After Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

Carbohydrates include dietary fibre. True or False?

A

True.

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2
Q

What is the dietary goal for carbohydrates?

A

Dietary goal is to increase the intake of non-digestible CHO.

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3
Q

What is the Health Canada recommended CHO intake (%)?

A

45-65%

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4
Q

What are the two essential fatty acids?

A

α-linolenic (ω-3) and linoleic (ω-6)

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5
Q

What are the functions of lipids?

2

A

precursors for signalling molecules,
structural role in
membranes, etc.

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6
Q

What are the dietary goals for lipids?

2

A

Goal:

  • lower the intake of total fat (especially saturated and trans fat)
  • increase intake of MUFA and ω-3 fats
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7
Q

What is the Health Canada recommended fat intake? (%)

A

25-35%

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8
Q

What is the Health Canada recommended protein intake? (%)

A

10-30%

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9
Q

The average consumption in North America of protein is ______% of daily calories.

A

The average consumption in North America of protein is 16% of daily calories.

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10
Q

In humans there are _____ proteinogenic AAs (includes selenocysteine).

A

In humans there are 21 proteinogenic AAs (includes selenocysteine).

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11
Q

What is a proteinogenic AA?

A

A “proteinogenic AA” refers to an AA that can be incorporated into a protein during translation.

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12
Q

Do non-proteinogenic AA exist?

A

Yes. ex. neurotransmitters like GABA

but they are not used to make protein

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13
Q

How many essential amino acids are there?

A

9 essential AAs

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14
Q

What are the %s in the average body of:

water, fat/lipid, CHO, proteins, minerals

A
Water: 60%
Fat/lipid: 20-25%
CHO: 0.2%
Proteins: 15%
Minerals: 2%
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15
Q

Between Blood, Connective tissue and Skeletal muscle which has the highest % of protein?

A

Connective tissue (37%) > Blood (35%) > Skeletal Muscle (20%)

we store a lot of protein in muscle purely because of its mass

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16
Q

% protein content of animal-derived foods is generally higher than plants. True or False?

A

True.

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17
Q

Every amino acid has 4 basic building blocks. What are they? Give a brief description of each.

A
  1. Amino terminal
    - Amine Functional Group
  2. Side Chain
    -Side chain has a variable composition, which may or may not contain functional group(s)
  3. Carboxyl Terminal
    - Carboxylic Acid
    Functional Group contains a carbonyl carbon
  4. α-Carbon
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18
Q

There are two types of AAs in the body. Standard and non-standard. Give a brief description of each.

A
  1. Standard Amino Acids:
    – 20 AAs are encoded in the genetic code (but not selenocysteine)
    – All are used to make protein
  2. Non-Standard Amino Acids:
    – Usually formed by post-translational modification of other AAs or as intermediates in the metabolic pathways of standard AAs
    (ex. the GABA neurotransmitter is a metabolite of the amino acid glutamate)
    – Many exist in the body, but they are rarely used to make
    proteins
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19
Q

All AAs exist as enantiomers except for _____.

A

All AAs exist as enantiomers except for GLYCINE.

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20
Q

AA are naturally occurring in the ___ form.

L or D enantiomer

A

AA are naturally occurring in the L form.

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21
Q

How are D forms of AAs made?

A

D form of AAs are made through post-translational modifications.

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22
Q

At physiological pH, AAs are ionized. What is this called and how does this affect the amine and carboxyl group?

A

-This is called a Zwitterion
•Protonated amine group
•Deprotonated carboxyl group

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23
Q

Zwitterions decrease polarity by making AAs more water soluble.
True or False?

A

False.

Zwitterions INCREASE polarity by making AAs more water soluble.

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24
Q

What is the name of the bonds that keeps amino acids together?

