Pediatric Flashcards
(228 cards)
1
Q
Until what age do we use the Denver 2 screening tool?
A
up to 6 years old
2
Q
What age able to know 4 colors?
A
5 years
3
Q
for exclusively breast-fed infants, how much iron is recommended after 6 months of age?
A
1 mg/kg/day
4
Q
AKA knock-knee
A
genu valgum
5
Q
What test is used to confirm Lyme disease?
A
Western blot assay
6
Q
staphylococcal abscess on the upper or lower eyelid
A
hordeolum (stye)
7
Q
What is the management for the common cold?
A
rest/hydration, nasal saline drops, humidifier; No OTC cold preps, No antibiotics; and avoid antitussives for <6 yrs. old
8
Q
3 classes of GERD
A
physiological, functional, pathological
9
Q
What is the finding in sensorineural hearing loss with the Rinne test?
A
normal in the affected ear
10
Q
Conductive vs. Sensorineural hearing loss: Weber test - sound lateralizes to the affected ear
A
conductive
11
Q
“bowed legs”
A
genu varum
12
Q
small (<1 cm) pus-filled lesion
A
pustule
13
Q
adjustment of developmental expectations for premature infants through the age of 2 years
A
corrected gestational age
14
Q
term for fissures at lip corners, which may show vitamin deficiency
A
cheilosis
15
Q
Which Hepatitis is related to IV drug use and blood transfusions?
A
Hep. C
16
Q
Genu varum normal variant in which age group?
A
toddlerhood
17
Q
What is considered a fever in an infant younger than 30- days old?
A
rectal temp of >100.4
18
Q
Psoas vs. Obturator: pain with right thigh extension
A
Psoas sign
19
Q
Genetic disorder - defect of the parathyroid, thymus; conotruncal region of heart - will have congenital heart defects; hypoparathyroidism w/ hypocalcemia, leading to seizures in infancy
A
DiGeorge (Velocardiofacial) syndrome
20
Q
Tanner stage: Breast enlargement without separate nipple contour
A
Tanner Stage 3
21
Q
At what age do we worry about strabismus?
A
After 6 months of age
22
Q
How are pinworms spread?
A
fecal-oral
23
Q
What is given for strep pharyngitis?
A
Penicillin VK 250mg TID x10 days; if allergic to PCN, erythromycin 250mg QID x10 days
24
Q
At what age should we start measuring blood pressure?
A
3 years old
25
What medication is used for Kawasaki disease?
high dose aspirin therapy
26
What condition is associated with a "slapped cheek" appearance, is not contagious after fever breaks, and pathogen is Human Parvovirus B19?
Erythema infectiosum (fifth disease)
27
Which vaccine is contraindicated in those w/ a Hx of anaphylaxis to streptomycin?
IPV
28
AKA bowleg
genu varum
29
What would you suspect in a child with fever 101 or higher and exudate pharyngitis (days 1-2) and then rash presentation (12-48 hr after fever onset)?
scarlet fever
30
Inflammatory vs. Non-Inflammatory: Legg-Calve-Perthes disease & slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
non-inflammatory
31
Hib not recommended for children over what age?
5 years old
32
Tdap vaccine
series of 1 (11 or 12 years) and subsequent Td boosters every 10 years
33
genu valgum: bowleg or knock-knee?
knock-knee
34
national car seat laws
< 1 y/o must sit facing backwards / < 4 y/o & 40 lbs. must be in booster seat
35
Fetal alcohol syndrome will show abnormal ____ features on PE.
facial - small eye openings, thin upper lip, smooth philtrum, upturned nose, small head size
36
Genu valgum normal variant in which age group?
preschooler
37
What age is school-age children?
6-12 years old
38
What condition is associated with Koplik's spots?
Rubeola (ordinary measles)
39
self-limiting inflammation of the hip, most likely due to a viral or immune cause. Most often ages 2-6 years. Internal rotation of hip causes spasm; no obvious signs of infection
toxic synovitis
40
What is the proper dose of acetaminophen for an infant?
10-15 mg/kg every 4-6 hours
41
Which condition will show a "steeple"-shaped narrowing of the trachea on a frontal radiograph of the neck?
croup
42
What age able to copy a circle?
