Adult

Question 1

What do cotton wool spots on eye exam indicate?

Answer 1

hypertension

Question 2

What is the most & second most frequently used topical antibiotic for acne?

Answer 2

Clindamycin & Erythromycin

Question 3

What is the most common skin cancer?

Answer 3

basal cell carcinoma

Question 4

yellow plaques as a result of fat build up under the skin, usually near the inner canthus of the eye; hyperlipidemia is the underlying cause

Answer 4

Xanthelasma

Question 5

What condition? Wickham’s striae with purplish flat bumps, painful sores in & around the mouth or on the genitals, itching

Answer 5

lichen planus

Question 6

What antibiotics for anthrax?

Answer 6

penicillin, cipro, or doxycycline

Question 7

4 labs diagnostic of DM

Answer 7

fasting sugar >=126 ; random sugar >= 200 w/ signs of hyperglycemia ; sugar >= 200 2 hours after glucose load ; HgbA1C >= 6.5

Question 8

Hyper- or Hypothyroidism? Grave’s disease

Answer 8

Hyperthyroidism

Question 9

Hyper- or Hypothyroidism? Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

Answer 9

Hypothyroidism

Question 10

What condition? “Fast” ; “Overdrive” ; “keep your foot on the gas pedal, go to your grave”

Answer 10

hyperthyroidism (Grave’s disease)

Question 11

Hyper- or Hypothyroidism? Thyroid crisis

Answer 11

hyperthyroidism

Question 12

Hyper- or Hypothyroidism? Myxedema coma

Answer 12

hypothyroidism

Question 13

What medication is important to avoid in a thyroid crisis?

Answer 13

ASA - can exacerbate problem

Question 14

What is the cure for hyperparathyroidism?

Answer 14

parathyroidectomy

Question 15

Hyper- or Hypoparathyroidism? Increased calcium, Decreased phosphorus

Answer 15

hyperparathyroidism

Question 16

Hyper- or Hypoparathyroidism? Decreased calcium, Increased phosphorus

Answer 16

hypoparathyroidism

Question 17

What is the management for hypoparathyroidism?

Answer 17

calcium carbonate ; Vitamin D ; daily PTH hormone in severe cases

Question 18

Cushing’s or Addison’s? too much steroids

Answer 18

Cushing’s

Question 19

Cushing’s or Addison’s? not enough steroids

Answer 19

Addison’s

Question 20

Cushing’s or Addison’s? hyperglycemia, hypernatremia, hypokalemia

Answer 20

Cushing’s

Question 21

Cushing’s or Addison’s? hypoglycemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia

Answer 21

Addison’s

Question 22

Duodenal or Gastric ulcer? relief of pain with eating

Answer 22

duodenal

Question 23

Duodenal or Gastric ulcer? pain worsens with eating

Answer 23

gastric

Question 24

3 steps of management of PUD

Answer 24

H2 receptor antagonist at bedtime –> H2 BID –> PPI

Question 25

What is the therapy for H. Pylori eradication?

Answer 25

2 antibiotics plus either a PPI or bismuth

Question 26

What does IgM and IgG mean in hepatitis?

Answer 26

IgM = "immediate" or active disease ; IgG = "gone" or recovered/chronic disease

Question 27

Acute vs. Chronic Hep C, serology will be the same, so what test differentiates between the 2?

Answer 27

PCR testing. PCR + for acute and - for chronic

Question 28

Diverticulitis - where will the abdominal pain be?

Answer 28

LLQ

Question 29

deep pain on inspiration while fingers are placed under the right rib cage

Answer 29

Murphy's sign

Question 30

What does positive Murphy's sign mean?

Answer 30

cholecystitis

Question 31

Gold standard test for cholecystitis

Answer 31

ultrasound

Question 32

What condition? high pitched, tinkling bowel sounds

Answer 32

bowel obstruction

Question 33

Ulcerative colitis: what is the hallmark symptom, what test is diagnostic, and what is the management?

Answer 33

bloody diarrhea ; sigmoidoscopy ; Mesalamine (Canasa) suppositories or enemas for 3-12 weeks & hydrocortisone suppositories and enemas

Question 34

Thin, "ribbon" stools sign of what?

Answer 34

late sign of colon cancer

Question 35

RLQ pain when pressure is applied to the LLQ

Answer 35

Rovsing's sign

Question 36

What medication is the mainstay of treatment for chronic bronchitis and emphysema?

Answer 36

inhaled ipratropium bromide (Atrovent) or sympathomimetics

Question 37

Pregnant women with pertussis should get what and when to prevent transmission?

Answer 37

Tdap in 3rd trimester

Question 38

What condition? frothy yellowish-green discharge, "strawberry patches" on cervix and vagina

Answer 38

trichomonas

Question 39

Which condition? normal saline mixture shows clue cells

Answer 39

bacterial vaginosis

Question 40

Which condition? KOH mixture shows pseudo hyphae

Answer 40

candidiasis

Question 41

What is a primary cause of dysmenorrhea?

Answer 41

high levels of prostaglandin

Question 42

What is the treatment for dysmenorrhea?

Answer 42

prostaglandin synthetase inhibitors (PGSIs) - ibuprofen, naproxen, indomethacin

Question 43

Abnormal uterine bleeding is usually the result of what?

Answer 43

endocrine dysfunction

Question 44

Name the PALM-COEIN mnemonic for evaluation of abnormal uterine bleeding.

Answer 44

Polyps, Adenomyosis, Leiomyoma, Malignancy and hyperplasia, Coagulopathy, Ovulatory dysfunction, Endometrial causes, Iatrogenic causes, Not yet classified

Question 45

What is the hormonal therapy for patients with menopause with and without a uterus?