A
  • Peptide bonds (also known as amide bonds) are a type of covalent chemical bond
  • The carboxyl group of one AA reacts with amino group of another AA, releasing H2O (condensation reaction)
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25
What is the difference between a peptide and a protein?
A protein is a biologically active version of a peptide. | Proper peptide folding is very important for protein function.
26
Correct protein folding is assisted by _______ proteins.
Correct protein folding is assisted by CHAPERONE proteins.
27
``` Name the following: 2 AA= 3AA = Around 50AA = >50 AA = ```
2 AA= Dipeptide 3AA = Tripeptide Around 50AA = Oligopeptide >50 AA = Polypeptide
28
The primary structure of a protein is determined by the _____ _________.
The primary structure of a protein is determined by the DNA SEQUENCE.
29
Counting of AAs always starts from the carboxyl end. True or False?
False. | Counting of AAs always starts from the amino end.
30
Secondary structure of a protein is determined by ______ bonds that create a stable structure.
Secondary structure of a protein is determined by HYDROGEN bonds that create a stable structure.
31
The secondary structure of a protein also involves the side chains. True or False?
False. | Doesn’t involve side chains, only backbone atoms.
32
There are two types of stabilized secondary structures in proteins. What are they? Give a brief description of each.
1. α-helix • An amino group makes a hydrogen bond with a carboxyl group 4 AAs down the chain, creating a helical shape in the polypeptide chain. 2. β-pleated sheets • An amino group makes a hydrogen bond with a carboxyl group in the folded back polypeptide chain. • Can be parallel or anti-parallel.
33
Tertiary structure corresponds to the arrangement of secondary structures. True or False?
True.
34
What protein structure involves interactions between AA side chains?
Tertiary structure.
35
The folding in protein tertiary structure plays a role in two protein characteristics. What are they?
1. Binding pockets | 2. Hydrophobic regions
36
A disulfide bond is an example of an interaction in a _____ structure protein. (hint: primary, secondary, tertiary, quaternary)
A disulfide bond is an example of an interaction in a TERTIARY structure protein.
37
A _______ structure corresponds to a combination of 2 or more _______ structures that are required to make a functional protein
A QUATERNARY structure corresponds to a combination of 2 or more TERTIARY structures that are required to make a functional protein
38
When proteins combine in a quaternary structure, what are the individual proteins called?
Subunits.
39
Proteins like insulin and immunoglobulin form multi-subunit complexes. True or False?
True. | They are quaternary proteins with multiple polypeptides.
40
All proteins have a quaternary structure. | True or False?
False. | NOT all proteins have a quaternary structure.
41
What does the term "native protein" correspond to?
A native protein corresponds to a protein in its normal 3D configuration.
42
What are some examples of ways a protein can be denatured?
heat, salt treatment, | detergents, pH (stomach acid)
43
Explain what happens when a protein is denatured.
When a protein is denatured, it loses its bioactivity. Denaturation affects 2°, 3°, and 4° structures (but not 1°). *The peptide chains aren't affected when denatured, it's just the structure that is affected, meaning it's no longer biologically active
44
Compare native and denatured albumin (egg protein). | Hint: Physical appearance
Native albumin --> transparent and liquid | Denatured (cooked) --> opaque and hard
45
What are the three major ways of classifying AAs?
1. Essential vs. not essential 2. Basic, acidic, or neutral 3. Polar versus non-polar
46
Explain the kinds of AA classification concerning essentiality. (Hint: 3)
1. Essential AA (Indispensable) - Not made by the body or can’t be made quickly enough to meet demands 2. Conditionally Essential - Not normally required in the diet in a healthy individual, but become essential under specific contexts (something happens to the individual for the aa to become essential) 3. Non-Essential (or Completely Dispensable) - Can be synthesized in the body and are not essential in the diet
47
What are the essential amino acids? | 9
9 AAs: | lys, thr, iso, leu, met, phe, trp, val, & his
48
What are the kinds of conditinally essential AAs? Give an example of each and explain.
1. Born with a genetic problem: - Phenylketonuria--> an inborn error of metabolism where a person is unable to breakdown Phe into Tyr. • A build-up of Phe in the body causes mental retardation • Solution: limit Phe in diet and supplement with Tyr 2. Develop the problem due to a disease: - Liver disease (cirrhosis) impairs Phe & Met catabolism • Tyr and Cys are synthesized from Phe and Met, respectively • Tyr and Cys become indispensable in this context
49
What are the characteristics of basic AAs? | 3
1. Polar 2. basic AAs (+ve charge on NH3 group on side chain enables DNA binding) 3. Important in histone proteins, which bind DNA
50
What are the three basic AAs? Give a brief description of each.
1. Lysine - Essential - Simple straight chain - Absent from grain products - Lysine Contingency? (Jurassic Park) 2. Arginine -Conditionally Essential -Preterm infants unable to synthesize arginine -Non-essential in healthy adults (as a child grows, it's no longer essential) - Plays an important role in urea cycle 3. Histidine - Essential - Ring structure - Used to produce histamine (inflammation) - Important in children (they can't make it on their own, therefore essential)
51
What are the characteristics of Acidic AAs? | 2
1. Acidic AA (-ve charge on side chain carboxyl group) | 2. Acidic AAs are very polar
52
What are the 4 acidic AAs? Give a brief description of each.
1. Asparatate - Non-essential - Involved in protein catabolism - Transaminated to oxaloacetate (Krebs) - Donates nitrogen to urea cycle 2. Glutamate -Non-essential -Transaminated to α-ketoglutarate (Krebs) -“Source” of NH3 -Used to produce GABA (neurotransmitter) 3. Asparagine - Non-essential 4. Glutamine -Non-essential -Important in AA catabolism because it is a carrier of nitrogen (to liver & kidney) (amino group is toxic --> can't let it accumulate)
53
What is transamination?
Transamination = passing an amino group from a donor to an acceptor
54
What is transamination?
Transamination = passing an amino group from a donor to an acceptor
55
What are the characteristics of neutral AAs? | 3
1. Neutral AAs (no charge on side chain) 2. Non polar 3. Aliphatic (C & H atoms joined in straight or branched chains)
56
What are the two neutral AAs? Give a brief description of each?
1. Glycine - Non-essential - No enantiomers - Used primarily to produce porphorin (a component of the heme protein found in hemoglobin) 2. Alanine - Non-essential - Important in AA catabolism because it's a carrier of nitrogen (to liver & kidney) -Important role in glucose-alanine cycle
57
There is only one AA that does not have enantiomers. What AA is it an why?
Glycine has no enantiomers because it has two hydrogen side chains.
58
What are the characteristics of branched chain AAs? | 3
1. Neutral aliphatic AAs (no charge on side chain) 2. Non-Polar 3. All are branched
59
What are the three branched-chain AAs? Give a brief description of them?
1. Leucine 2. Isoleucine 3. Valine - All are essential - Not catabolized in the liver, so high levels found in circulation -Promotes protein synthesis -BCAA levels are high in protein supplements (not metabolized by the liver, so they go directly to the muscle)
60
What are the characteristics of hydroxylated AAs? | 2
1. OH-group on side chain is important for protein phosphorylation 2. Polar AAs
61
What AA can be classified as both hydroxylated and aromatic?
Tyrosine.
62
What are the two hydroxylated AAs? Give a brief description of each.
1. Serine - Non-essential 2. Threonine - Essential Both are important for protein phosphorylation --> allow chemicals to become bioactive
63
What are the characteristics of sulfur-containing AAs?
- Contain a sulfur group | - Non-polar
64
What are the two sulfur-containing AAs? Give a brief description of each.
1. Cysteine - Non-essential - Made from methionine “Spares” methionine when cysteine consumed in the diet - Used to form disulfide bonds - Used in glutathione synthesis (oxidant defence system) - could become conditionally essential 2. Methionine - Essential - 1st step in the synthesis of all proteins - Methionine is limiting in legumes
65
What are the characteristics of aromatic AAs? | 2
1. Contain Aromatic rings | 2. Non-polar (except tyrosine because of the OH group in its side chain)
66
What are the 4 aromatic AAs? Give a brief description of each.
1. Phenylalanine - Essential - Used to make Tyr 2. Tyrosine - Non-essential - “Spares” Phe (if tyr is high in diet) - Used to synthesize neurotransmitters 3. Tryptophan - Essential - Used to make serotonin (mood) - Used for niacin (Vit B3) synthesis 4. Proline - Non-essential - Important for collagen production (extracellular matrix) - Aliphatic side chain
67
Most proteins require some type of modification before they are biologically functional. True or False?
True.
68
Where do post-translational modifications take place?
PTMs take place in polypeptide chains, not free AA.
69
What are the 5 kinds of post-translational modifications?
1. Phosphorylation by kinase enzymes 2. Hydroxylation 3. Gamma-carboxylation 4. Iodination 5. ADP-ribosyltaion
70
Give some examples of phosphorylation (PTM). What is it dependent on?
- Serine-OH - Threonine-OH - Tyrosine-OH Phosphorylation is phosphorus dependent.
71
Give some examples of hydroxylation (PTM). What are they dependent on?
1. Lysine --> hydroxylysine - very important in elastin subunits - copper dependent - associated with aortic rupture - Proline--> hydroxyproline - very important in collagen subunits (allows the extracellular matrix to be made; gives tissues their structure) - Vit C dependent - associated with scurvy
72
Explain gamma-carboxylation (PTM). Why is it important and what is it dependent on?
- Required for calcium homeostasis and blood clotting - Certain proteins are modified to become Ca2+ binding proteins - Another carboxyl group is added to glutamate - Vitamin K dependent
73
Explain iodination (PTM). Why is it important and what is it dependent on?
- Critical in the formation of thyroid hormones - Crucial for regulation of the metabolic rate - Iodine deficiency in about 2 billion humans - Iodine dependent
74
Explain ADP-ribosylation. Why is it important and what is it dependent on?
- Adding ADP-ribose to an acceptor protein - Critical for DNA repair and regulation of protein function - Dependent on Vit B3 (niacin) - Niacin used to form NAD+. When NAD+ is broken down in the cell, ADP-ribose and nicotinamide are the products.
75
Briefly explain protein digestion in the mouth (2), stomach (2), pancreas (1), and small intestine (3).
1. Mouth - No enzymatic digestion - Mechanical breakdown only 2. Stomach - HCl in gastric juice (proteins denatured) - Pepsin (endopeptidase) 3. Pancreas -Pancreatic juice containing zymogens (inactive digestive proenzymes) 4. Small Intestine - Zymogens are activated - Enzymes break-down peptides - Absorption of AAs
76
HCl in the stomach is secreted from ______ cells.
HCl in the stomach is secreted from PARIETAL cells.
77
The release of HCl in the stomach is triggered by what?
HCl release is triggered by gastrin, acetylcholine, and histamine.
78
What are the functions of HCl?
1. Denatures proteins - breaks: hydrogen bonds, electrostatic bonds 2. Activates pepsin
79
How does HCl activate pepsin?
HCl denatures pepsinogen (changes the shape) and then the protein becomes active. (undergoes a proteolytic cleavage)
80
Pepsin is secreted as ______, which is an inactive zymogen.
Pepsin is secreted as PEPSINOGEN, which is an inactive zymogen.
81
Pepsin is activated in an _____ pH, and inactive at a _______ pH.
Pepsin is activated in an ACIDIC pH, and inactive at a NEUTRAL pH.
82
Pepsin is an ________, i.e., in other words, it cleaves peptide bonds within the polypeptide chain.
Pepsin is an ENDOPEPTIDASE, i.e., in other words, it cleaves peptide bonds within the polypeptide chain. *This generates mostly oligopeptides and some free AAs.
83
Polypeptide cleavage occurs only at ends. | True or False?
False. | Polypeptide cleavage occurs not only at ends, but in the middles as well (different length oligopeptides)
84
In the small intestine, where is enteropeptidase located? What is its function?
Enteropeptidase is located in the brush border. | Enteropeptidase activates trypsinogen to trypsin.
85
What zymogens & proenzymes are made in the pancreas?
Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen, proelastase, procaboxypeptidase A & B.
86
Once trypsin is activated, what does it do?
Trypsin activates other zymogens: Chymotrypsinogen --> Chymotrypsin Proelastase --> Elastase Procarboxypetidases --> Carboxypeptidase
87
Most AAs are absorbed in the upper small intestine. | True or False?
True.
88
What are the two ways AAs are absorbed?
1. Facilitated diffusion 2. Active transport (> 60% of AAs are absorbed this way, it is the dominant system) - sodium-dependent transporters (indirect ATP requirement)
89
Non-essential AAs are absorbed faster than essential AAs. | True or False?
False. | ESSENTIAL AAs are absorbed faster than non-essential AAs.
90
Competition for absorption exists between AAs. | True or False?
True.
91
____ AAs have no absorptive advantage over AAs in _____.
FREE AAs have no absorptive advantage (i.e. protein supplements) over AAs in FOOD. *Important to consider when incorporating protein supplements into diet, because protein supplements often have BCAA
92
____ AAs have no absorptive advantage over AAs in _____.
FREE AAs have no absorptive advantage (i.e. protein supplements) over AAs in FOOD. *Important to consider when incorporating protein supplements into diet, because protein supplements often have BCAA
93
AAs are either transported out of the intestinal cell or used directly within the enterocyte. What are AAs used for? (2)
1. energy 2. synthesis of new protein *Estimates indicate 30-40% of essential AA are used in the small intestine
94
Glutamine is highly used in intestinal enterocytes for what? | 4
1. Generate energy for the cell 2. Stimulate cell proliferation (to replace shed enterocytes) 3. Increase synthesis of heat shock proteins (chaperones) 4. Drive mucus production, which helps to prevent bacterial translocation
95
The liver is very effective at taking up AAs from circulation. True or False?
True.
96
How does the liver use AAs?
Liver uses ~20% of the AAs to: - Make new proteins - Make new enzymes - Make albumin and other transport proteins - Make peptide hormones Liver catabolizes the remaining 80% of AAs, where: - NH3 sent to the urea cycle - Carbon skeleton sent to Kreb’s cycle (for energy) or used for gluconeogenesis or lipogenesis
97
Can BCAAs be taken up by the liver?
No. BCAAs are not taken up by liver, and instead are anabolic signals for tissues like muscle
98
What are the 4 aspects to consider when discussing protein quality?
1. AA composition 2. Digestibility 3. Presence of Toxic factors 4. Species consuming the protein
99
Explain AA composition (protein quality).
Any protein that provides all essential AA = “high quality”. Animal protein > plant protein. Ex. grains are limiting in lysine, legumes are limiting in sulfur-containing AA (methionine).
100
Explain Digestibility (protein quality).