3 years
43
Children between 2-5 years old, what is the recommendation for screen time?
limited to no more than 1 hour per day
44
Tanner stage: Pubic hair darker, increased amount, curlier
Tanner Stage 3
45
elevated, firm lesion >1cm
nodule
46
Varicella vaccine
series of 2 (between 12 months & 12 years, minimum 3 months apart)
47
most common sex-chromosome anomaly of females
XO Karyotype (Turner's syndrome)
48
Which diagnostic test for pyloric stenosis?
abdominal ultrasound
49
AKA hypo/hyperpigmentation macules on limbs
tinea versicolor
50
What is the finding in conductive hearing loss with the Rinne test?
abnormal in affected ear (AC < BC)
51
Where is tinea capitus?
scalp
52
Which skin disorder has linear or curved burrows and interdigital lesions?
scabies
53
DTaP vaccine
series of 3 primary (2-4-6 months) & 2 boosters (15 months & 6 years)
54
What would you suspect in a previously healthy infant who develops acute colicky pain?
intussuception
55
AKA tinea corporis
body ringworm
56
Polio vaccine (IPV)
series of 4 (2-4-6 months & 6 yrs.)
57
Weber vs Rinne: sound should be heard equally in both ears and not lateralize
Weber
58
What would you suspect in a patient with an aversion to second-hand smoke and alcohol odors, fatigue, malaise, anorexia, N/V, headache?
Pre-icteric hepatitis
59
"knock-knees"
genu valgum
60
why is fine motor development of hand-to-hand transfer important by 5-6 months of age?
means that both brain hemispheres are working. If not present, may be the first sign of cerebral palsy.
61
a granulomatous (beady nodule) on the eyelid; infection or retention cyst of the meibomian gland
chalazion
62
"knees are stuck together with gum)
genu valgum (knock-knee)
63
What is a pyloric olive?
a palpable mass after vomiting in patient's with pyloric stenosis
64
Skin disorders must have which 3 descriptors?
morphology, configuration, distribution
65
Genetic disorder only in females, "shield"-shaped chest (widely spaced nipples), HTN, bicuspid aortic valve, coarctation of aorta
XO Karyotype (Turner's syndrome)
66
What is Auspitz's sign?
droplets of blood when scales are removed
67
What test is used to detect antibody to B. Burgdorferi in Lyme disease?
ELISA screening
68
Genu varum (bowleg) is considered a normal variant until what age?
2 years old (walking age)
69
DTaP is not indicated for children over what age?
7 years
70
sensitivity vs. specificity
sensitivity +=+ and specificity - = -
71
What age able to turn a doorknob?
2 years
72
Which diagnostic test for intussusception?
radiograph to clarify diagnosis and barium enema is diagnostic & produces reduction
73
What skin disorder is associated with Auspitz's sign (droplets of blood when scales are removed)?
psoriasis
74
Rotavirus vaccine (Rota)
series of 3 from 6 weeks to 8 months at 4-week intervals (b/c antibodies take about 1 month to build)
75
Which vaccine should not be given to those who are pregnant or immunosuppressed?
MMR
76
Psoas vs. Obturator: pain with internal rotation of the right thigh
Obturator sign
77
What age able to copy a square?
5 years
78
What virus causes mononucleosis?
Epstein-Barr virus
79
Genetic disorder - inherited connective tissue disorder, long arms, & risk of aortic aneurysm
Marfan syndrome
80
Genetic disorder with an extra X chromosome & only occurs in males; will have more feminine properties
XXY syndrome (Klinefelter's syndrome)
81
Do not administer Rotavirus vaccine after what age?
32 weeks (8 months)
82
Which skin condition is associated with a "herald patch" and a pruritic rash in a Christmas tree pattern?
pityriasis rosea
83
Which condition? Associated with "Gower's maneuver", which is where a child "walks" hands up legs to attain standing position when getting up. It is genetic, affects males, and will have elevated creatine kinase.
muscular dystrophy (Duchenne)
84
Consider antibiotic therapy (& which drug is first-line?) for diarrhea if patient has how many stools daily?
>8-10 stools per day, consider antibiotics. First-line is Bactrim.
85
Posterior fontanel closes when?
