decreased pulmonary compliance * Bilateral pulmonary edema * Dense infiltrates on chest x-ray * Impaired gas exchange
## Footnote
These characteristics are crucial for diagnosing and understanding ARDS.
61
What diagnostic tool is essential for identifying ARDS?
Chest x-ray
## Footnote
Chest x-rays show the characteristic 'snowy' appearance due to infiltrates from fluid in the lungs.
62
True or False: Initial lung sounds in ARDS patients are always abnormal.
False
## Footnote
Initially, lung sounds may not be significantly abnormal due to fluid being in the interstitial airways.
63
What is the primary intervention for ARDS?
Prevention of the conditions that cause ARDS
## Footnote
Once ARDS develops, intubation and mechanical ventilation are often necessary.
64
What are common ventilator settings for patients with ARDS?
* Low tidal volume * High PEEP
## Footnote
These settings help manage fluid in the airways and improve oxygenation.
65
What is prone positioning in the context of ARDS treatment?
Placing patients on their stomach to improve lung recruitment and gas exchange
## Footnote
This technique has gained popularity, especially during the COVID-19 pandemic.
66
Fill in the blank: ARDS can lead to _______ despite high levels of supplemental oxygen.
[hypoxemia]
## Footnote
This is due to the impaired gas exchange caused by fluid in the alveoli.
67
What does a chest x-ray of a patient with ARDS typically look like?
It appears 'snowy' with dense infiltrates indicating fluid in the alveoli
## Footnote
The cardiac silhouette may be less distinct due to the overlay of infiltrates.
68
What is the role of BNP in differentiating ARDS from heart failure?
A BNP test can indicate heart failure, which may present similarly on a chest x-ray
## Footnote
Elevated BNP levels suggest heart failure rather than ARDS.
69
What are the four or five ventilator settings a bedside nurse must know?
Rate, Tidal Volume, FIO2, PEEP, Pressure Support
## Footnote
These settings are essential for managing patients on a ventilator.
70
What does the rate setting on a ventilator indicate?
The number of breaths per minute the ventilator will deliver.
71
What is the typical tidal volume range for an adult?
550 to 650 mL, based on ideal body weight.
72
What does FIO2 stand for?
Fraction of inspired oxygen delivered by the ventilator.
73
What is PEEP?
Positive End Expiratory Pressure.
74
What is the purpose of pressure support in ventilator settings?
To provide positive pressure to assist patients when they initiate a breath.
75
Which ventilator mode is associated with pressure support?
SIME.
76
What is the primary difference between assist control and SIME?
Assist control delivers a set tidal volume regardless of patient effort, while SIME allows the patient to determine their tidal volume during spontaneous breaths.
77
True or False: Assist control is used primarily for weaning patients off ventilators.
False.
78
What is a spontaneous breathing trial?
A test to see if a patient can breathe independently by adjusting ventilator settings to allow for self-breathing.
79
What is the goal of monitoring ABGs in ventilated patients?
To assess the patient's respiratory status and guide ventilator adjustments.
80
What is the importance of suctioning in ventilated patients?
To clear secretions and maintain airway patency.
81
What is the maximum time recommended for in-line suctioning?
10 seconds.
82
How often should oral care be performed on ventilated patients?
At least every 8 hours.
83
What is the recommended cuff pressure for endotracheal tubes?
20 to 25 mmHg.
84
What should be done every two hours for ventilated patients?
Turning the patient.
85
Fill in the blank: The ventilator settings must be checked regularly by the _______.
bedside nurse.
86
What can happen if the cuff pressure is too high?
It can injure the bronchus.
87
What is a common complication associated with mechanical ventilation?
Ventilator-associated pneumonia.
88
What should be done if a patient is on 90% FIO2 and a high PEEP?
They may not be suitable for extubation.
89
What is the significance of monitoring hemodynamics in ventilated patients?
To assess cardiovascular status and response to treatment.
90
What is a common concern when repositioning a patient on maximum ventilator support?
Risk of tension pneumothorax or squeezing the heart due to increased intrathoracic pressure
## Footnote
This can lead to severe complications and is often advised against in critical care.