Some proteins are more digestible than others. More digestible = higher quality. Animal protein > plant protein. Ex. Some materials, like hair, have a great amino acid balance but are indigestible.
101
Explain the Presence of toxic factors (protein quality).
Less toxic factors = higher quality. Animal protein > plant protein. Plants contain thousands of phytochemicals. Ex. soybeans contain trypsin inhibitors with interfere with trypsin, thus preventing protein digestion.
102
Explain "species consuming the protein" (protein quality).
Humans, pigs and chickens have similar protein needs. Ruminants have bacteria in the rumen that can make all AAs, so none are considered essential (remember that ruminants can use low quality protein sources).
103
What is Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER)? Explain its process.
PER = Official method in Canada for the evaluation of protein quality * With this method, young rats are fed a diet for 4 weeks. The diet has all nutrients present at adequate levels except for protein, which is included at 10% of the diet * 10% protein is marginal for health. If there is anything wrong with the protein source, growth of rats will be impacted * Rats are weighed at the beginning and end of the 4 weeks. Food consumption is carefully monitored
104
How is PER (protein efficiency ratio) calculated? Give an example.
PER = gain in body mass (g) / total protein intake (g) An optimal PER value is 2.0 (2g of rat growth per gram of intake) = whole egg ex. rat gains 10g and eats 14g, PER= 10g/14g = 0.71
105
What are the pros of PER? (3)
- Simple - Cheap - Very sensitive to AA balance, digestibility, toxic factors
106
What are the cons of Protein efficiency ratio?
* Rats are not humans * Growth, not maintenance * You don’t know WHY a protein is poor quality
107
What is a chemical score (CS) of a protein? (assessing protein quality) Explain its process.
CS = - the test protein is chemically digested into free AAs - these are then quantified by chromatography, and mathematically compared to the composition of whole egg protein
108
How do you calculate the chemical score of a protein? Give an example.
CS = (abundance of first limiting AA in test protein / abundance of same AA in whole egg) x 100 ``` ex. CS of wheat % lysine in egg = 7.2 % lysine in wheat = 2.7 (2.7/ 7.2) x 100 = 37 the CS of wheat protein is 37. ```
109
What are the pros of chemical score assessment? (protein quality)
•Simple and cheap •Identifies the limiting AA in the food •Used to optimize feeds by mixing different sources of protein
110
What are the cons of chemical score assessment? (protein quality)
* Doesn’t account for digestibility or toxins (e.g. hair) | * Is whole egg an ideal protein?
111
What is nitrogen balance (protein quantity)? How is it calulated
Nitrogen balance = a measure of N loss (urine, feces, sweat) and N intake (diet) Nitrogen Balance (NB) = Nitrogen Intake – Nitrogen Loss
112
During growth, pregnancy, and times of tissue repair (NB < 0). True or False?
False. | During growth, pregnancy, and times of tissue repair (NB > 0).
113
What happens when you don't have enough protein? (NB< 0)
- The problem is worsened with poor protein quality because body proteins are used as a source of essential AA (in other words, body proteins are broken down to “free up” essential AA, ultimately leading to a loss of function) – NB < 0 is seen in people with serious tissue injuries, wasting diseases like sarcopenia, and long-term fasting
114
Problems with poor protein quality may be overcome with high protein quantity. True or False?
True. | This is commonly observed in developed countries like USA.
115
For most adults, NB = 0 | True or False?
True. | People are generally in balance.
116
Protein requirements vary with life stage. When are protein requirements higher? (5)
Protein requirements are higher during infancy, childhood, teenagers, and during pregnancy & lactation.
117
Recommendations for protein requirements are based on ANIMAL sources of protein. True or False?
True. Plant sources may be less digestible due to differences in the nature of protein and other components (fibre). If recommendations used plant sources of protein, the values would be higher.
118
How can you have an excessive intake of protein? | 2
1. High protein diets (Atkins, South Beach) | 2. Protein Supplementation
119
How can you have an deficient intake of protein? | 2
1. Deficient in both protein quantity and energy (overall malnutrition) 2. Deficient in only protein quantity
120
Typically, high protein diets are low in carbs. | True or False?
True.
121
What are 3 common high protein diets?
1. Atkins Diet (most criticized) (C:F:P = 3:64:33) - Different phases where macronutrient content varies. - CHO intake very low, while fat and protein intake very high (~30% protein). - Criticized because no attention to type of CHO or fat consumed. 2. South Beach diet (C:F:P = 30:40:30) - Different phases where macronutrient content varies. - For CHO intake there is an emphasis on low GI foods. - Protein is consistent throughout the various phases (~30%) 3. The Zone Diet - Not really a high protein diet, rather a balanced diet.
122
All high proteins diets are created equal. | True or False?
False. All high protein diets NOT created equal – Huge differences in macronutrient content and the types of CHO/fats consumed, so it’s hard to compare outcomes.
123
What are some observed clinical results of high protein diets? (4)
1. short term weight loss is comparable to other diet approaches. 2. Some studies show improved insulin sensitivity with high protein as compared to high CHO diets (probably due to reduced burden on the pancreas to generate insulin). 3. Conflicting results with respect to effect on cardiovascular disease. A moderate increase in protein appears to be cardioprotective, but high protein may be a concern in the long-term. 4. People with kidney diseases should avoid high-protein diets.
124
Supplements help to ensure that the correct balance of AAs are delivered to the muscle. True or False?
True. HOWEVER, this would be the same if a person ate a high quality protein (eggs, meat, fish).
125
Most protein supplements deliver high levels of ______, are rapidly absorbed and delivered to the muscle.
Most protein supplements deliver high levels of BCAAs, are rapidly absorbed and delivered to the muscle.
126
Anabolic response of the muscle to a protein meal gradually diminishes after __ years of age.
Anabolic response of the muscle to a protein meal gradually diminishes after 40 years of age. *this can be improved with BCAA supplements
127
_______ is a protein and energy deficiency.
MARASMUS is a protein and energy deficiency.
128
Explain what happens in Marasmus.
- Very low intake of a balanced diet with around 8-10% protein (so just a bit below what is needed). - Because everything is in balance, the body switches to starvation mode. - Well organized utilization of body fuel stores allows survival, eventually leading to a complete loss of body fat which causes a wrinkled appearance to the skin Characterized by: complete loss of body fat and muscle, peeling skin, uneven pigmentation
129
_______ is a protein deficiency.
KWASHIORKOR is a protein deficiency.
130
Explain what happens in Kwashiorkor.
- Diet has sufficient Calories, but is deficient in protein (Only 1-2% protein in the diet) - Typically seen in developing countries where agriculture is key - High CHO foods (e.g., tuber cassava) – When child is weaned from mother’s breast milk (very balanced source of nutrients) to cassava porridge (no protein or fat) – Lots of CHO, but no protein to metabolize or transport nutrients Characterized by: enlarged abdomen, ‘burns’ on the skin and diarrhea
131
Why do people with Kwashiorkor have an enlarged abdomen?
1. Decreased plasma proteins causes an osmotic imbalance in the gut (edema); leads to a swelling of the gut 2. Liver is enlarged due to the inability to export fat from the liver (can’t make VLDL)
132
Marasmus and Kwashiorkor typically co-exist in susceptible individuals. True or False?
True.
133
What are the variable and acute protein/ energy restrictions? (protein deficiency)
1. Variable protein/energy restriction: When the dietary challenge fluctuates over time (i.e., feast and famine). -People typically survive these challenges, but can be quite ill for several months of the year. 2. Acute protein/energy restriction: When a severe dietary challenge sets in. -If there is no change, then this would cause death after 1-2 months.
134
Only Marasmus leads to immune dysfunction. | True or False?
False. | BOTH Marasmus & Kwashiorkor lead to immune dysfunction.
135
There is a constant turnover between protein synthesis & breakdown in the body. True or False?
True. | Lect. 11, slide 2
136
How does the protein reuse AAs during protein breakdown?
Most AAs derived from protein breakdown are reused to make new protein, while a little is catabolized. (made from carbon skeleton or ammonia)
137
When it comes to the fate of NH3/NH4+ from AA catabolism, what are 3 differences between the fasted and fed state?
1. Fasted state involves the formation of both glutamine and alanine, while the fed state is primarily glutamine. 2. Fed state involves both the liver and kidneys. 3. Fed state involves the excretion of NH4 + as urea, whereas the fasted state involves the excretion of ammonium (NH4 +) directly.
138
Why don't we die when we eat a high protein diet? (i.e. the fed state) (2)
1. The liver converts the amino group to urea in a process that uses HCO3- 2. Metabolism of Sulfur-containing AA produces a bit of sulphuric acid to neutralize pH
139
Why don't we die when we eat a high protein diet? (i.e. the fed state) (2)
1. The liver converts the amino group to urea in a process that uses HCO3- 2. Metabolism of Sulfur-containing AA produces a bit of sulphuric acid to neutralize pH
140
What happens with proteins when we are in a fasted state?
1. minor amounts of protein are catabolized to release glucogenic amino acids (for gluconeogenesis) - however the primary source of energy is fat (TAG) 2. The breakdown of TAG leads to the production of acidic ketone bodies *The brain will start to use ketone bodies instead of glucose, but there is production of a slightly acidic molecule
141
Long-term fasting encourages a slight ________ (pH can ___ to 7.0). This is also known as nutritional _____. (Hint: fasted state regarding proteins)
Long-term fasting encourages a slight ACIDOSIS (pH can DROP to 7.0). This is also known as nutritional KETOSIS.
142
What happens to the products of TAG breakdown during the fasted state?
Products of TAG breakdown (long hydrocarbon chains) are not very water soluble. The liver converts these long hydrocarbons into small soluble ketone bodies (which the brain can uses for energy during starvation).
143
Why don't we die during a longer-term fast? | AA catabolization
When AAs are catabolized in the fasted state, the amino group is brought directly to the kidney (thus bypassing the urea cycle where HCO3- is used up.) This means that HCO3- produced in the Kreb's cycle can be used to neutralize the weak acidosis state caused by ketones.
144
Why don't we die during a longer-term fast? | AA catabolization
When AAs are catabolized in the fasted state, the amino group is brought directly to the kidney (thus bypassing the urea cycle where HCO3- is used up.) This means that HCO3- produced in the Kreb's cycle can be used to neutralize the weak acidosis state caused by ketones.
145
What are the 4 AAs that are important in nitrogen metabolism?
1. Glutamate 2. Aspartate 3. Alanine 4. Glutamine
146
Why is Glutamate important in nitrogen metabolism?
1. Incredibly important in AA catabolism 2. It is a common end product of transamination reactions - α-ketoacid for glutamate is alpha-ketoglutarate
147
Why is Aspartate important in nitrogen metabolism?
1. Donates an amino group in the urea cycle | - α-ketoacid for asparatate is oxaloacetate
148
Why is Alanine important in nitrogen metabolism?
1. Inter-organ nitrogen carrier (goes to liver) | - α-ketoacid for alanine is pyruvate
149
Why is Glutamine important in nitrogen metabolism?
1. Most abundant AA in the body 2. Inter-organ nitrogen carrier (goes to liver & kidney) 3. Can donate a NH3 group to other reactions
150
What are the 4 reactions that move nitrogen from catabolize protein between organs for excretion?
1. Transamination 2. Oxidative deamination 3a. Glutamine production 3b. Glutamate Regeneration 4. Urea cycle
151
What are the 4 reactions that move nitrogen from catabolize protein between organs for excretion?
1. Transamination 2. Oxidative deamination 3a. Glutamine production 3b. Glutamate Regeneration 4. Urea cycle
152
Briefly explain transamination.
Transamination = transfer of an amino group to an AA carbon skeleton (i.e., α-ketoacid) --> catalyzed by “aminotransferases”
153
Most AAs undergo transamination except.....? (3)
most AA undergo transamination (except lysine, proline, and threonine)
154
_____ ______ (active form of Vit B6) is the coenzyme that holds the NH3 group during transamination.
PYRIDOXAL PHOSPHATE (active form of Vit B6) is the coenzyme that holds the NH3 group during transamination.
155
What are some characteristics of transamination? | 4
1. Bi-directional reactions 2. Active in all tissues 3. Always produces an AA (usually glutamate) and α-ketoacid 4. At least 1 transaminase exists for each AA, with each using glutamate/ alpha-ketoglutarate as one of the pairings
156
What are the most abundant aminotransferases in the liver? | What are their respective reactions?
1. Glutamate pyruvate transaminase (GPT) (also known as ALT) Alpha-ketoglutarate + alanine --> Glutamate + Pyruvate 2. Glutamate oxaloacetate transaminase (GOT) (also known as AST) Alpha-ketoglutarate + Aspartate --> Glutamate + Oxaloacetate
157
Glutamate and alpha-ketoglutarate play key roles in amino acid metabolism. True or False?
True.
158
What is the main AA to undergo oxidative deamination? Why?
Glutamate is the main AA to undergo oxidative deamination. | Because glutamate is the main product of transamination.
159
Give a brief description of oxidative deamination.
1. NH3 is released from the glutamate backbone 2. Reaction favours the formation of alpha-ketoglutarate 3. A process that is very active in all tissues in the body *This is a point in the pathway --> how to get the amino group out of glutamate
160
The uses of free NH4+ after oxidative deamination are tissue-dependent. What occurs i the extrahepatic tissue (EHT), the liver, and the kidneys?
1. Extrahepatic tissue (EHT)--> the NH4+ is used in the synthesis of glutamine 2. Liver--> NH4+ is used for urea synthesis 3. Kidneys-->NH4+ is excreted directly as is into urine
161
Give a brief description of Glutamine production.
1. Formation of glutamine (primary inter-organ nitrogen carrier) 2. Muscles are the main producer of glutamine (produces ~90% of the glutamine found in the body)
162
What enzyme catalyzes the reaction : | Glutamate + NH4+ --> Glutamine
Glutamine synthetase.
163
Glutamine is the most abundant AA in blood. | True or False?
True.
164
What happens to glutamine in the fed state? In the fasted state?
Fed state --> travels to liver | Fasted state --> travels to kidney
165
Give a brief description of glutamate regeneration.
1. Opposite reaction to glutamine production; however, a different enzyme is required 2. Releases NH3 (NH4+) from the glutamine side chain (i.e., deamination) 3. Active in liver in the fed state (NH3 used for urea synthesis) 4. Active in the kidney during fasting (NH3 secreted as NH4+)
166