2-3 months
86
Hirchsprung's disease (aganglionic megacolon): bilious or non-bilious vomiting
bilious
87
serous fluid-filled vesicles >1 cm
bulla
88
dots on top of starburst lines in iris of eye
Brushfield spots
89
Will the common cold have fever and/or lymphadenopathy?
neither
90
normal gestational age
37-41 weeks
91
What would you suspect in a patient with currant jelly stool and/or sausage shaped mass in RUQ?
intussusception
92
"3 wheels at 3"
able to ride a tricycle at age 3
93
to what age do we measure head circumference?
2 y/o
94
a pus-filled lesion >1 cm
abscess
95
"too much rum, wide-center of gravity"
genu varum (bowleg)
96
continuous humming murmur; heard best in sitting position, disappears in supine position; also obliterated by turning head and/or compressing neck ispilaterally
Venous hum
97
Pyloric stenosis: projectile vomiting or not?
Yes
98
Which standardized testing tool is the gold standard for the diagnosis of developmental delays in infants/toddlers to 42 months of age?
Bayley Scales of Infant and Toddler Development
99
Weber vs Rinne: air conduction (AC) > bone conduction (BC)
Rinne
100
Which condition will show a "thumb sign," a thumb-shaped patch appearing on a radiograph of the neck?
epiglottitis
101
What condition is associated with a rash that starts on the face, spreads to extremities & trunk, and is gone in 72 hours; also is teratogenic?
Rubella (3-day measles)
102
What is the most common vector-borne disease in the U.S.?
Lyme disease
103
What treatment is used for pinworms?
anthelmintics to eradicate infection
104
By what age should the testes be fully descended?
3 months old
105
When would you need to order diagnostic tests for gastroenteritis (N/V/D)?
if symptoms persist >72 hrs. or bloody stool is present
106
At what age is ibuprofen approved to use?
after 6 months old
107
what age does BMI start?
2 years old
108
scaly, elevated lesion; the classic lesion of psoriasis
plaque
109
Which 2 medication classes can exacerbate acne?
steroids & anticonvulsants
110
What is the treatment for a chalazion?
warm compresses and referral for surgical removal
111
What antibiotic is used for sinusitis?
amoxillin-clavulanate (Augmentin) x10 days; change to Levaquin (or other secondary antibiotic) if no improvement in 3 days
112
what is bone age?
x-ray of tarsals and carpals to determine extent of ossification
113
What should be on the differential diagnosis in a child who is stuttering?
hearing and/or visual impairment
114
aseptic or avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Most common age 4-9 years old.
Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
115
less suck reflex, less airway control
hypotonia
116
Clinical features most suggestive of group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (GABHS) include FLEA mnemonic:
Fever, Lack of cough, pharyngo-tonsillar Exudate, anterior cervical Adenopathy. If 2/4 are present, do a strep test
117
A condition in which the foreskin is tightly stretched around the head of the penis and cannot be pulled back freely
phimosis
118
Which skin infection is associated with honey-crusting lesions?
impetigo
119
Which condition? Typically <3 y/o, with RSV being responsible for more than 50% of cases
bronchiolitis
120
How old are preschoolers?
4-5 years old
121
psychosexual theorist
Sigmund Freud
122
Tanner stage: Penis elongates
Tanner Stage 3
123
What condition? child holds arm across body with thumb up
nursemaid elbow
124
Conductive vs. Sensorineural hearing loss: Rinne test - abnormal in affected ear (AC < BC)
conductive
125
3 primary domains of growth and development
physical, cognitive, psychosocial
126
What age does physiologic and pyschological readiness for toilet training begin?
between 1.5-2.5 years
127
Which diagnostic test for Hirchsprung's disease (aganglionic megacolon)?
abdominal x-ray
128
AKA tinea cruris
jock itch
129
Term for onset of puberty before age 8 in girls and 9 in boys
precocious puberty
130
Anterior fontanel closes when?
approx. 18 months
131
What are 2 treatments used for scabies?
Permethrin (Nix) or ivermectin
132
How old are toddlers?
1-3 years old
133
primary theorist for the psychosocial domain
Erik Erikson
134
Kawasaki disease is most commonly noted in children of what age and what ethnicity?
under 2 years old and of Asian ethnicity
135
What condition? positive Kernig's sign and Brudzinski's sign
meningitis
136
If child has port wine stain, especially if comes to midline & stops, rule out what?
Sturge-Webber - serious neuro condition w/ seizures
137
At what age is a neuroblastoma most common?
before age 5 years
138
Which condition would be suspected in a patient with posterior cervical lymphadenopathy, white exudate on tonsils, and splenomegaly?
mononucleosis
139
What is the proper dose of ibuprofen in an infant?
