AGK Systems Flashcards
1
Q
The purpose of Certification Standards is to:
“Ensure an acceptable safety level for ______ and ______ as installed on the Aeroplane”
A
Equipment
Systems
2
Q
The more catastrophic the consequences of a failure would be, the ____ ____ it must be that it can ever happen.
A
Less Likely
3
Q
The standards for small piston engine powered aeroplanes.
A
CS 23
4
Q
The standards for turbine powered large Aeroplanes
A
CS 25
5
Q
Minor may be _____
A
Probable
6
Q
Major no more frequent than
A
Remote
7
Q
Hazardous no more frequent than
A
Extreamly remote
8
Q
Catastrophic must be
A
Extremely Improbable
9
Q
Failure up to 1 in 1,000
A
Probable
10
Q
Failure of 1 in 1,000 - 100,000
A
Remote
11
Q
Failure of 1 in 100,000 - 10 million
A
Extremely Remote
12
Q
Failure of 1 in 10 million - 1,000 million
A
Extremely Improbable
13
Q
____ may be Probable
A
Minor
14
Q
____ no more frequent than Remote
A
Major
15
Q
____ no more frequent that Extremely Remote
A
Hazardous
16
Q
____ must be Extremely Improbable
A
Catastrophic
17
Q
Extensive, pre-production, testing to destruction
enables a ____ ____ of a component to be established
A
Safe Life
18
Q
A ____ ____ is then applied to all the
components so they are removed and replaced when they reach that number of cycle
A
Safety Factor
19
Q
What 4 things can a Safe Life be measured in?
A
Flight Hours
Landings
Pressurization Cycles
Calendar Duration
20
Q
To fail with no or minimal consequences
A
Fail Safe
21
Q
3 Problems with Fail-safe Multiple load path
A
Heavier aircraft
Increased operating costs
Hard to inspect
22
Q
The internal force per unit area inside a structural component as a result of external loads
A
Stress
23
Q
The deformation caused by stress on a material, given as a change in dimension percentage of original
A
Strain
24
Q
4 types of Stress
A
Tension
Compression
Torsion
Shear
25
The tendency of a material to return to its original shape
Elasticity
26
The ability of a material to permanently deform
Plasticity
27
Multiple load path
If one fails, Still have at least 1 back up
28
When ____ increases by 1%, ____ increases by 5%
Weight
| Fatigue life Consumption
29
When weight increases by __, fatigue life consumption increases by __
1%
| 5%
30
The tendency of a member to distort when subject to compressive loads
Buckling
31
What 2 things can indicates buckling
Wrinkled skin
| Pulled rivets
32
DLL Transport
2.5G
33
DLL Utility
4.4G
34
DLL Aerobatic
6G
35
The Ultimate Load is __ times the Limit Load
1.5
36
Airframes have their fatigue life calculated by the manufacture based on: (2 things)
The no. of hours flown
| The no. of specified fatigue cycles
37
Greater mass cases greater ____
Stress
38
Repeated cycles of stress
Resonance
39
____ makes microscopic cracks in metal
Resonance
40
Two main types of corrosion
Oxidation
| Electrolytic
41
Alloys must possess what 4 qualities?
Elasticity
Plasticity
Stiffness
Strength
42
Alloys exploit the ____ of the different ____ offered by the different materials
Benefits
| Properties
43
Carbon Fiber Reinforced plastics (CFRP) is the
most common Reinforces plastic
44
Kevlar Fiber Reinforced plastics (KFRP) is
aramide
45
Glass Fiber Reinforced plastics (GFRP) is
Radar transparent
46
- Defined time limit
- ‘Failure-Preventative’ method
- Ensures items are removed from service before a
safe life expires
Hard Time Maintenance
47
- Inspections / functional checks
- Applied to items where their continued airworthiness
can be determined without disassembly or overhaul.
- The condition of an item is monitored either
continuously or at specified periods
On-Condition Maintenance
48
In testing, how long must a wing withstand its ultimate load?