"Make glutamine in muscle --> travel in blood to deliver NH3 to liver / kidney --> regenerate glutamate" In what reaction does this flow chart occur?
Glutamate regeneration.
167
What enzyme catalyzes glutamate regeneration?
Glutaminase.
168
Give a brief explanation of the urea cycle. | 2
1. Toxic NH4+ is converted to less toxic urea in the liver | 2. Urea transported to kidney for excretion
169
Complete the sentence for both fed and fasted state: | 80-90% of urinary N will be in the form of ______.
Fasted state: 80-90% of urinary N will be in the form of NH4+. Fed state: 80-90% of urinary N will be in the form of UREA.
170
Where does the NH4+ in the urea cycle come from?
1. Oxidative deamination | 2. Glutamate regeneration from glutamine
171
In the urea cycle, aspartate condenses with ______ and _____ an amino group.
In the urea cycle, aspartate condenses with CITRULLINE and DONATES an amino group.
172
The urea cycle uses HCO3-, thereby preventing _______.
The urea cycle uses HCO3-, thereby preventing ALKALOSIS.
173
The urea cycle requires energy in the form of ATP. | True or False?
True.
174
What happens if there are defects in any of the enzymes in the urea cycle?
Defects lead to developmental neurotoxicity due to a build-up of NH4+ in the body.
175
Alanine can travel within the body. What is this cycle called?
Cahill cycle.
176
For every glucose, how many alanine do you get?
For every glucose, you get 2 alanine. 1 glucose = 2 pyruvates; each pyruvate undergoes transamination to alanine
177
Give a summary of nitrogen metabolism in the fed state.
Fed state: - non-liver protein catabolism leads to glutamine formation (from glutamate). - Glutamine is transported to the liver, where it delivers an amino group for urea production. - Urea is then transported to the kidney and excreted in urine.
178
Give a summary of nitrogen metabolism in the fasted state.
Fasted state: - non-liver protein catabolism leads to glutamine formation (from glutamate) and alanine (from pyruvate). - Glutamine is transported directly to the kidney, while alanine is sent to the liver (for gluconeogenesis). - In the kidney, glutamine is converted to glutamate and the removed amino group is excreted in urine as NH4+.
179
In both the fed and fasted states, while nitrogen excretion as urea and NH4+ dominate, respectively, there will still be a small amount of the other being excreted. True or False?
True.
180
In both the fed and fasted states, while nitrogen excretion as urea and NH4+ dominate, respectively, there will still be a small amount of the other being excreted. True or False?
True.
181
When the body's energy sources are low, protein is broken down. AA catabolism releases (1) _____ ____ and (2) ______.
When body’s energy sources are low, protein is broken down. AA catabolism releases (1) AMINO GROUP (NH3), and (2) α-KETOACID.
182
α-ketoacids can be formed in two ways. What are they? Briefly explain each.
1. Deamination --> removal of amino group from AA. The carbon skeleton that remains is the α-ketoacid (mostly seen with glutamate). 2. Transamination --> transfer of an amino group from an AA to an α-ketoacid. In the process, the “donating” AA becomes an α-ketoacid and the “receiving” α-ketoacid becomes an AA.
183
α-ketoacids contain ______ and ______ functional groups.
α-ketoacids contain KETONE and CARBOXYLIC ACID functional groups.
184
What does a ketogenic AA mean?
Ketogenic --> a degraded AA that can be converted into Acetyl CoA
185
What does a glucogenic AA mean?
Glucogenic --> a degraded AA that can be converted into Glucose.
186
What molecules in the krebs cycle are ketogenic?
1. Acetyl CoA (leucine) 2. Acetoacetyl CoA (lysine) (lecutre 11 slide 19)
187
What molecules in the krebs cycle are glucogenic?
1. Pyruvate 2. α-ketoglutarate 3. Succinyl-CoA 4. Fumarate 5. Oxaloacetate
188
Intermediates with ___ to ___ carbons can be used to make glucose. (Hint: blanks are numbers)
Intermediates with 3 to 6 carbons can be used to make glucose.
189
Once you form Acetyl CoA you can no longer use the building blocks to make glucose. Why?
Because Acetyl CoO is purely ketogenic.
190
What does "Fat burns in the flame of CHO" mean?
To burn fat, you must have an active Kreb’s cycle, which depends on availability of oxaloacetate (a CHO). *Doesn't matter how much fat you have, if you don't have oxaloacetate there won't be any energy production.
191
Burning fat is a problem when glycogen is present. | True or False?
False. | Burning fat is NOT a problem when glycogen is present (have oxaloacetate).
192
When glycogen is depleted, you have _______ to maintain blood glucose.
When glycogen is depleted, you have GLUCONEOGENESIS to maintain blood glucose. (from glycogenic AA catabolism)
193
Oxaloacetate is a glucogenogenic precursor, how does this affect the Krebs cycle and the burning of fat?
Oxaloacetate is a gluconeogenic precursor, so if something ELSE isn’t doing this job, oxaloacetate will be used to make glucose and the Kreb’s cycle slows and can’t burn fat.
194
How long does it take for glucose to be depleted from the body?
24 hours.
195
For proper body function you must maintain blood glucose and blood pH at certain levels. What are they?
Blood glucose: between 60-100mg/dL (<60mg/dL you develop a coma and die) Blood pH: near neutrality (related to amino group handling)
196
Blood glucose is required for .......? | 3
1. always required by RBC as energy substrate (no mitochondria) 2. required by central nervous system (brain)0 (although gradual adaptation to ketones is possible) 3. maintaining an active Kreb’s cycle
197
What are the 4 metabolic states? What is the predominant source of blood glucose in each of these states?
1. Fed -Dietary CHO (if high carbohydrate diet) -Dietary protein (if high protein diet) (any leftover AAs are used) 2. Post-absorptive (no food left in GIT) - Glycogen from liver (direct) and muscle (indirect) 3. Fasting (no glycogen) (after 24 hours) - Gluconeogenesis from protein catabolism (only in liver) 4. Starvation (several days, have biochemical adaptations) -Gluconeogenesis from glycerol produced by TAG breakdown; some protein catabolism
198
What is the macronutrient flux?
Macronutrient flux --> the way our body is using carbs, fats, proteins
199
Macronutrient flux is regulated by multiple ______ and numerous _____.
Macronutrient flux is regulated by multiple TISSUES and numerous HORMONES.
200
What happens in short-term macronutrient flux?
Short-term = (minutes to hours) i.e., between meals Tissue crosstalk: - Hormones move throughout the body and activate signalling pathways in their target tissues (e. g. insulin, glucagon, epinephrine, etc.) - Hormones usually affect protein function (e. g. phosphorylation or de-phosphorylation of enzymes) * This occurs rapidly because protein is already made and waiting for modification
201
What happens in long-term macronutrient flux?
Long-term = (several hours to days) i.e., fasting, starvation – Affects gene expression *Cell says "i need to start making different proteins that will allow me to respond in different ways"; it needs to make rna, translate, etc. this takes a lot of time
202
What are the 4 main hormones that regulate metabolism? What is the nature of these hormones and what are they produced by?
1. Insulin - Anabolic - Pancreas (β-cells ) 2. Glucagon - Catabolic - Pancreas (β-cells ) 3. Corticosteroids (cortisol) - Catabolic - Adrenal Cortex 4. Catecholamines (epinephrine) - Catabolic - Adrenal medulla
203
T3 (T4) are hormones produced by the thyroid that affect metabolic rate rather than metabolic regulation. True or False?
True.
204
How does insulin regulate metabolism?
↑ glucose and AA uptake in muscle and liver ↑ glycogen and protein synthesis in muscle and liver; ↑ fat synthesis and storage
205
How does glucagon regulate metabolism?
↑ breakdown of glycogen, protein & fat | ↑ gluconeogenesis from AAs and glycerol
206
How do corticosteroids regulate metabolism?
↑ Muscle protein catabolism | ↑ gluconeogenesis from AAs
207
How do catecholamines regulate metabolism?
↑ glycogenolysis and lipolysis | at the level of adipose tissue
208
The brain has a high requirement for ______ _________ to support its continuous electrical activity.
The brain has a high requirement for OXIDATIVE METABOLISM to support its continuous electrical activity.
209
How much glucose does the brain require per day?
100-120g of glucose per day
210
What are carbs so important to the brain?
Fatty acids can't cross the blood-brain barrier enough to provide sufficient energy (ketone bodies CAN cross but it requires adaptation)
211
During an overnight fast, liver produces 2 mg/min glucose per kg body weight. How much of this does the brain use?
Brain consumes about half of this.
212
Although the liver is a regulating organ, it does not regulate blood glucose levels. True or False?
False. | The liver DOES regulate blood glucose levels.
213
What happens to extra carbs in the body?
Extra carbs get converted into Fatty Acids. Insulin sends glucose to acetyl coA, acetyl CoA is turned into FA. Glucose --> pyruvate --> acetyl coA --(ACC) --> Malonyl CoA --> Fatty Acid
214
How/ Why is the liver a major site for fatty acid β-oxidation?
1. Fatty acids (FAs) from diet and de novo lipogenesis | 2. Only tissue to produce ketone bodies (*critical during starvation)
215
Adipose tissue has a high energy requirement, therefore has a lot of oxidative fuel consumption. True or False?
False. Adipose tissue has a LOW energy requirement, therefore NOT A LOT of oxidative fuel consumption. *doesn't need a lot of energy to perform its function of storing fat
216
What is glucose in adipose tissue used for?
1. For TAG synthesis | 2. Provides energy for fatty acid uptake (via LPL)
217
What is the main function of adipose tissue? | Hint: answer is not fat storage
•Releases non-esterified fatty acids (NEFA) into circulation (from lipolysis) - Depending on circumstances, NEFA can be a major metabolic fuel for the body - NEFA are the same thing as “free fatty acids” *Notice that lipolysis occurs in adipose tissue.
218
Skeletal muscle represents around ____% of body weight.
Skeletal muscle represents around 40% of body weight.
219
What are the main regulators of muscle fuel consumption? | 2
1. Nutritional status | 2. Exercise
220
Muscles are composed of two different kinds of fibres. What are they? Give a brief description of each.
1. Slow-twitch - Used for long duration activity, slow contraction - Predominant source of energy = Fatty acids (i. e., NEFA from adipose tissue) 2. Fast twitch - Used for short duration activity, quick contraction - “Local” glycogen stores = energy source
221
Give a brief description of what happens during intense exercise (anaerobic) (4)
``` (e.g. weight-lifting and sprinting) • hormones are too slow to act • signal = Ca2+ release • energy released from: - muscle glycogen stores - muscle creatine phosphate ```
222
Give a brief description of what happens during sustained exercise (aerobic) (3)
(e.g. jogging) • diffusion of substrates & O2 from blood • slow process • energy released from complete oxidation of glucose and fatty acids
223
Briefly explain the cross-over concept.
1. low-to-moderate intensity exercise--> fatty acids are the primary source of energy 2. high intensity exercise--> glucose is the primary source of energy
224
The Gastrointestinal tract has a low rate of cell turn-over, so energy is needed to allow for protein synthesis and production of DNA/RNA to make new cells. True or False?
False. The Gastrointestinal tract has a HIGH rate of cell turn-over, so energy is needed to allow for protein synthesis and production of DNA/RNA to make new cells.
225
What is the main source of energy in the small intestine?
In the small intestine: Glutamine (AA) is the main source of energy (converted to α-ketoglutarate, an intermediate in the Kreb’s cycle)
226
What is a source of energy for the large intestine that cannot be used in the small intestine?
In the large intestine: SCFA from bacterial fermentation are also used for energy (Particularly butyrate)
227
What are some key points from the "eating to starvation" diagram? (4) (Hint: Glucose, Glycogen, Protein, Fatty acids) (Lecture 11, Proteins part 2)
1. "Precious" glucose is used quickly 2. Glycogen reserves last for 24 hrs, and are then depleted 3. Protein breakdown occurs initially, releasing glucogenic amino acids - This slows down to preserve protein function, but continues to provide what is needed to maintain Kreb's cycle activity 4. Fatty acid breakdown occurs to “spare protein”; eventually used to make ketone bodies
228
What happens with CHO during the fed state? | 3
1. High blood glucose 2. Insulin secreted from pancreas 3. Glucose uptake and glycogen formation promoted in liver and muscle
229
What happens to proteins/ AA in the fed state? | 2
1. AA are catabolized by liver - BCAA go directly to the muscle and promote protein synthesis 2. Glutamine carries nitrogen to the liver from every tissue in the body that is catabolizing AAs - Urea is produced, thus preventing alkalosis conditions (use up HCO3-)
230
What happens to lipids in the fed state? | 1
1. Lipid uptake into adipose tissue
231
What happens to CHO in the post-absorptive state? | 4
1. Blood glucose maintained by glucagon, which increases hepatic glycogen breakdown 2. Liver secretes glucose 3. Necessary to maintain blood glucose for RBC and brain 4. Blood glucose supports Kreb’s cycle in all tissues
232
What happens to proteins in the post-absorptive state? | 1
1. Muscle secretes alanine, which goes to the liver (glucose-alanine cycle)
233
What happens to lipids in the post-absorptive state? | 1
1. Fat not yet used as a source of energy
234
What happens to CHO in the fasted state? | 4
1. Glycogen pools are empty 2. RBC and brain still require glucose for energy 3. Blood glucose supports Kreb’s cycle in all tissues 4. Glucose-alanine cycle active (liver secretes glucose)
235
What happens to proteins in the fasted state? | 3
1. Corticosteroids secreted from adrenal gland promote more protein catabolism - Mostly in muscle, but also gut 2. Glucogenic AAs are used to make glucose in liver (Glucose-alanine cycle active) 3. Alanine and glutamine carry nitrogen (i.e., amino group) - ~50/50 mix between urea and ammonia (kidney)
236
What happens to fats in the fasted state? | 1
1. Fat starts to be used for energy
237
What happens to CHO in the starvation state? | 2
1. Liver produces ketones, which promotes a slight acidosis | 2. Glucose-alanine cycle active
238
What happens to proteins in the starvation state? | 4
1. Liver produces ketones, which promotes a slight acidosis 2. Still have to maintain Kreb’s cycle with protein catabolism (i.e., glucogenic amino acids) 3. Glutamine carries nitrogen directly to kidney (allows HCO3- to be used to buffer against acidic ketone bodies) 4. Glucose-alanine cycle active
239
What happens to fats during the starvation state? | 4
1. Body switches primarily to fat usage for energy 2. Glucagon and catecholamines regulate adipose tissue lipolysis 3. Fat is predominantly ketogenic (only the glycerol backbone is glucogenic) 4. Tissue metabolism adapts to “spare” protein loss
240
Long term starvation leads to _____. | Hint: disease talked about earlier
Long term starvation leads to MARASMUS.
241
During sustained aerobic exercise, there is a rapid sequential mobilization of energy stores to maintain blood glucose and energy. True or False?
True.
242
Sustained aerobic exercise eventually leads to exhaustion. This is due to what cause?
Exhaustion is due to loss of glycogen pools; this leads to a drop in blood glucose or failure of tissue Kreb’s cycle activity (drop in oxaloacetate)
243