10 mg/kg every 6 hours
140
Suspect what if there are many large cafe au lait spots OR if more than 6 spots in a child older than 5 y/o?
neurofibromatosis
141
small (<1 cm) lesion filled with serous fluid
vesicle
142
When should a child's first dental visit be?
By 1 year of age
143
Which skin condition may show an elevated serum IgE?
atopic dermatitis (eczema)
144
Influenza vaccine in children
1 dose annually, start at 6 months old. 6-35 months, 0.25 mL IM ... 3 y/o, 0.5 mL IM ... <9 y/o, 2 doses 1 month apart
145
firm, elevated lump
tumor
146
Which vaccinations will help prevent AOM?
Hib, PCV13, annual flu
147
What does egophony suggest on lung auscultation?
consolidation
148
Consider what if newborn has radio-femoral pulse delay?
coarctation of aorta - get pulse ox readings in all 4 extremities
149
What condition are you checking for with a pilocarpine iontophoresis (sweat test)?
cystic fibrosis
150
inflammation of the tibial tubercle as a result of repetitive stressors in patients with immature skeletal development. Peak age 11-14 years, associated with rapid growth spurt.
Osgood-Schlatter disease
151
infants should be exclusively breast fed for how many months?
6 months
152
a neurocutaneous syndrom characterized by numerous cafe-au-lait spots on the body, and nerve tumors on the skin and in the body
neurofibromatosis (von Recklinghausen disease)
153
small (<1 cm), elevated, firm lesion
papule
154
Which Hepatitis is blood-borne and present in body fluids?
Hep. B
155
primary theorist for the cognitive domain
Jean Piaget
156
generalized assessment tool, used from birth to 6 years of age. Measures gross & fine motor development, language, & personal-social development
Denver 2
157
What condition is associated with a highly contagious virus that affects the salivary glands?
mumps
158
What to suspect in a patient with enlarged abdominal mass, FTT, profuse sweating, tachycardia?
neuroblastoma
159
Genetic disorder with presence of a third #21 chromosome, hypotonia, Brushfield spots
Trisomy 21 (Down Syndrome)
160
Which conjunctivitis is considered an opthalmic emergency?
gonococcal
161
Conductive vs. Sensorineural hearing loss: Weber test - sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear
sensorineural
162
Which Hepatitis is transmitted via oral-fecal route?
Hep. A
163
Term for bulky, foul stool (as seen in malabsorption).
steatorrhea
164
What lab test can diagnose fetal alcohol syndrome?
none exist; diagnosed through PE
165
most common cause of hypogonadism & infertility in men
XXY (Klinefelter's) syndrome
166
Pyloric stenosis: bilious or non-bilious vomiting?
non-bilious vomiting after eating
167
Which skin condition? Hyperproliferative; plaques with silvery scales
psoriasis
168
Intussusception: bilious or non-bilious vomiting?
bilious
169
Inflammatory vs. Non-Inflammatory: Osgood-Schlatter disease & toxic synovitis
inflammatory
170
What is the hallmark treatment for atopic dermatitis (eczema)?
dry skin management: moisturizing lotion immediately after bathing; must blot dry
171
What condition is associated with a high fever that abruptly stops when rash develops, and is caused by Herpesvirus 6?
Roseola infantum (sixth disease)
172
What is the finding in conductive hearing loss with the Weber test?
sound lateralizes to the affected ear
173
What condition is associated with Borrelia Burgdorferi, a spirochete?
Lyme disease
174
What is the first line medication for AOM?
Amoxicillin 80-90 mg/kg/day, BID x10 days
175
Conductive vs. Sensorineural hearing loss: Rinne test - normal in the affected ear
sensorineural
176
acute febrile syndrome causing vasculitis
Kawasaki disease
177
Genetic disorder of Ashkenazic Jews; progressive deterioration beginning 3-6 months of age. Often cherry red macula is 1st sign
Tay-Sachs disease
178
Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnant women & immunosuppressed persons, & in those with a streptomycin allergy?
Varicella
179
What is Russell's sign in adolescents?
bruised knuckles from self-induced vomiting
180
genu varum: bowleg or knock-knee
bowleg
181
What is the finding in sensorineural hearing loss with the Weber test?
sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear
182
What would you suspect in infrequent, explosive bowel movements?