91
How often should the endotracheal tube be manipulated to prevent pressure sores?
Every eight hours
## Footnote
This involves moving the tube left, right, and center to avoid constant pressure on the same spot.
92
When should tube feeding be considered for a patient on the ventilator?
If the patient is expected to be on the ventilator for 48 hours or more
## Footnote
This is to ensure proper nutrition and prevent complications.
93
What position should the head of the bed be in for patients with an NG tube receiving tube feeding?
30 degrees elevated
## Footnote
This position helps reduce the risk of aspiration.
94
What is a critical aspect of assessment for patients on ventilators?
They cannot communicate symptoms, so assessment relies on observing other indicators
## Footnote
This includes checking for signs of internal bleeding or discomfort.
95
What is a major complication associated with high PEEP settings?
Hypotension due to increased intrathoracic pressure
## Footnote
High PEEP can reduce preload and blood pressure.
96
What is barotrauma in the context of mechanical ventilation?
Damage to lung tissue caused by high pressure from PEEP
## Footnote
This can lead to pneumothorax formation.
97
What are signs of a tension pneumothorax?
Tracheal deviation away from the affected side
## Footnote
This is a medical emergency requiring immediate intervention.
98
What is volutrauma?
Damage to one lung caused by inadvertent one-lung intubation
## Footnote
This can result in inadequate ventilation of the other lung.
99
What should be done immediately after a patient self-extubates?
Bag the patient and call for help
## Footnote
This ensures the patient maintains oxygenation while assistance is summoned.
100
What is the goal of reducing ventilator support for intubated patients?
To extubate the patient safely
## Footnote
This involves daily spontaneous breathing trials and monitoring tolerance.
101
What is the preferred type of feeding tube for a patient on a ventilator?
OG tube over NG tube
## Footnote
This is preferred to reduce the risk of maxillary sinusitis.
102
What are components of the ventilator bundle to prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia?
* Daily spontaneous breathing trials
* Head of bed elevation
* Oral care
* Peptic ulcer disease prophylaxis
* Use of OG tubes when intubated
## Footnote
These practices help reduce the risk of complications.
103
What does PEEP stand for?
Positive End Expiratory Pressure
## Footnote
It helps keep alveoli open and improves oxygenation.
104
Why is PEEP important for patients on ventilators?
It helps prevent alveolar collapse and improves gas exchange
## Footnote
Alveoli are most prone to collapse at the end of expiration.
105
What is Respiratory Acidosis?
Decreased lung ventilation that results in a high carbon dioxide level & low blood pH.
106
What are the causes of Respiratory Acidosis?
It can occur due to problems with breathing rate (too slow), alveolar sacs (damaged), or diaphragm (weak).
107
What is the main cause of Respiratory Acidosis?
Bradypnea (depressed respiratory rate < 12 bpm) causing CO2 to build up in the lungs.
108
What are the lab values for Respiratory Acidosis?
Blood pH: <7.35, Carbon dioxide (PaCO2): >45 mmHg, Bicarbonate (HCO3-): Normal or elevated (>26 mEq/L).
109
How do the kidneys compensate for Respiratory Acidosis?
The kidneys can conserve bicarbonate (HCO3-, a base) and excrete hydrogen ions (acids) to increase blood pH back to normal.
110
What are the major neurological signs and symptoms of Respiratory Acidosis?
Confused, very drowsy, & report a headache.
111
What are other signs and symptoms of Respiratory Acidosis?
Low oxygen level (hypoxia), respiration rate less than 12 bpm, increased heart rate, hypotension, increased carbon dioxide levels.
112
What drugs can contribute to Respiratory Acidosis?
Opioids or sedatives & diseases of the neuromuscular system (e.g., Guillain-Barré syndrome).
113
What are some conditions that can lead to Respiratory Acidosis?
Pulmonary edema, pneumonia, damage to the respiratory center of the brain (stroke), emphysema, spasms of bronchial tubes (asthma), and damaged sac elasticity (COPD).
114
What are the nursing interventions for Respiratory Acidosis?