What are 4 methods that athletes use to extend their exercise capacity?
1. Carbohydrate loading while resting - Can double muscle glycogen reserve - Delays failure of the Kreb’s cycle 2. Fasting for 3hr prior to start - Avoid insulin secretion--> higher glucagon 3. Consume supplementary CHO during the event - Ex. someone running the Ironman requires around 5000 kcal during the event 4. Caffeine (ergogenic aid) - Stimulates an early release of epinephrine, which activates HSL to promote adipose tissue lipolysis
244
In general, does caffeine actually increase performance?
No. It depends on genotype. People with CC genes (slow breakdown) may actually do worse when given caffeine than without.
245
What are the characteristics for the classification as a vitamin? (6)
1. Exogenous supply is required (can't make on our own) 2. Needed in small amounts 3. Distinct from sugars, fats and proteins in regard to structure and function 3. Perform at least one essential biochemical function in the body 4. When lacking in the diet, a characteristic deficiency disease develops 5. Vitamins are organic - Primary distinction from minerals (which are inorganic)
246
What is the benefit of talking about micronutrients in a "functional grouping/ practical importance discussion" way rather than the "traditional discussion". (Traditional discussion = fat soluble vitamins, water soluble vitamins, minerals)
The functional groupings allow us to talk a little bit more about the bioactivity of vitamins and minerals.
247
What are the 4 groups mentioned when discussing the functional groupings of micronutrients? Give examples of each group.
1. Group I: Micronutrients that control type II steroid hormone receptors and have major global health implications ex. Iodine, Vit A, Vit D, Calcium, Vit K, Phosphorus and Fluoride 2. Group II: Micronutrients that work together in oxidant defense ex. Vit E, Selenium, Vit C, Niacin, Riboflavin, Copper, Zinc, Manganese 3. Group III: Micronutrients that act as enzyme cofactors ex. Thiamin, Niacin, Riboflavin, Vit B6, Folate, Vit B12, Biotin, Pantothenic acid 4. Group IV: Iron, copper, and zinc-related divalent cations
248
1 out of 3 people in developing countries are affected by vitamin & mineral deficiencies. True or False?
True.
249
What is the definition of a Group I micronutrient?
These micronutrients control cellular function through type II steroid receptors.
250
Not all Group I Micronutrients act directly on steroid hormone receptors. True or False?
True. Only the bioactive forms of Vit A, Vit D, and iodine act directly on steroid hormone receptors (But we can’t talk about Vit D without talking about calcium, phosphorus, and Vit K since they are all involved in bone metabolism)
251
Iodine is used to make what? What does this regulate?
Iodine used to make T3 hormone, which regulates synthesis of proteins that control a person’s basal metabolic rate
252
Vit A is used to make what? What does this regulate?
Vit A precursors are converted to retinoids, which regulate night vision, epithelial differentiation, and gene expression
253
Vit D is used to make what? What does this regulate?
Vit D precursors are converted to calcitriol, which regulates calcium levels in the body
254
What are Steroid Hormone Receptors? How do they become active?
Steroid Hormone Receptors --> intracellular protein receptors They need to bind a ligand to become a functional (active) transcription factor
255
There are two types of steroid hormone receptors. What are they? Give a brief description of each.
Type 1 Receptors: Cytosolic - Respond to steroid hormones like estrogen, testosterone, progesterone, glucocorticoids, and mineralcorticoids (We won’t discuss this type) Type 2 Receptors: Nuclear - Respond to steroid & non-steroid ligands, like thyroid hormone, retinoic acid, and calcitrol
256
All ligands are derived from steroids. | True or False?
False. | NOT all ligands are derived from steroids.
257
Iodine is a _______ (organic/ inorganic) mineral that is highly ______ (water/ fat) soluble.
Iodine is an INORGANIC mineral that is highly WATER soluble.
258
Iodine-rich food is found in higher concentrations in coastal populations compared to mountainous regions. True or False?
True. | Seafood has high concentrations of iodine (especially sea greens)
259
How do most people in North America consume their iodine?
In North America, most of the iodine consumed comes through “salt fortified with potassium iodine” - Iodized salt contains 0.03mg iodine per g of salt
260
Dietary iodine is always bound to an amino acid. | True or False?
False. | Dietary iodine can be bound to amino acids or found free.
261
What happens to iodine in the intestinal tract?
In our gastrointestinal tract, iodine (I) is rapidly converted to iodide (I- , its ionic form) and absorbed - Most is absorbed in the stomach, and a bit in small intestine
262
What happens to the free I- in the blood?
In the blood, free I- circulates and can enter all tissues; however, most accumulates in the thyroid gland (70-80% of the iodine in our body is in the thyroid gland)
263
Uptake of I- in the thyroid gland is mediated by an _____ (active/ passive) transport system known as the ____ ________.
Uptake of I- in the thyroid gland is mediated by an ACTIVE transport system known as the Na+/I- SYMPORTER (NIS).
264
All tissues depend on I-. | True or False?
False. | • All tissues depend on thyroid hormones (T3 and T4) rather than iodide itself
265
What happens to T3 and T4 once they are made?
• Once T3 and T4 are made, they are released into blood and transported by specific carrier proteins (albumin, transthyretin, etc.)
266
Which is found more in the blood: T3 or T4?
50× more T4 in blood compared to T3.
267
Which is more potent: T3 or T4?
T3 is 100× more potent.
268
Which has a longer half-life: T3 or T4?
T3 half-life < T4.
269
_____ (T3/T4) interacts with thyroid hormone receptor (THR).
T3 interacts with thyroid hormone receptor (THR).
270
T3 and T4 production is regulated by ____ ____ ____. | Hint: Hormone
T3 and T4 production is regulated by TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone).
271
When T3 blood levels are low, the ________ signals to the pituitary to release TSH.
When T3 blood levels are low, the HYPOTHALAMUS signals to the pituitary to release TSH.
272
Selenium plays an important role in thyroid hormone production. True or False?
True.
273
Iodide radical attacks the _____ residue of the thyroglobulin.
Iodide radical attacks the TYROSINE residue of the thyroglobulin. *This causes the cross-linking between tyrosine residues
274
Where is the iodide ion oxidized to form a free radical?
The colloid (lumen) of the thyroid cell.
275
``` The thyroglobulin (THG) protein is produced in the thyroid cell and then released into the colloid (lumen). True or False? ```
True.
276
Thyroid cell proteases hydrolyze _______, releasing fragments that correspond to T3 and T4 hormones.
Thyroid cell proteases hydrolyze THYROGLOBULIN, releasing fragments that correspond to T3 and T4 hormones.
277
What is the main function of thyroid hormones?
Thyroid hormones influence how your body stores and uses energy (i.e., affects metabolism).
278
List a few things that thyroid hormones can control.
- Breathing - Heart function - Nervous system function - Body temperature - Cholesterol level - Energy balance - Brain development - Moisture in the skin - Menstruation
279
T3 and T4 are lipophilic. | True or False?
True. | This means they can easily cross plasma membranes.
280
T4 can be converted into T3. | True or False?
True. | This mainly occurs in the liver (but can occur in other tissues too).
281
Give a flow chart of how T3 affects gene expression.
T3 + THR (thyroid hormone receptor) --> bind to response element in the promoter region of DNA --> activate gene expression (mRNA) *Note: THR is already in the nucleus
282
Give 2 examples of genes activated by T3. | Hint: result in synthesized enzyme & hormone
1. ATPases (pump Na+ and Ca2+ out of cells), which increases metabolic rate - Na+ (muscle contraction, neuron firing) - Ca2+ (signaling events) 2. Growth hormone (anabolic effects)
283
What processes does T3 regulate in the following tissues: | Adipose tissue, muscle, bone, heart, GIT
``` Adipose Tissue --> lipolysis Muscle --> contraction Bone --> promotes making bone Heart --> Increases heart rate GIT --> stimulates nutrient digestion ```
284
When T3 levels are _____ (high/ low), the pituitary gland releases _____.
When T3 levels are LOW, the pituitary gland releases TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone).
285
When iodine is deficient, the thyroid is still being stimulated by TSH to make hormones, but it can’t. What does this cause? (2)
1. Hyperplasia (↑ cell #) 2. Hypertrophy (↑ cell size) *Protein is still being produced, which grows the cell.
286
What are the major results of iodine deficiency? How are they treated? (2)
1. Goiter (in adults) --> thyroid enlargement - Can be treated with iodine supplements - If left untreated, becomes thyroid cancer 2. Cretinism --> when iodine levels are low in mother, the fetus doesn’t develop properly - Growth & developmental abnormalities - Irreversible - 50 million people have some degree of mental impairment caused by IDD (WHO).
287
How does the international council for the control of Iodine deficiency measure iodine levels?
They measure it through urine (iodine is water soluble).
288
How do most people in the developed world get their iodine?
Through fortification. ex. salt
289
Jamieson says that their supplement "kelp" is a natural iodine source which helps with what?
It helps with thyroid gland support.
290
What does Jamieson claim that their Vitamin A supplement does?
Vitamin A supports night vision, eyesight, and skin health.
291
Ancient Egyptians and Greeks realized that _____ could cure night blindness.
Ancient Egyptians and Greeks realized that LIVER could cure night blindness. *egyptians squeezed it into their eyes, greeks ate it
292
In the late 19th century, vitamin A was originally named fat soluble A. Why?
Originally named fat soluble A because egg yolk contains a fat soluble material that is necessary for life.
293
Vitamin A is a general term used to refer to a group of compounds known as ________.
Vitamin A is a general term used to refer to a group of compounds known as RETINOIDS.
294
What are the major forms of Vitamin A in the body? | 4
Major forms of Vitamin A in the body are: | retinol, retinal, retinoic acid, & retinyl ester
295
"Vitamin A" is an umbrella term. | True or False?
True.
296
The alcohol form, ______, was first identified and then ______ were recognized as the plant form of Vitamin A.
The alcohol form, RETINOL, was first identified and then CAROTENE were recognized as the plant form of Vitamin A.
297
Vitamin A is functionally the same in plants as it is in animals. True or False?
False. | In plants, carotenes are pro-vitamins used for pigmentation. In animals, vitamin A is bioactive.
298
Carotenes (provitamin A) are ________ for Vitamin A.
Carotenes (provitamin A) are PRECURSORS for Vitamin A.
299
Carotenes are a type of carotenoid. What do they do in plants?
They are pigments produced in plants (e.g. β-carotene, α-carotene, etc.)
300
In what foods are retinyl esters often found?
Milk, eggs.
301
_______ _____ = retinol + fatty acid
RETINYL ESTER = retinol + fatty acid
302
For absorption, a ______ _____ must cleave the fatty acid from retinol (in a retinyl ester)
For absorption, a RETINYL ESTERASE must cleave the fatty acid from retinol (in a retinyl ester)
303
At the level of digestion, what happens to β-carotene to be absorbed?
Essentially nothing. β-carotene can be absorbed just like that.
304
Both retinol and β-carotenes are _______ compounds, therefore incorporated into mixed micelles.
Both retinol and β-carotenes are LIPOPHILIC compounds, therefore incorporated into mixed micelles.
305
Through what mechanism are retinol and β-carotene absorbed into the intestinal mucosal cell?
Both are absorbed by passive diffusion.
306
Depending on the Vit A status of a person, β-carotene has 2 fates within the intestinal enterocyte. What are they?
1. Converted into a retinyl ester in the intestinal cell then incorporated into chylomicrons 2. Incorporated “as is” into chylomicrons
307
All vitamin A ends up in the liver as a chylomicron remnant. How do β-carotene and retinyl esters differ in their packaging?
1. β-carotene can be packaged into VLDL and sent for storage in adipose tissue. 2. Retinyl esters (e.g., retinyl palmitate) are stored in hepatic stellate cells until needed *When needed, liver retinyl esterase removes FA, releases retinol to bind to RBP and secreted into blood*
308
Retinol- RBP (retinol binding protein) levels are key. What happens if levels become low?
Low levels of retinol-RBP stimulate the liver to release retinyl esterase.
309
70-90% of dietary retinol absorbed, while 20-50% β-carotene absorbed. What causes this difference in absorption levels?
β-carotene comes from plants, which have higher fiber levels than animal products. Fiber reduces the rate of absorption.
310
In the intestine, β-carotene can be broken down into _____ _______ (aldehyde) by the enzyme _____________.
In the intestine, β-carotene can be broken down into TRANS RETINAL (aldehyde) by the enzyme 15,15’-CAROTENOID DIOXYGENASE.
311
All trans retinal can be converted to trans retinol by _______ ______.
All trans retinal can be converted to trans retinol by RETINOL DEHYDROGENASE.
312
Retinol acts like a detergent, meaning it is safe for the cell. True or False?
False. The retinol acts like a detergent, which is UNSAFE for a cell. So retinol is converted into a retinyl ester (safer for the cell).
313
What does retinyl ester do in the cell? | What is its function?
Nothing. Retinyl esters have no direct function in the body.
314
All trans retinal can be converted into _____ ______ or _____ _____ (directly).
All trans retinal can be converted into TRANS RETINOL or RETINOIC ACID (directly).
315
What is the only direct use for retinal?
Night vision.
316
How does night vision work? | 3
1. Rod cells use rhodopsin to absorb light (greyish purple colour) 2. Opsin + 11-cis retinal combine to become rhodopsin, which is light-sensitive (night sensitivity causes neuron signalling = vision) 3. When light hits rhodopsin, it reforms all trans retinol
317
Isomerase introduces a ______ to all-trans retinal when it converts it to 11-cis retinal.
Isomerase introduces a KINK to all-trans retinal when it converts it to 11-cis retinal.
318
Once retinol-rbp brings retinol to a cell, what happens in the cytosol?
In the cytosol, retinol is converted into retinoic acid.
319
Once retinol is converted to RA, what happens? Give a flowchart.
RA --> into nucleus --> binds to and activates RAR & RXR transcription factors --> complexes homo- & hetero-dimerize with other NHR --> creates a large number of possible TF combinations --> allows regulation of gene expression *RAR --> retinoic acid receptor RXR --> retinoid X receptor NHR --> nuclear hormone receptors
320
Growth hormone is important for growing and differentiating tissues like bones. True or False?
True.
321
What are some major consequences of Vit A deficiency? | 5
1. Night blindness (lack of rhodopsin) - Reversible, one of the first signs of Vit A deficiency - Associated with Bitot’s spots, a buildup of keratin debris in the conjunctiva of the eye 2. Impaired epithelial cell differentiation - Can cause permanent blindness and life threatening infections 3. Impaired growth (growth hormone not produced) - Impacts bone development, tooth decay, etc. 4. Impaired fertility - Decreased sperm formation, fetal resorption (early death of embryo) 5. Fetal development defects - Birth defects due to loss of control of differentiation - Can occur with too little OR too much Vit A