Answer 45

No uterus = estrogen therapy ; With uterus = estrogen + progestogen (to protect against endometrial cancer)

Question 46

___ score is number of standard deviations around the mean bone density for race and gender

Answer 46

T score

Question 47

____ score compares the patient with the population adjusted for gender, age, and race

Answer 47

Z score

Question 48

DEXA scan results for normal, osteopenia (low bone mass), and osteoporosis

Answer 48

T score - normal (> -1.0), osteopenia (-1.0 to -2.5), osteoporosis (below - 2.5)

Question 49

What media is used for a cervical culture of N. gonorrhoeae?

Answer 49

Thayer-Martin

Question 50

What condition uses a papnicolaou or Tzanck stain?

Answer 50

herpes

Question 51

What medication can be used for herpes prophylaxis/suppression therapy, such as to help decrease transmission to partner?

Answer 51

valacyclovir

Question 52

Is lymphogranuloma venereum associated with painful or painless vesicles/ulcers?

Answer 52

painless

Question 53

What condition? shiny flesh-colored to pearly-white papules

Answer 53

molluscum contagiosum

Question 54

What is the treatment for molluscum contagiosum?

Answer 54

"wait & see" or cyroanesthesia with liquid nitrogen

Question 55

What stage of syphilis? painless chancre, indurated ulcer

Answer 55

primary

Question 56

What stage of syphilis? flu-like symptoms, skin rash on palmar/plantar surfaces

Answer 56

secondary

Question 57

What stage of syphilis? seropositive, but asymptomatic

Answer 57

latent

Question 58

What stage of syphilis? multi-system involvement

Answer 58

tertiary

Question 59

What serological tests for syphilis?

Answer 59

VDRL/RPR or treponemal tests

Question 60

What conditions are reportable to the health department?

Answer 60

HIV, TB, GCS (Gonorrhea, Chlamydia, Syphilis)

Question 61

What is the treatment for syphilis?

Answer 61

benzathine penicillin G

Question 62

Low MCV, High MCV, or Normocytic? iron deficiency anemia & thalassemia

Answer 62

low MCV (microcytic)

Question 63

Low MCV, High MCV, or Normocytic? B12 or folate deficiency, alcoholism, liver failure, and drug effects

Answer 63

high MCV (macrocytic)

Question 64

Low MCV, High MCV, or Normocytic? anemia of chronic disease, sickle cell disease, renal failure, blood loss, and hemolysis

Answer 64

normocytic

Question 65

What lab value is normocytic?

Answer 65

mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 80-100

Question 66

What lab value is normochromic?

Answer 66

mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) 32%-36%

Question 67

What lab tests can distinguish between iron deficiency anemia and thalassemia?

Answer 67

TIBC and ferritin - IDA will have low ferritin and high TIBC (TIBC is high b/c ferritin is low) ; thalassemia is normal TIBC and ferritin

Question 68

What is the treatment for thalassemia?

Answer 68

none for mild/moderate ; for severe forms RBC transfusion/splenectomy

Question 69

What is the management for polycythemia?

Answer 69

phlebotomy, aspirin, referral

Question 70

What condition? excessive levels of iron, joint pain, pain in knuckles of pointer & middle fingers

Answer 70

hemochromatosis

Question 71

What condition? pancytopenia with circulating blasts

Answer 71

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

Question 72

What is the most common leukemia in adults?

Answer 72

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

Question 73

What condition is lymphocytosis the hallmark sign of?

Answer 73

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

Question 74

What condition? philadelphia chromosome seen in leukemic cells

Answer 74

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

Question 75

What is required to confirm the diagnosis of leukemia?

Answer 75

bone marrow aspiration

Question 76

How is Hodgkin's disease differentiated from non-Hodgkin's disease?

Answer 76

presence of Reed-Sternberg cells

Question 77

What condition? Reed-Sternberg cells

Answer 77

Hodgkin's disease

Question 78

What is used to confirm diagnosis of lymphoma?

Answer 78

biopsy & histopathologic examination

Question 79

Knee "locking" is usually indicative of what?

Answer 79

meniscal tear or loose bodies

Question 80

What condition? positive McMurray's test

Answer 80

medial meniscal injuries

Question 81

positive McMurrary (M&M) equals what?

Answer 81

medial meniscal (M&M) injury

Question 82

an audible click when the knee is raised slowly with one foot externally rotated (knee is flexed and then quickly straightened)

Answer 82

McMurray's test (positive = medial meniscal injury)

Question 83

What condition? positive Lachman's test

Answer 83

ACL or PCL tear

Question 84

What does "LL" mean for the Lachman test?

Answer 84

"Lachman Ligament" - meaning Lachman tests for ACL or PCL tears

Question 85

What condition? Apley's grind test

Answer 85

medial or lateral collateral ligament damage and/or meniscus injury

Question 86

Sprain: ligaments or tendons?

Answer 86

ligaments

Question 87

Strain: ligaments or tendons?

Answer 87

tendons

Question 88

What condition? positive Tinel's sign and Phalen's test

Answer 88

carpal tunnel

Question 89

chronic memory impairment due to severe vitamin B deficiency (due to alcohol abuse)

Answer 89

Korsakoff syndrome

Question 90

What valvular disease? radiates to base or left axilla

Answer 90

mitral regurgitation

Question 91

What valvular disease? radiates to the neck

Answer 91

aortic stenosis

Question 92

"Ms. Ard and Mr. Ass"

Answer 92

Mitral Stenosis/Aortic Regurgitation = Diastolic murmur ... Mitral Regurgitation/Aortic Stenosis = Systolic murmur