Administer oxygen, assess respirations and neuro status, encourage coughing and deep breathing, provide suctioning and mouth care, may need respiratory treatments like bronchodilators, hold meds that depress respirations, monitor K+ levels, administer antibiotics for infection, may need endotracheal intubation if CO2 becomes severely elevated.
115
What should be considered when administering oxygen to patients with chronic acidosis?
Be careful with O2 administration as their body has compensated for high CO2 levels; low O2 levels guide their respiratory function.
116
What is Respiratory Alkalosis?
Increased lung ventilation that results in a low carbon dioxide level & high blood pH.
117
What is the main cause of Respiratory Alkalosis?
Tachypnea (fast respiratory rate >20 bpm), which causes too much CO2 to be exhaled.
118
What are some causes of Respiratory Alkalosis?
Temperature increase (fever), Aspirin toxicity (salicylates), Pneumothorax (collapsed lung), Ascending in altitude (low oxygen levels).
119
What are the lab values for Respiratory Alkalosis?
Blood pH: >7.45, Carbon dioxide (PaCO2): <35 mmHg, Bicarbonate (HCO3-): Normal or decreased (<22 mEq/L).
120
What is the goal of the kidneys in Respiratory Alkalosis?
To help compensate and correct alkalosis, the kidneys may start to excrete bicarbonate (HCO3-) and retain hydrogen ions (acids).
121
What is a major sign of Respiratory Alkalosis?
Fast respiratory rate.
122
What are some signs and symptoms of Respiratory Alkalosis?
Neurological changes (anxiety, fear, dizziness, seizures), increased heart rate, tetany, muscle cramps, dysrhythmias.
123
What should be monitored in patients with Respiratory Alkalosis?
Electrolytes for hypokalemia & hypocalcemia.
124
What nursing interventions can be taken for Respiratory Alkalosis?
Rebreather mask or paper bag to slow down breathing, sedatives or anti-anxiety meds to relieve anxiety, teach relaxation and stress de-escalation techniques.
125
What is the normal adult respiratory rate range?
12-20 bpm.
126
What is tachypnea?
A respiratory rate greater than 20 bpm.
127
What is Metabolic Acidosis?
Increase of acids in the body that results in a low blood pH and low bicarbonate level.
128
What are the causes of Metabolic Acidosis?
1. Increased acid production
2. Decreased acid excretion
129
What are examples of increased acid production?
1. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
2. Lactic acidosis (sepsis)
3. Chronic diarrhea
130
What is Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
A condition characterized by high ketones and loss of too much bicarbonate due to diarrhea.
131
What happens in renal failure related to Metabolic Acidosis?
High amount of waste is left in the body, causing acids to increase and bicarbonate can't control the imbalance.
132
What are the lab values for Metabolic Acidosis?
1. Blood pH: <7.35
2. Bicarbonate (HCO3-): <22 mEq/L
3. Carbon dioxide (PaCO2): Normal or decreased <35 mmHg, if compensating
133
What is Kussmaul's respirations?
Deep, fast respirations that help exhale more CO2 to increase pH to normal.
134
What are the signs and symptoms of Metabolic Acidosis?
1. Main sign: Kussmaul's respirations
2. Confusion
3. Weakness
4. Low blood pressure
5. Cardiac changes (hyperkalemia)
135
What nursing interventions are needed for Metabolic Acidosis?
1. Find the cause and correct it.
2. Monitor respiratory system.
3. Assess electrolyte levels, especially potassium.
136
What should be monitored in Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA)?
Monitor for hypokalemia because insulin moves potassium inside the cell.
137
What IV fluids may be ordered for Metabolic Acidosis?
1. Sodium bicarbonate
2. 0.9% Sodium Chloride (isotonic)
3. Dialysis may be needed if due to renal failure.
138
What is Metabolic Alkalosis?
A decrease of acid or increase of bicarbonate in the body that results in a high blood pH.
139
What are the lab values for Metabolic Alkalosis?
Blood pH: >7.45
Bicarbonate (HCO3-): >26 mEq/L
Carbon dioxide (PaCO2): Normal or increased (>45 mmHg)
140
What causes Metabolic Alkalosis?