3 seconds
49
_____ is the most common method for attaching metallic structures
Riveting
50
_____ permit structural parts to be disassembled
Bolts
51
Trusses
Internal bracing frames used to prevent structure buckling
52
Semi-Monocoque
Series of aluminium frames joined by longerons with metal skin attached around the whole assembly
53
Semi-monocoque designs predominate in _____ _____
Modern aircraft
54
The 6 principal components of the semi-monocoque design are:
```
Aircraft skin
Formers/frames
Stringers
Longerons
Bulkheads
Firewall
```
55
Machined or integral structures do not need _____ or other _____ _____ saving weight.
Rivets
| Attachment methods
56
Fuselarge x-sections are circular/almost circular for 2 reasons:
Ensures that air flow will not separate at moderate angles of attack or sideslip.
More easily withstands the loads imposed by pressurisation.
57
The double-bubble geometry uses _____ circles, tied together by the fuselage floor, to achieve an _____ structure with less wasted space.
Intersecting
| Efficient
58
Oval x-section fuselages benefits because of 3
| reasons:
Lower manufacturing cost
Greater capacity resulting in increased revenue
Better options for cargo loading and unloading
59
The Pressure hull is pressurized up to
9psi
60
The pressure hull experiences:
Axial stress that acts along the longitudinal axis
| Hoop stress that acts across the fuselage cross section
61
The 3 types of wing design:
The cantilever wing
The semi-cantilever wing
The externally braced wing
62
The _____ wing can be found on larger, faster aircraft. it has _____ support point and carries all loads _____
Cantilever
One
Internally
63
The _____ wing has some supporting external struts
Semi-cantilever
64
An _____ wing has external supporting struts and bracing wires
Externally braced
65
The torsion box is very _____, resistant to _____ and greatly adds to wing _____.
Ridgid
Twisting
Strength
66
Wing ribs do what 2 things:
Provide aerodynamic shape
| Allow the stressed skin to be attached to the wing structure and transfer the loads into the spar
67
Stringers combine with ribs to share _____ and transfer load to _____
Loads
| Spars
68
_____ _____ provides the smooth _____ outer cover and withstands _____ and _____ stresses
Stressed Skin
aerodynamic
Tension
Compression
69
Wet wing is
Internal wing spaces that can form an integral fuel tank
70
Cargo doors are usually hinged along their _____ _____ and open directly _____ and _____. These hatches are held in place by _____ hook locks.
Top edge
Outwards
Upwards
Overcenter
71
Flight deck windows must be able to do 5 things:
```
Have excellent optical qualities
Withstand cabin pressurization forces
Withstand stresses imposed by temp. difference
Withstand significant impacts
Be able to de-ice
```
72
Windscreen panels are made of 5 things:
Two or more transparent plies
Strengthened glass
Clear-Vinyl Vinyl Interlayer (absorbs impact loads)
An Electrical Conducting coat for Anti-Icing
The Window set in Rubber Pressure-Seals
73
CS 25 requires aircraft equipped with direct vision window to _____ _____ or _____ _____. And it must be _____ to be used as an _____ _____
Slide back
Open inwards
Large
Emergency exit
74
CS 25 says an Aircraft and Windscreen must be able to continue a safe-flight and landing after:
An impact by a 4Ib (2kg) bird at Vc Sea level or 0.85 Vc at 8,000ft.
75
On light aircraft, the majority of the floor is made up of...
The wing section extending through the cabin
76
Doors and hatches provide 5 things:
Normal access points (passengers and crew)
Emergency egress points
Large access points (Cargo)
Service access points (allow cabin service equipment to get to the galleys)
Access points to areas required for routine servicing
77
On small un-pressurized aircraft, doors are usually hinged on their _____ _____
Forward edge
78
A slightly open door will...
Significantly increase drag
79
Large aircraft doors have a series of _____ _____ and _____.
Locking pins
| Latches
80
Most large transport aircraft use a ____ ____ design for normal access points.
Plug door
81
When plug doors are set in place in its frame, it is ____ for the door to open _____.