322
What are some major consequences of Vit A deficiency? | 5
1. Night blindness (lack of rhodopsin) - Reversible, one of the first signs of Vit A deficiency - Associated with Bitot’s spots, a buildup of keratin debris in the conjunctiva of the eye 2. Impaired epithelial cell differentiation - Can cause permanent blindness and life threatening infections 3. Impaired growth (growth hormone not produced) - Impacts bone development, tooth decay, etc. 4. Impaired fertility - Decreased sperm formation, fetal resorption (early death of embryo) 5. Fetal development defects - Birth defects due to loss of control of differentiation - Can occur with too little OR too much Vit A
323
What is RAE? | Hint: Vitamin A
RAE = Retinol Activity Equivalents RAE accounts for differences in the biological activity of carotenoids 1 RAE = 1 μg dietary retinol = 12 μg dietary β-carotene = 24 μg other carotenes
324
What are the RDA values for Vitamin A (men/ women)?
Men --> 900 μg/d RAE | Women --> 700 μg/d RAE
325
What is the UL for Vitamin A?
UL = 3000 μg/d RAE
326
Why is there no UL for β-carotene?
Carotenoids prevent deficiency, but don’t cause toxicity. 15,15’-carotenoid dioxygenase regulated by Vit A status. If you have enough Vit A, carotenoids aren’t converted to retinol, but are stored “as is”. (Carotenoids are stored in the inactive form and are converted when needed, but retinol is always in the active form and can cause toxicity.)
327
What is the most severe consequence of Vitamin A toxicity?
Most severe consequence is liver cell death.
328
How does liver cell death occur during Vitamin A toxicity?
Retinyl esters are stored in the stellate cells of the liver and with excess Vit A intake, the cells get full to capacity. Raw Vit A spills out and the local hepatocytes become damaged and die.
329
Although excessive intake of β-carotene is not toxic, what can it cause?
Excessive intake of β-carotene can cause hypercarotenosis (skin turns yellow-orange).
330
Why was accutane, an acne drug that contains 13-cis retinoic acid, taken off the market?
It was shown to cause birth defects in women in the early months of pregnancy.
331
Why was accutane, an acne drug that contains 13-cis retinoic acid, taken off the market?
It was shown to cause birth defects in women in the early months of pregnancy.
332
Polar bears have the ability to store a lot of retinol esters in their liver. What would happen if you are polar bear liver?
You would have Vit A toxicity. Human liver has ~170 RAE/g Polar bear liver has ~10,000 RAE/g
333
Jamieson says their Vitamin D3 supplement does what?
Supports a healthy immune system and bone health.
334
Although Vit A and Iodine deficiencies are prevalent in the developing world, __________ __ is the most prevalent micronutrient deficiency in the developed world.
Although Vit A and Iodine deficiencies are prevalent in the developing world, VITAMIN D is the most prevalent micronutrient deficiency in the developed world.
335
They say Vitamin D acts as a hormone (a "true" steroid hormone). Give two reasons someone might say that.
1. Made in one tissue (kidney) and acts on other tissues | 2. Works with other hormones such as parathyroid and calcitonin
336
Evidence of rickets (i.e., Vit D deficiency) in skeletons from over 50,000 years ago. True or False?
True.
337
Vitamin D was medically described in 1695. | True or False?
True.
338
In 1919, rickets was induced in dogs and then treated with cod liver oil. What did this rediscover?
Rediscovered the use of cod liver oil to prevent bone diseases.
339
Sunlight was also used to cure rickets. What does this indicate?
This indicated that fat soluble Vit D can also be synthesized in the body.
340
What are 5 sources of vitamin D?
1. Natural Plant Sources (Provitamin D2) 2. Natural Animal Sources (Provitamin D3) 3. Sunlight 4. Supplementation 5. Fortification
341
What are 5 sources of vitamin D?
1. Natural Plant Sources (Provitamin D2) 2. Natural Animal Sources (Provitamin D3) 3. Sunlight 4. Supplementation 5. Fortification
342
What is a source of Ergosterol (provitamin D2)? Is it a good source of vitamin D?
- Shitake mushrooms - It's not very active in plants, so not a great source of Vit D *Ergocaliferol is less bioactive than cholecalciferol
343
After irridation, ergosterol (provitamin D2) turns into _________ (vitamin d2).
After irridation, ergosterol (provitamin D2) turns into ERGOCALCIFEROL (vitamin d2).
344
What is a good source of 7-Dehydrocholesterol (provitamin d3)?
Fish, fish liver oils
345
Sunligh converts 7-dehydrocholesterol (provitamin D3) into what? Where does this occur?
• 7-dehydrocholesterol (7-D) is converted to CHOLECALCIFEROL (Vit D3) by sunlight (UVB and infrared) This occurs in sebaceous glands of skin.
346
To convert 7-D into Vitamin D3, it takes at least 1 hour in the sun. True or False?
False. | This occurs as soon as you go out in the sun.
347
How does Vitamin D3 circulate around the body?
Vit D3 binds to the Vitamin D binding protein.
348
Sunlight also turns 7D into luminersterol and tachysterol. What happens to these molecules? Are they active?
These molecules are inactive, and are eventually lost as we shed skin. *Note: Luminesterol and tachysterol can also be converted back into 7D.
349
______ in the epidermis absorbs UV rays, which can limit Vit D3 production.
MELANIN in the epidermis absorbs UV rays, which can limit Vit D3 production. *This was part of the problem for population deficiencies over time (migrating populations).
350
What kind of Vitamin D supplementation should we use? Who is this important for?
We should use Vit D3 (cholecalciferol). This is especially important for someone who spends lots of time indoors.
351
Vitamin D fortification is a government initiative, often in milk and margarine. Is it sufficient for a person's Vitamin D needs?
No. | It is insufficient for health if this is a person’s only source of Vit D3.
352
Vitamin D fortification is a government initiative, often in milk and margarine. Is it sufficient for a person's Vitamin D needs?
No. | It is insufficient for health if this is a person’s only source of Vit D3.
353
How high is the risk of getting Vitamin D toxicity from the sun?
There is no risk.
354
Once Vit D3 enters the blood bound to DBP (after sunlight conversion), where does it go?
It can go to: • Liver (conversion) • Adipose (storage)
355
Vitamin D3 is absorbed _____ (passively/ actively) in the ileum, but this is not very efficient.
Vitamin D3 is absorbed PASSIVELY in the ileum, but this is not very efficient.
356
Like Vitamin A, Vitamin D is incorporated into chylomicrons and eventually ends up in the liver. True or False?
True.
357
What is the difference between sun-dderived and diet-derived Vit D3?
There is no difference. It is the same molecule.
358
In the liver, Vit D3 is ________ to form 25-OH D3 via ____________ (a cytochrome p450 enzyme).
In the liver, Vit D3 is HYDROXYLATED to form 25-OH D3 via 25-HYDROXYLASE (a cytochrome p450 enzyme).
359
Once produced in the liver, what happens to 25-OH D3?
25-OH D3 is secreted into blood bound to DBP. *This corresponds to the largest pool of 25-OH D3 in body.
360
Low ________ ____ in the blood is the key sign of Vit D deficiency.
Low 25-OH D3 in the blood is the key sign of Vit D deficiency.
361
When ____ levels are low in the body, 25-OH D3 will be converted into an active molecule.
When CALCIUM levels are low in the body, 25-OH D3 will be converted into an active molecule.
362
A healthy individual has a low gradient blood to intracellular Ca2+. True or False?
False. | High gradient of blood to intracellular Ca2+ is essential.
363
Low blood Ca2+ is sensed by the ______ ______.
Low blood Ca2+ is sensed by the PARATHYROID GLAND.
364
When the parathyroid gland senses low blood Ca2+, it releases ______. What does this do?
When the parathyroid gland senses low blood Ca2+, it releases PTH (parathyroid hormone). PTH promotes uptake of 25-OH D3/ DBP complex into the kidney.
365
In the kidney, _______ converts inactive 25-OH D3 into active _________ __.
In the kidney, 1-hydroxylase converts inactive 25-OH D3 into active 1,25-(OH)2 D3.
366
The active form of Vitamin D3 (1,25-(OH)2 D3) is known as ______.
The active form of Vitamin D3 (1,25-(OH)2 D3) is known as CALCITRIOL.
367
Calcitriol is sent out into the body to activate intracellular signalling pathways. What are the two types of pathways it activates?
1. Genomic | 2. Non-genomic
368
Explain the genomic pathway that calcitriol activates.
- Vit D receptor (VDR) = nuclear hormone receptor - Transcription factor that promotes calcium binding protein synthesis - Calcium-binding proteins are activated by Vitamin K dependent post-translational modifications (γ-carboxylation)
369
Explain the non-genomic pathway that calcitriol activates.
- Binds cell surface receptors, like MARRS (membrane associated rapid response steroid-binding protein) - Activates intracellular signalling cascades - Very fast, no dependence on Vit K
370
What are the genomic & non-genomic responses to low blood calcium? (2)
1. VDR is activated and turns on the expression of genes coding for calcium binding proteins (require Vitamin K dependent γ-carboxylation to become fully functional) 2. Membrane transporters are activated (e.g., MARRS)
371
What are the bone responses to low blood calcium? | 4
1. Elevated calcitriol and PTH work together to stimulate resorption of Ca2+ and Phorphorus from bone 2. Calcitriol causes an increase in the expression of RANK ligand (RANKL), a cytokine 3. RANKL activates osteoclasts to increase their activity 4. Osteoclasts secrete factors that degrade the bone matrix to release Ca2+ and P into the blood (high calcitriol (and pth) --> high RANKL --> high osteoclast activity)
372
What are the intestinal responses to low blood calcium? | 2
1. Primary function is to increase absorption and reabsorption of Ca2+ 2. Calcitriol turns on the expression of genes coding calcium binding proteins
373
To increase blood calcium levels there are three main processes. What are they and where do they occur?
1. Absorption (small intestine) 2. Reabsorption (kidney) 3. Resorption (bone)
374
Briefly explain absorption in the small intestine (relevance to Vit D/ Ca2+).
- Minerals need transporters to be absorbed by intestinal cells and enter into portal circulation - Proper absorption of Ca2+ depends on the expression of Ca2+ binding proteins in enterocytes
375
Briefly explain reabsorption in the kidneys (relevance to Vit D/ Ca2+).
- Small molecules like Ca2+ circulate in blood and eventually reach the kidney, where they pass through the filter and can end up in the urine (unless reabsorbed) - Reabsorption removes the molecules from the filtrate and gets them back into the blood
376
Briefly explain resorption in the bones (relevance to Vit D/ Ca2+).
- Dissolving bone structure to release Ca2+ into the blood (Osteoclasts resorb bone, osteoblasts build bone) - Balance between break-down and synthesis allows for bone maintenance, remodeling and repair
377
Maintaining blood Ca2+ is more important than maintaining Ca2+ reserves in bone. True or False?
True.
378
How does Parathyroid hormone regulate blood calcium levels?
Serves to INCREASE blood calcium (1st response): - Promotes the production of calcitriol in kidney by activating 1-hydroxylase enyzme - Stimulates resorption of bone by activating osteoclasts - Maximizes tubular reabsorption of calcium in kidney - No direct effect on small intestinal absorption
379
How does vitamin D (Calcitriol) regulate blood calcium levels?
Serves to INCREASE blood calcium: - Stimulates Ca2+ resorption from bone - Helps to increase absorption of Ca2+ from intestine - Maximizes tubular reabsorption of Ca2+ in kidney
380
How does calcitonin regulate blood calcium levels?
Secreted by parafollicular cells in the thyroid Serves to DECREASE blood Ca2+ (e.g. in response to Ca2+ rebound): - Suppresses tubular reabsorption of Ca2+ in kidney - Inhibits bone resorption and facilitates remineralization
381
Consequence of Vit D deficiency varies across the lifespan. | True or False?
True.
382
The composition of normal bone is a mixture of _____ (outer) and _____ (inner) parts.
The composition of normal bone is a mixture of SOLID (outer) and SPONGY (inner) parts.
383
In the solid part of bones, how much is mineral and how much is organic?
Solid part is 60% mineral (Ca2+, P) and 40% organic (collagen)
384
In babies, bones start as minerals and gradually become infused with collagen. True or False?
False. | In babies, bones start as COLLAGEN and gradually become infused with MINERALS.
385
Vit D deficiency concerns only the ____ part of bones, as it changes the ratio of mineral to collagen in the bone matrix.
Vit D deficiency concerns only the SOLID part of bones, as it changes the ratio of mineral to collagen in the bone matrix.
386
Give a brief description of Vit D deficiency in infants.
Vit D deficiency in Infants = Rickets (poor mineralization) - Bones don’t mineralize properly and can’t support the body’s weight when they start walking (permanent and reversible only with surgery) - Was seen in Britain during the industrial revolution
387
Give a brief description of Vit D deficiency in adolescents to adults.
Vit D deficiency in Adolescents to Adult = Osteomalacia –-Bones become demineralized (can be reversed with supplementation) - Bone fractures can occur more easily
388
Give a brief description of Vit D deficiency in middle-aged to elderly.
Vit D deficiency in Middle-Aged to Elderly = Osteoporosis - Normal part of aging (loss of both mineral and organic parts of bone) - Diagnosed with bone density scans - Difficult to reverse due to erosion of bone (holes in bone form)
389
In the early 1900s, what kind of treatment was successful for rickets?
UV treatment and cod oil.
390
What is the definition of osteoporosis?
Osteoporosis --> Bone loss associated with aging
391
Osteoporosis can be worsened by chronic low Ca2+, Vit D, and/or Vit K intake. True or False?
True.
392
When do most people have peak bone mass?
20-30yrs
393
Men have higher peak bone mass between 20-30 yrs and higher bone loss. True or False?
False. Men have higher peak bone mass between 20-30 yrs and LOWER bone loss
394
What kind of treatments are there for osteoporosis?
Treatments include supplementation or drugs that affect bone formation/ resorption.
395
What causes an increased risk of osteoporosis for women?
Menopause.
396
Vit D surveys and human intervention studies suggest that ↑ Vit D3 improves bone mass; decreases colon, prostate and breast cancers; diminishes MS, psoriasis, rheumatoid arthritis; decreases hypertension & CVD; decreases diabetes; improves muscle strength and motor nerve function in elderly. True or False?
True.
397
What is the RDA Vit D intake for adults? What does this mean in grams.
The RDA for Vit D intake for adults is 600 IU (international units). 1μg Vit D = 40 IU…so this means 15 μg of Vit D / day.
398
How has the RDA for Vit D changed since 2010? Why was it changed?
In 2010, the RDA was 200 IU. Health Canada tripled the RDA based on overwhelming scientific evidence (Used input from research, stakeholders, and scientists) Statscan found that a lot of canadians were deficient.
399
You can get Vit D toxicity from the sun. | True or False?
False. Production of Vit D3 is limited by amounts of 7-D present in the skin – Sunglight also produces the inactive lumisterol and tachysterol metabolites with prolonged sun exposure, which have no bioactivity