Hirchsprung's disease (aganglionic megacolon)
183
phenotype vs. genotype
phenotype - presentation specific to a genetic disorder ... genotype - diagnostic characteristics
184
Which condition has umbilicated papules with a cheesy core?
molluscum contagiosum
185
Which bacteria causes scarlet fever?
group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (GAHGS)
186
AKA tinea manuum and tinea pedis
athlete's foot
187
What is the difference between bacterial vs. gonococcal conjunctivitis?
Gonococcal will have purulent drainage that is more copious than bacterial. Treatment is with IV Pen G (neonatal) or ceftriaxone IM
188
AKA hordeolum
stye
189
Rheumatic fever follows which type of infection?
Group A strep infection of the upper respiratory tract
190
Hip dysplasia - what is the difference between Ortolani's click & Barlow's maneuver?
Ortolani's click - dislocation is REDUCED
| Barlow's - CAUSED the dislocation
191
Term for BMI greater than the 95th percentile for age/gender
obesity
192
most common innocent murmur; musical systolic murmur; due to turbulence in the left ventricular outflow tract
Still's murmur
193
How long should a child with impetigo abstain from school and other community events?
until 48 hours of treatment
194
What does MCV measure? and lab values
mean corpuscular volume; average volume & size of individual erythrocytes; microcytic = 80, normocytic = 80-100, macrocytic = 100
195
Lab values of MCHC
"color". Hypochromic <32% ; normochromic 32-36%
196
iron deficiency anemia: normal, increased, or decreased RCDW?
increased
197
thalassemia: normal, increased, or decreased RCDW?
normal or slightly increased
198
anemia of chronic disease: normal, increased, or decreased RCDW?
normal
199
number of new, young RBCs in circulation
reticulocyte count
200
What is a normal reticulocyte count, and what does it measure?
1-2%; index of bone marrow health and response to anemia
201
anemia due to hemorrhage or hemolysis - what will reticulocyte count be?
increased, approx. 20%
202
iron deficiency anemia, what will reticulocyte count be?
0%
203
iron deficiency anemia - What -cytic and -chromic?
microcytic, hypochromic
204
what anemia is pica associated with?
iron deficiency anemia
205
Which lab test is diagnostic of thalassemia?
hemoglobin electrophoresis
206
What anemia is associated with Howell-Jolly bodies?
sickle cell anemia
207
What levels of lead is considered lead poisoning?
>5
208
bluish discoloration of gingival border
burtonian lines
209
What condition is associated with Burtonian lines?
lead poisoning
210
Describe diagnostic criteria of serum fasting blood sugar for Type 1 DM.
>= 126 on 2 separate occasions
211
What is the Somogyi effect in Type 1 DM?
nocturnal hypoglycemia, SURGE of hormones that raise blood sugar. Hypoglycemia at 0300 and hyperglycemia at 0700. (Somogyi = tsunami)
212
What is the dawn phenomenon in Type 1 DM?
blood sugar slowly rises throughout the night due to tissue desensitization of insulin ("dawn is slowly rising")
213
Is Metformin okay to use in children?
yes
214
What is the treatment for chlamydia?
zithromax 1 gram once OR (if not pregnant) doxycycline 100mg BID x7 days
215
Which STD is the leading cause of infertility in females?
gonorrhea
216
What culture media is used for gonorrhea?
Thayer-Martin or Transgrow media
217
What STD's are reportable to the health department?
GCS (gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis)
218
What is the treatment for gonorrhea?
ceftriaxone IM single dose & zithromax 1 g once to cover chlamydia
219
What STD shows treponemes?
syphilis
220
What screening tests for syphilis?
VDRL or rapid plasma reagin
221
What confirmatory test for syphilis?
treponemal tests
222
What is the treatment for syphilis?
benzathine penicillin G
223
What tests for bacterial vaginosis?
wet mount will show clue cells; & positive amine "whiff" test
224
What is the treatment for bacterial vaginosis?
metronidazole or clindamycin
225
What tests for herpes?
papanicolaou or Tzanck stain; viral culture
226
What is the treatment for herpes?
acyclovir or valocyclovir
227
What screening tests for HIV/AIDS?
infants - PCR ; older children - ELISA
228
What confirmatory test for HIV/AIDS?
Western blot test