Impossible
| Outwards
82
A plug door has two important implications:
Doors must initially open inwards to the cabin
| It is impossible for a human to open the door when the cabin is pressurized.
83
Smaller passenger aircraft have doors that incorporate _____ _____. These doors open outwards using a conventional _____ type hinge.
Air Stairs
| Piano
84
Some over wing exits swing __ and _____ and are held closed by _____.
Up
Outwards
Locks
85
CS 25 requires aircraft to be fitted with a _____ _____ _____ to ensure pilots set their eye position to the correct point
Eye reference position
86
Passenger windows are made of an _____ _____ and comprise of an _____ _____ and _____ pane
Acrylic material
Outer
Middle
Inner
87
The system is _____ _____ becuse either the outer or middle pane can withstand the _____ _____ _____ load
Fail safe
| Full cabin pressurization
88
Hydraulic systems transmit _____ to remote locations
Power
89
Force in a hydraulic pressure system is the
input/output expressed in Ibs
90
Hydraulic fluid must:
```
low viscosity
Resistant to foaming/crating sludge
good lubrication
Corrosion resistant
High boiling point and low freezing point
Chemically inert
non flammable
good storage properties
```
91
A closed center system provides
Constant pressure
92
An open center system provides
Pressure only when needed
93
Active hydraulic pumps use _____ or more _____
One
| Pumps
94
Hydraulic fluid is available in 2 forms:
Synthetic
| Mineral
95
It is important that 2 different type of fluid is not mixed because it can destroy _____ and _____ components
Seals
| Corrode
96
Advantages of hydraulic systems
Can provide large amounts of force to operate heavy services
Leaks are easy to spot
Reduced weight compared to a mechanical system
97
Disadvantages of hydraulic systems
Fluid is highly corrosive
Forces generated require strong structures
Susceptible to fluid contamination
Exposure to Hydraulic fluid with out PPE is a health risk.
Hydraulic fluid is environmentally hazardous.
98
Hydraulic systems drive an _____ which is the main leverage unit, this houses a _____
Actuator
| Piston
99
A _____ _____ diverts hydraulic pressure to the appropriate side of the _____
Selector valve
| Actuator
100
A _____ stores excess Hydraulic fluid.
Reservoir
101
A ___ prevents reverse flow through the _____
NRV (non-return valve)
| System
102
A _____ pressurizes the fluid flow
Pump
103
An _____ stores hydaulic fluid under pressure, and provides an _____ supply of _____ in the event of a pump failure.
Accumulator
Emergency
Pressure
104
A _____ prevents foreign matter being passed into the system
Filter
105
A ___ dumps excessive system pressure back to the reservoir.
PRV (Pressure relief valve)
106
The 3 types of actuator:
Single acting
Double acting balanced
Double acting unbalanced
107
A __________ actuator uses hydraulic pressure to move the piston in one direction only. A _____ supply's the return force.
Single acting
| Spring
108
In a __________ actuator, hydraulic pressure moves the piston in both direction.
Double acting balanced
109
The __________ actuator has inlet ports that are acting on both sides of the piston face.
Double acting unbalanced
110
Non return valves allow _____ to flow in _____ direction only.
Fluid
| One
111
A _____ hydraulic system has no hydraulic pump, instead, all power must be supplyed by the _____.
Passive
| Pilot
112
An _____ hydraulic system uses one or more hydraulic pumps.
Active
113
The _____ _____ system is used on small to mid-sized aircraft that don't have large amounts of hydraulic power available .
Open Center
114
The _____ _____ system maintains a constant supply of hydraulic pressure using a _____ _____ pump
Closed center
| Variable volume
115
The reservoir normally provides fluid through a _____ _____.
Stack pipe
116
Inside the reservoir, there is an _____ _____ which ensures there is some fluid available in the case of a major fluid loss
Emergency supply.
117
_____ and _____ inside the reservoir reduce the fluid swirling due to the aircraft maneuvering.
Fins
| Baffles
118
A pressurised reservoir prevent the fluid from _____ at altitude and provides _____ at the inlet to the engine driven pumps which helps to prevent _____.