400
Very high dietary levels of Vitamin D can cause ______, leading to a possible calcification of soft tissues.
Very high dietary levels of Vitamin D can cause HYPERCALCEMIA, leading to a possible calcification of soft tissues.
401
People with Vit D intake > 10,000 IU (or more) / day for several months experience toxicity (hypercalcemia) and acute kidney injury. True or False?
True.
402
Jamieson clains their Vit K2 + D3 supplement does what?
They claim it supports a healthy immune system and bone health
403
Vitamin K is most important for bone ______ and blood ______.
Vitamin K is most important for bone FORMATION and blood COAGULATION.
404
Vitamin K is found in leafy greens as _________, and made by gut bacteria in the form of ______.
Vitamin K is found in leafy greens as PHYLLOQUINONE, and made by gut bacteria in the form of MENAQUINONE.
405
Why do newborns have poor vitamin K status?
- There is little Vit K in mother’s milk and babies aren’t eating leafy plants yet - Babies also haven’t developed their colonic (gut) bacteria, so no menaquinone - Babies given Vit K via a heel prick at birth
406
Vitamin K deficiency is common in adults. | True or False?
False. | Deficiency is very rare in adults due to bacterial production
407
Phylloquinone and menaquinone are referred to as "quinones" because they have essentially the same function, but are structurally a little different. True or False?
True.
408
How is phylloquinone digested and absorbed?
Phylloquinone requires no digestion - Incorporated into micelles and absorbed in the small intestine - Absorbed via NPC1L1 apical transporter (also involved in cholesterol absorption)
409
How is menaquinone digested and absorbed?
Menaquinones produced by bacteria in the large intestine | – Passive absorption
410
Quinones are incorporated into chylomicrons and delivered to various tissues around the body. Where can vitamin K be stored?
Vit K can be stored in cell membranes in lungs, kidneys, adrenal glands, bone, etc.
411
Phylloquinone and menaquinone: which is unsaturated, which is saturated?
Phylloquinone in PLANTS (Vit K1): Saturated side chain Menaquinone by BACTERIA (Vit K2): Unsaturated side chain
412
__ _______ is the post-translation modification that Vit K is responsible/ essential for.
γ-CARBOXYLATION is the post-translation modification that Vit K is responsible/ essential for.
413
How does Warfarin, the rat poison, work?
WARFARIN= (anti-coagulant drug) rat poison that functions by inhibiting epoxide reductase, keeps vitamin k in inactive form and prevents the pathway from taking place.
414
What needs to happen for blood coagulation to take place?
Gla residues on blood clotting proteins bind Ca2+. Ca2+ allows Gla-containing proteins to bind to phospholipids on membranes of blood platelets and endothelial cells.
415
Is Vitamin K toxicity common in adults?
No.
416
What populations are susceptible to Vitamin K deficiencies? | 3
1. Newborn infants (injected with phylloquinone at birth) - Little Vit K in breast milk - Vit K can’t cross the placenta for delivery to the developing fetus - Gut bacteria population not established 2. People who take antibiotics chronically - Antibiotics destroy the gut bacterial community (can no longer produce menoquinone) 3. People with malabsorptive illnesses (IBD, Crohn’s, pancreatitis)
417
What are some Vit K deficiency symptoms related to its role in γ-carboxylation. (2)
1. Impaired blood clotting - Possible hemorrhagic syndrome (mostly seen in newborns) 2. Impaired activation of calcium binding proteins - Accelerate development of osteoporosis (mostly seen in elderly adults)
418
Jamieson claims its calcium supplements does what?
Helps to prevent osteoporosis and develop strong bones.
419
Calcium represents _____% of the body's mineral mass.
Calcium represents 40% of the body's mineral mass. *1,000 – 1,400 mg in human body
420
Where is the calcium found in the body?
99% --> Bones and teeth contain | 1% --> critically important for signalling pathways
421
What organ detects calcium levels?
Parathyroid hormones.
422
What are some sources of calcium?
Predominantly obtained from dairy products, but also high in sardines, salmon, and some green leafy vegetables *Present in these foods as an insoluble salt – Stomach acid creates soluble Ca2+
423
Where is about 25-30% of dietary calcium is absorbed?
Small intestine.
424
How is calcium absorbed in the small intestine?
Primary uptake: Saturable, carrier-mediated, active transport • Absorption regulated by calcitriol; Most calcium absorbed this way Secondary pathway uptake: Diffusion via paracellular route is
425
Calcium is transported around the body in various ways. What are they and what are their associated percentages?
~40% bound to albumin ~10% found complexed with sulfate, phosphate, etc ~50% found in free (ionized) form
426
What are the functions of bone calcium?
BONE Calcium (99%) - Minerals (calcium, phosphorus, fluoride, magnesium, potassium, etc) make up hydroxyapatite (a crystal like structure) (This is ~60% of solid bone mass)
427
What are the functions of intra- and extracellular calcium?
INTRA- and EXTRACELLULAR Calcium (1%) Ionized calcium is active and used for: - Blood clotting (formation of “Gla” residues on coagulation proteins) - Skeletal muscle contraction (release of calcium stores) - Nerve potential (acting through ion channels) Intracellular signalling pathways (e.g., Ca2+ activates PLA2, which cleaves arachidonic acid from phospholipids to produce eicosanoids)
428
What happens to bone Ca2+ when intra- and extra-cellular Ca2+ levels drop?
Bone is sacrificed in this case.
429
How is intracellular calcium distributed?
- Most is stored in mitochondria and ER - Released from stores in response to an extracellular signal (e.g. receptor binding) to ultimately promote an intracellular response (e.g., gene expression, neurotransmission, etc.) (leads to depolarization of the cell, and very rapid changes)
430
How is blood (extracellular) calcium distributed?
-Maintained at a very constant level; ~10,000x the concentration of intracellular calcium*** (when something happens within the cell that needs the response of calcium, there is a very favourable gradient that allows calcium to rush into the cell and come into effect) – Nearly identical to the concentration of phosphorus (detected by parathyroid hormone)
431
How is bone calcium distributed?
- The majority (around 99%) of the calcium in the body is in the bone and teeth - In bone, 99% is in mineral phase (hydroxyapatite), and 1% is in a pool that can exchange with extracellular calcium
432
How has the UL of Ca2+ changed in children, adults, and elderly?
↑ UL in children ↓ UL in adults (51-70 yrs) ↓ UL in >70yrs to prevent developing kidney stones
433
How has the UL of Ca2+ changed in children, adults, and elderly?
↑ UL in children (help mineralization and formation of bones) ↓ UL in adults (51-70 yrs) (due to kidney stones) ↓ UL in >70yrs to prevent developing kidney stones
434
What are some factors affecting calcium absorption?
``` Caffeine ↓ Some fibres ↓ Magnesium & Zinc ↓ PTH (Vit D) ↑ Pregnancy & lactation ↑ (this is why RDA for calcium remains the same during pregnancy) ```
435
What does Ca2+ deficiency affect? | 4
*Profoundly affects bone and muscle 1. Bone • Inadequate mineralization in bone – Rickets in children (commonly associated with Vit D deficiency) – Osteomalacia in adults (and increases risk of developing Osteoporosis) 2. Muscle • Tetany – A condition characterized by involuntary muscle contractions 3. Evidence for association with hypertension 4. Evidence for association with colon cancer (current research supports association in high risk populations)
436
What are the effects of calcium toxicity?
1. Constipation, bloating, and/or gas 2. Hypercalcemia (calcification of soft tissues) – Kidney stones
437
What is the 2nd most abundant mineral in the body?
Phosphorus.
438
Why are deficiency and toxicity of phosphorus rare?
Phospphorys is widely distributed in foods.
439
Phosphorus is found in animal products as ______ and in grains as ______ _____.
Phosphorus is found in animal products as PHOSPHORUS and in grains as PHYTIC ACID.
440
How is phosphorus absorbed in the small intestine? | How much of it is absorbed?
Most phosphorus is absorbed in the small intestine in its ionic form - Passive diffusion (primary method) - Saturable, carrier-mediated, active transport (NaPi cotransporter) (could also be with ATP active transport) 50-70% of the phosphorus in foods is absorbed.
441
What inhibits phosphorus absorption?
Absorption inhibited by magnesium, aluminum, & calcium (these are called phosphate binders).
442
What inhibits phosphorus absorption?
Absorption inhibited by magnesium, aluminum, & calcium (these are called phosphate binders).
443
Phosphorus is primarily transported in the blood as ______ ____ (it is incorporated into _______).
Phosphorus is primarily transported in the blood as ORGANIC PHOSPHATE (it is incorporated into PHOSPHOLIPIDS).
444
Phosphorus is found largely in bone (________), but also in molecules key for metabolism like ATP, DNA, RNA, cAMP, etc.
Phosphorus is found largely in bone (HYDROXYAPATITE), but also in molecules key for metabolism like ATP, DNA, RNA, cAMP, etc.
445
Phosphorus plays a key role in protein ________, a common PTM in proteins.
Phosphorus plays a key role in protein PHOSPHORYLATION, a common PTM in proteins.
446
Is fluoride essential to the body?
No. | Fluoride is present in the body in trace amounts.
447
How do communities inverse the relationship between fluoride intake and dental caries?
Community water fluoridated (with ~1 ppm or ~1mg/L) for the past 60 years
448
How is fluoride absorbed? Where is it absorbed?
Absorption in stomach by passive diffusion (nearly 100% efficiency)
449
How is fluoride transported in the body?
Transported in the body as ionic fluoride or bound to plasma proteins.
450
What is the major function of fluoride when it comes to mineralization of teeth and bones?
Increases resistance of enamel to acid demineralization by forming fluoroapatite (protective layer)
451
What happens when there is fluoride deficiency?
Increased incidence of tooth decay
452
What happens when there is fluoride toxicity?
Fluorosis (mottling of the teeth) -Tolerable upper limit in adults is 10mg/day
453
What happens when there is fluoride toxicity?
Fluorosis (mottling of the teeth) -Tolerable upper limit in adults is 10mg/day
454
Group II micronutrients are involved in _______ reactions.
Group II micronutrients are involved in REDOX reactions.
455
Briefly explain the mechanism of a redox reaction.
- Involves the transfer of electrons between two substrates (donor and acceptor) - Many biochemical reactions are essentially electron transfers
456
A large number of micronutrients are involved in redox reactions. True or False?
True.
457
What are the primary electron carriers in the body? Why are they important?
• The primary electron carriers in the body are NADH and FADH2 They are important for the creation of ATP.
458
What pathways in the body depend on redox reactions? | 7
``` Glycolysis Lactic Acid Production Pyruvate Dehydrogenation Kreb’s Cycle Gluconeogenesis β-oxidation ```
459
What are the primary electron carriers in the body? Why are they important?
The primary electron carriers in the body are NADH (niacin) and FADH2 (riboflavin) They are important for the creation of ATP.
460
What pathways in the body depend on redox reactions? | 7
``` Glycolysis Lactic Acid Production Pyruvate Dehydrogenation Kreb’s Cycle Gluconeogenesis β-oxidation ```
461
What are ROS? How are they produced?
Reactive Oxygen Species (ROS). -ROS produced as a by product of the ETC when proper electron flow fails (~1% “leakage") - Occurs in a O2 rich environment, where oxygen can react with electrons (causes oxygen radicals with free electrons that are very reactive)
462
What disease is caused by a mutation in SOD (superoxide dimutase)?
Mutations in SOD cause Lou Gehrig's.
463
H2O2 is converted to H2O by ______ _______ and _______ (selenium dependent enzymes).
H2O2 is converted to H2O by GLUTATHIONE PEROXIDASE and CATALASE (selenium dependent enzymes).
464
Give an example of a time when ROS are NOT bad.
T3 and T4 production
465
In the ROS cycle, which molecule is considered to be a "fork in the road"?
H2O2. Glutathione perosidase converts H2O2 to 2 H2O, but if H2O2 reacts with a free electron, there is a Fenton reaction, creating a hydroxyl radical.
466
In the ROS cycle, which molecule is considered to be a "fork in the road"?
H2O2. Glutathione perosidase converts H2O2 to 2 H2O, but if H2O2 reacts with a free electron, there is a Fenton reaction, creating a hydroxyl radical.
467
Jamieson claims their Vitamin E supplement does what?
Mixed tacopherol antioxidant support
468
Vitamin E is a general term that describes __ structurally-related compounds known as ______.
Vitamin E is a general term that describes 8 structurally-related compounds known as VITAMERS.
469
What are the different kind of vitamers?
1. 4 tocopherols - Have saturated side chains with 16 carbons 2. 4 tocotrienols - Have unsaturated side chains with 16 carbons Vitamers in both classes ( α , β , γ , δ) *Although they are all similar, the differences are big enough at the molecular level that they have different transport proteins (especially tocopherol)
470
What Vitamin E vitamer has significant activity in the body?
Only α-tocopherol has significant activity in the body
471
How does inter-conversion of vitamins occur in animals?
There is no inter conversion of vitamers in animals Ex., β-tocotrienol cannot be converted into α-tocopherol
472
All vitamers are naturally found in foods. | True or False?
True.
473
Vitamers are chemical compounds that have a similar molecular structure, each showing vitamin activity to some extent. True or False?
True.
474
Vitamers are chemical compounds that have a similar molecular structure, each showing vitamin activity to some extent. True or False?
True.
475
Which vitamer has a saturated side chain? (phytyl tail)
Tocopherols
476
The tocopherol nomenclature is used to describe the # and position of _______ _____ groups.
The tocopherol nomenclature is used to describe the # and position of RING METHYL (CH3) groups.
477
The ______ group is the antioxidant site of vitamers.
The HYDROXYL group is the antioxidant site of vitamers.
478
Which tocopherol isoform has the most methylated ring?
α isoform has the most methylated ring.
479
How are vitamin E tocopherols absorbed by the small intestine?
Transport mediated uptake in the small intestine (e.g., NPC1L1)
480
The “R” and “S” of vitamers refers to ______ _____ configuration of methyl groups on side chain.
The “R” and “S” of vitamers refers to CHIRAL CARBON configuration of methyl groups on side chain.
481
What is the chirality of α-tocopherol? what does this mean for its transfer protein?
Natural α-tocopherol is RRR - Fits into the binding pocket of the Tocopherol Transfer Protein (TTP) * It is the only one that fits into TTP properly
482
Which vitamer has an unsaturated side chain? (Phytyl tail)
Tocotrienols.
483
There are lower levels of tocotrienols in food compared to tocopherols. True or False?
True.
484
How are vitamin E tocotrienols absorbed by the small intestine?
Transport mediated uptake in the small intestine (e.g., NPC1L1)
485
Tocotrienols have ant-oxidant activity in the liver only. Why is this?
Tocotrienols are only not converted to α-tocopherol or able to fit in the TTP binding pocket.
486
What are some food sources of Vitamin E?