Excessive loss of acids (hydrogen ions) and increased amount of bicarbonate (HCO3-).
141
What are some causes of acid loss leading to Metabolic Alkalosis?
Acid loss via stomach due to suction or vomiting, low chloride level, and potassium loss (hypokalemia).
142
How does the body compensate for Metabolic Alkalosis?
By stimulating the respiratory system to hypoventilate, which keeps more CO2, increasing carbonic acid production and H+.
143
What are the signs and symptoms of Metabolic Alkalosis?
Bradypnea, dysrhythmias, tetany, tremors, muscle cramping, tiredness, and irritability.
144
What nursing interventions are recommended for Metabolic Alkalosis?
Find the cause and correct it. Monitor ECG, respiratory status, and neuro status; monitor electrolytes; administer replacements; give antiemetics if vomiting; hold diuretics that worsen alkalosis.
145
What medication may be ordered for Metabolic Alkalosis?
Acetazolamide (Diamox), a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor and diuretic that reduces bicarbonate reabsorption.
146
What is an acid?
A material that, once broken down in a solution, creates hydrogen ions (H+).
## Footnote
Examples include carbon dioxide, carbonic acid, and hydrogen ions.
147
What is acidosis?
Conditions that cause high acid production in the body, decreasing blood pH to less than 7.35.
## Footnote
Similar terms: acidotic, acid, acidic.
148
What is alkalosis?
Conditions that cause low acid or high base production in the body, increasing blood pH to more than 7.45.
## Footnote
Similar terms: alkalotic, alkaline, basic, base.
149
What is arterial blood gas (ABG)?
A blood test collected from an artery that assesses oxygenation and acid-base status of a patient.
150
What is a base?
A material that neutralizes acids by binding with hydrogen ions (H+).
## Footnote
An example in the body is bicarbonate (HCO3-).
151
What is bradypnea?
A respiratory rate of less than 12 breaths per minute in an adult.
152
What is carbon dioxide (CO2)?
An acid that is a waste product from metabolism and represents the respiratory system.
153
What is the Carbonic Acid-Bicarbonate Buffer System?
A buffer system that helps maintain the 20:1 ratio of bases vs. acids.
154
What does HCO3- represent?
A base that neutralizes acids and represents the renal system (metabolic).
155
What are hydrogen ions?
Acids that are the end result of the breakdown of proteins, fats, and carbs.
156
What is hyperkalemia?
A high potassium level in the blood that is greater than 5 mEq/L.
157
What is hypokalemia?
A low potassium level in the blood that is less than 3.5 mEq/L.
158
What is Kussmaul's breathing?
Deep, fast breathing that helps exhale carbon dioxide and can be noted during acidosis.
159
What is metabolic acidosis?
Increase of acids in the body that results in a low blood pH and a low bicarbonate level.
160
What is metabolic alkalosis?
Decrease of acids or increase of bicarbonate in the body that results in a high blood pH.
161
What is the Modified Allen test?
A test performed before ABG sampling of the radial artery to assess collateral blood flow to the hand.
162
What does PaCO2 measure?
Partial pressure of carbon dioxide in arterial blood.
163
What does PaO2 measure?
Partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood that measures the amount of oxygen dissolved in the arterial blood.
164
What is pH (potential of hydrogen)?
Measures the acidity of the blood by assessing the concentration of hydrogen ions (H+) in the blood.
165
What is respiratory acidosis?
Decreased lung ventilation that results in high carbon dioxide levels & a low blood pH.
166
What is respiratory alkalosis?
Increased lung ventilation that results in low carbon dioxide levels & a high blood pH.
167
What does the R.O.M.E method stand for?
Respiratory opposite metabolic equal, a method used to solve arterial blood gas problems.
168
What does SaO2 measure?
Saturation of oxygen in arterial blood that measures the percentage of binding sites available on hemoglobin that is bound with oxygen.
169
What is tachypnea?
A respiratory rate greater than 20 breaths per minute in an adult.
170
What is the tic-tac-toe method?
A method used to solve arterial blood gas problems that is similar to the childhood game.