- Food sources: nuts, seeds, vegetable oils, avocado | - Mostly obtained from plants because stored in adipose tissue in animals (and we don’t normally eat the fat).
487
Is vitamin E sensitive to food preparation ans storage?
Yes. (Sensitive to food preparation & storage (e.g. roasting nuts ↓ Vit E levels)
488
The RDA of Vitamin E is based on only α-tocopherol. | True or False?
True. Adults (15 mg = 22.4 IU) of α-tocopherol per day - The RDA is increased for pregnant women compared to age matched non pregnant women (due to oxidative damage that can occur to the fetus)
489
How do we test for Vitamin E deficieny?
Estimated with tests to examine the hemolysis (breakdown) of red blood cells in the presence of dilute H2O2 (put RBC in dilute H2O2 and see what happens; lack of vitamin E = hemolysis) - (>20% RBC hemolysis means there is a Vit E deficiency)
490
What occurs when you reach the UL of Vitamin E (1000mg/ day)?
UL = 1,000 mg / day (above this amount will cause increased bleeding) - However, gastrointestinal problems can be seen at lower levels than the UL *Note: UL changes from person to person, some people have GI problems at 600mg or lower
491
In what populations do VItamin E deficiencies tend to occur? | 3
1. Pre-mature infants (kept in oxygen rich incubators, which increases oxidative stress) 2. People with fat malabsorption disorders or gallbladders removed 3. People with genetic defects in lipoproteins or TTP (need to be monitored as they have problems transporting vitamin e across the body)
492
Give a flow chart of the digestion, absorption, metabolism, and storage of vitamin E. (6)
1. Requires bile acids for emulsification & incorporation into micelles 2. Absorbed in small intestine by transporters (e.g., NPC1L1) 3. Packaged into chylomicrons 4. Chylomicron remnants, containing Vit E, are taken up by the liver 5. Liver makes TTP, which is needed to get α tocopherol packaged into VLDL (Other vitamers can help a bit with anti-oxidant activity in the liver only, but are quickly degraded) 6. No specific “storage” organ for Vit E, but most of it goes into lipid droplets in adipose tissue
493
What are the 3 lines of defense against ROS?
Lines of Defense: 1. GSH peroxidase 2. Vitamin E 3. FA peroxidase
494
What is Jamieson's claim for their Selenium supplement?
Super Antioxidant support
495
How do plants incorporate selenium from the soil?
Plants incorporate selenium from the soil into methionine and cysteine AAs instead of sulfur Therefore, selenium content in food is determined by selenium levels in the soil *Note: selenocysteine makes certain proteins function, selenomethionine makes them not functional.
496
How are SelenoAA absorbed in the small intestine?
SelenoAA are absorbed in the small intestine by amino acid transporters and travel freely in the blood
497
What SelenoAA does the body use?
The body uses selenocysteine –~30 specific selenocysteine containing proteins in body that are involved in thyroid hormone metabolism, DNA synthesis and protection from oxidative damage
498
Globalization of foods has reduced the risk of selenium deficiency. True or False?
True.
499
What disease occurs due to selenium deficiency? Where is selenium deficiency common?
- China and Africa (low Se in soil) - Keshan disease (cardiomyopathy from cell damage by free radicals)
500
Selenium toxicity is rare. | True or False?
True.
501
What happens when selenium toxicity occurs?
Selenosis --> chronic consumption of lots of brazil nuts which are rich in selenium can lead to hair and nail loss (most common symptoms)
502
What are two important selenoproteins involved in oxidant defense?
1. Glutathione peroxidase = 1st line of defence against lipid peroxidation 2. Fatty acid peroxidase = 3rd line of defence against lipid peroxidation
503
Both selenoproteins use ________ as a substrate, which helps to protect cells against oxidative damage (it acts as the reducing agent).
Both selenoproteins use GLUTATHIONE (GSH) as a substrate, which helps to protect cells against oxidative damage (it acts as the reducing agent).
504
The structure of glutathione is crucial as ________ and _____ linked through a gamma-carbon. This gamma peptide bond is resistant to cellular _______.
The structure of glutathione is crucial as GLUTAMATE and CYSTEINE linked through a gamma-carbon. This gamma peptide bond is resistant to cellular PROTEASES. *Note: glutathione itself does not have selenium in its structure.
505
Glutathione (GSH) (a tripeptide) is the major intracellular reducing agent. True or False?
True.
506
Briefly explain how Glutathione functions. | *This is from side notes
Selenium gets incorporated into the enzymes, not into the glutathione itself. It is however within the peroxidase enzyme. Glutathione is a SINGLE electron donor (1 electron per glutathione) and it is a reducing agent. Glutathione will donate an electron from its thiol group, but it keeps its structure thanks to the bond between cysteine and glutamate - glutamate is attached to cysteine via its side chain (gamma carbon) this gamma-peptide bond gives stability --> resistant to cellular proteases it allows glutathione to function as a good reducing agent within the cell
507
Since GSH is a single electron donor, how many GSH are needed per reaction?
2 GSH. | GSH is oxidized and reacts with another GSH to form GSSG.
508
A healthy cell has >90% GSH and <10% GSSG. | True or False?
True.
509
What does a high cellular level of GSSG indicate?
``` High cellular levels of GSSG indicative of high oxidative stress. ```
510
What does a high cellular level of GSSG indicate?
High cellular levels of GSSG indicative of high oxidative stress.
511
Oral GSH supplements are a great way of maintaining GSH levels. True or False?
False. | Oral GSH supplements not very effective because they are poorly absorbed.
512
The pentose phosphate pathway (______ _____ _____) regenerates NADPH (which requires niacin).
The pentose phosphate pathway (HEXOSE MONOPHOSPHATE SHUNT) regenerates NADPH (which requires niacin).
513
What is Jamieson's claim for Vitamin C? Is this the best description they could have used?
Jamison claims vitamin c has antioxidant support. | A better description would be support the immune system.
514
Vitamin C is _____ acid; at physiological pH is it known as _______.
Vitamin C is ASCORBIC acid; at physiological pH is it known as ASCORBATE.
515
Vitamin C exists in both D and L isomers. Which is biologically active in humans?
The L isomer is biologically active in humans.
516
Many mammals can synthesize Vit C from glucose, except: Humans, primates, fruit bats, guinea pigs, and some birds. Why is this?
This is because we lack the specific enzyme gulonolactone oxidase. Glucose (or galactose) --> gulonolactone --(gulonolactone oxidase) --> ascorbic acid
517
What is a primary source of Vitamin C?
Fruits and vegetables.
518
Vitamin C is very sensitive to heat, light, oxidation, and alkaline solutions. True or False?
True.
519
What kind of digestion does vitamin C require prior to absorption?
Vitamin C doesn’t require digestion prior to absorption.
520
How is vitamin C absorbed in the small intestine? How much of it is absorbed?
Uptake via sodium dependent vitamin C (SVCT) 1 and 2 transporters in the small intestine (feedback mechanism exists) - 70 90% dietary Vit C is absorbed - There appears to be a maximum amount of Vit C that can be absorbed (this is what feedback mechanism means)
521
How is Vitamin C primarily found in the circulation?
Found in circulation primarily in “free form” (i.e., not bound to a protein)
522
How is Vitamin C primarily found in the circulation?
Found in circulation primarily in “free form” (i.e., not bound to a protein)
523
There are two biologically active forms of Vitamin C. What are they? (Hint: Reduced and oxidized)
Reduced: Ascorbic acid Oxidized: Dehydroascorbic acid *Foods contain mostly ascorbic acid, but can have small amounts of the oxidized form (dehydroascorbic acid).
524
Vit C concentrations are high in _____ blood cells, as well as in many tissues.
Vit C concentrations are high in WHITE blood cells, as well as in many tissues.
525
Involved in a number of biological processes, such as: – Collagen synthesis – Tyrosine synthesis – Neurotransmitter synthesis Of the three processes mentioned above, which is the most significant when it comes to Vitamin C?
Collagen synthesis.
526
Vit C acts primarily as a reducing agent in processes. | True or False?
True. | "2 electron donor"
527
What molecule allows collagen molecules to stick together?
Proline-OH.
528
~30% of the AA in procollagen are prolines, of which 1/3 are hydroxylated. True or False?
True.
529
The electrons donated from Vitamin C is used to form what? (collagen formation)
Electron donated from Vit C is used to form proline OH.
530
Why is collagen so important?
Collagen is what gives tissues their structure.
531
The hydroxylation of collagen is a post-translational modification. True or False?
True.
532
Each ascorbic acid reactivates ___ prolyl hydroxylases.
Each ascorbic acid reactivates 2 prolyl hydroxylases.
533
The following evidence suggests what about Vitamin C: – 1. We just learned about the reactions of lipid peroxidation, with free radicals stealing electrons from PUFA in cell membranes. If Vit C is around, there is some evidence that this happens to a lesser extent. This is seen by reduced levels of lipid peroxidation products being measured in the urine. 2. In white blood cells, where we have a lot of oxygen radicals, there are higher levels of Vit C. Coincidence? 3. With a Vit C deficiency, there is some increase in GSSG levels (oxidized dimer form that is inactive) and reduced GSH levels (the active form).
This evidence suggests that Vitamin C has a role in oxidant defense.
534
The following evidence suggests what about Vitamin C: – 1. We just learned about the reactions of lipid peroxidation, with free radicals stealing electrons from PUFA in cell membranes. If Vit C is around, there is some evidence that this happens to a lesser extent. This is seen by reduced levels of lipid peroxidation products being measured in the urine. 2. In white blood cells, where we have a lot of oxygen radicals, there are higher levels of Vit C. Coincidence? 3. With a Vit C deficiency, there is some increase in GSSG levels (oxidized dimer form that is inactive) and reduced GSH levels (the active form).
This evidence suggests that Vitamin C has a role in oxidant defense.
535
What is the RDA goal of Vitamin C?
RDA goal: to maximize tissue concentrations and minimize urinary excretion.
536
The RDA values for Vitamin C are as follows: Men 90 mg/d Women 75 mg/d For what populations should RDA values increase?
RDA is increased in pregnant and lactating women to support mother and infant. *Collagen plays a huge role in the development of the fetus --> bone (cartilage), tissue, organs
537
The UL for Vitamin C is >2g/d. What happens if this amount is exceeded?
Above this amount increases risk for digestive problems (diarrhea) and kidney stones.
538
What are some signs of Vitamin C deficiency? | 4
1. Scurvy (plasma Vit C levels < 0.2 mg/ dL (If you consume 10 mg Vit C per day, signs of scurvy develop in 1 month) 2. Increased risk of hemorrhages (skin, follicles, gums) 3. Increased hair loss, loose teeth 4. Swollen joints, poor wound healing - due to problems producing hydroxyproline (i.e.
539
What is the first sign of vitamin C deficiency?
The gums. | Since they have such a high turnover rate, if there was a problem making collagen, that's where we would see it first.
540
Limeys was a term to describe what? Why was this term used?
limey's = term to describe british sailors - early physicians realized that british soldiers that didn't have any citrus fruit had scurvy, and to prevent that they started bringing limes with them
541
Vitamin C is an effective way to cure your cold. | True or False?
• False. -Meta analyses suggest that Vit C does not prevent colds (except in people performing intense physical activity (e.g. marathon running)) - Some evidence suggesting Vit C shortens the duration of a cold
542
________: scavenges PUFA peroxy radicals within the cell.
Vitamin E: scavenges PUFA peroxy radicals within the cell.
543
________: Essential for the proper functioning of selenoproteins
Selenium: Essential for the proper functioning of selenoproteins. – Glutathione Peroxidase (reduces hydroxyl radicals by converting H 2 O 2 into water) – FA Peroxidase (converts PUFA hydroperoxides into PUFA alcohols)
544
_________: major blood reducing agent, but it’s role in oxidant defence remains debatable.
Vitamin C: major blood reducing agent, but it’s role in oxidant defence remains debatable. However, Vit C is critical for the production of hydroxylated prolines.
545
_________: is necessary for the synthesis of glutathione (GSH).
Sulfur AA (cysteine): is necessary for the synthesis of glutathione (GSH).
546
______: is required to make NADPH (which is needed to regenerate GSH by glutathione reductase)
Niacin: is required to make NADPH (which is needed to regenerate GSH by glutathione reductase)
547
_______: also required by glutathione reductase as a coenzyme
Riboflavin: also required by glutathione reductase as a coenzyme
548
____ and ____: are enzyme cofactors that donate electrons to convert superoxide into H2O2.
Zn2+ and Cu+: are enzyme cofactors that donate electrons to convert superoxide into H2O2.
549
Free ____ in the cell in the presence of H2O2 increases risk for making hydroxyl radicals.
Free Fe2+ in the cell in the presence of H2O2 increases risk for making hydroxyl radicals.
550
Free ____ in the cell in the presence of H2O2 increases risk for making hydroxyl radicals.
Free Fe2+ in the cell in the presence of H2O2 increases risk for making hydroxyl radicals.
551
What is the definition of a Group III micronutrient?
Group III: Micronutrients that act as enzyme cofactors ex. Thiamin, Niacin, Riboflavin, Vit B6, Folate, Vit B12, Biotin, Pantothenic acid
552
Jamieson claims that its Niacin supplement does what?
Converts carbs, proteins, fats to energy. *It plays an important role in biochemical pathways used to produce energy.
553
Niacin is also called Vitamin ___.
Niacin is also called Vitamin B3.
554
How was niacin discovered?
Discovered through the condition pellagra in humans and a similar condition, called black tongue, in dogs -Niacin was considered the “anti black tongue” factor - High incidence in areas where corn is the main dietary staple (because niacin is attached to indigestible carbohydrates in corn, therefore it is poorly absorbed) * pellagra began when explorers came to america and started eating corn; you can't digest the niacin in corn well, and so the indigenous people had a special way of preparing it to "release" the niacin, however the explorers did not do that.
555
What are some dietary sources for niacin?
Most fish, meats, breads and cereals, coffee and tea. *In coffee, trigonelline is converted to niacin by heat (ie ., coffee bean roasting)
556
In animal-derived foods, vitamin B3 is commonly found in three forms. What are they?
1. Nicotinamide 2. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide (NAD) 3. Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADP)
557
In plant foods, Vitamin B3 is predominantly found as ______ ______, which is considered a provitamin.
In plant foods, Vitamin B3 is predominantly found as NICOTINIC ACID, which is considered a provitamin.
558
Niacin can also be produced in the liver from the amino acid tryptophan. Is this effective?
No. Only about 1/60 th of Trp is converted into niacin. *Note: Although the conversion is very small it is still taken into account by government when creating RDA values.