Boiling
Pressure
Cavitation
119
Accumulators are comprised of pressurised _____ and _____ in a cylinder separated by a piston or rubber diaphragm.
Gas
| Fluid
120
When the pumps are running and the system is operating, _____ pressure = _____ pressure.
Gas
| Hydraulic
121
Accumulators are often used in the _____ system to provide up to _ applications of brake.
Braking
| _
122
A pressure gauge displays:
The pre-charge nitrogen gas pressure when the hydraulic system isn’t powered
The hydraulic system pressure when it is.
123
Incorrect pre-charge pressure causes
Harmful Hammering
124
Excessive pre-charge pressure causes
Insufficient fluid to be stored in the accumulator.
125
Very low pre-charge pressure results in
insufficient fluid pressure in the event of pump failure.
126
4 Types of engine driven pump
HYDRAT (Ram air turbine)
PTU (power transfer unit)
Hand operated
Electrical
127
A _____ _____ provides a constant fluid supply
Constant delivery (Fixed volume pump)
128
An _____ ___ ___ _____ is normally fitted in conjunction with a constant volume pump to regulate hydraulic system pressure.
Automatic cut out valve (ACOV)
129
A constant pressure pump comprises of a series of _____ attached to a _____ _____ which is rotated by a _____ _____.
Pistons
Swash plate
Drive shaft
130
A _____ _____ adjusts the angle of the swash plate and therefore the output from the pump.
Control piston
131
A _____ _____ uses hydraulic pressure to generate rotary motion
Hydraulic motor (rotary actuator)
132
A ____ ____ ____ ____ is a valve which is capable of relieving the equivalent of the total pump output.
Full flow relief valve (FFRV)
133
A ____ ____ reduces fluid flow to slow the speed of operation of a service.
Restrictor Valve (choke valve)
134
The _____ _____ ensures sufficient fluid flow at all times to the primary controls wand wheel brakes.
Priority valve
135
The _____ _____ allows one service to be operated by two independent supplies thus guaranteeing an adequate supply if either system fails.
Shuttle valve
136
_____ _____ are fitted upstream of components to shut off flow and prevent total fluid loss in the event of a major leak.
Hydraulic fuses
137
_____ _____ are similar to fuses in that they can shut-off services, however the valve isn't self regulating but operated by an external controller.
Shut-off valve
138
Large aircraft hydraulic systems must meet 6 requirements:
Redundancy through the use of duplicated systems
Instant response to inputs
The ability to operate multiple services simultaneously
Prioritised supplies to the flight controls and wheel breaks
Emergency sources of pressure
Greater output to overcome the much heavier operating loads
139
The RAT can be an ______ _____ or a _____ _____ and provides the bear minimum _____
Electrical generator
Hydraulic pump
Pressure
140
The RAT is slightly bigger than a _____ ______
Jack Russell
141
The _____ _____ _____ contect multiple hydraulic systems so if one fails, it can drive the hydraulic pump in the failed system
Power transfer unit (PTU)
142
The Tricycle landing gear comprises of...
2(or more) main gear
| 1 nose gear
143
The Tail wheel system comprises of.....
2 main gear
| 1 tail dragger
144
The legs attach to the fuselage from the wheel.
Cantilever spring
145
Landing forces absorbed by a rubber bungee
Rubber bungee
146
A shock absorber absorbs landing shock
Oleo pneumatic struct
147
Main gear with more than 2 wheels...
Bogeys
148
The rate at which the oleo strut can compress is limited by the _____ with which oil can _____ through the orifice.
Speed
| Flow
149
The oleo strut normally contains ____ oil and _____ gas.
Hydraulic
| Nitrogen
150
The oleo strut uses gas _____ to support the aircraft's weight at _____ and to act as a ____ to absorb landing and taxi loads
Pressure
Rest
Spring
151
The oleo strut uses hydraulic oil to control the rate of _____ and _____ or recoil of the leg through a _____ device in the leg assembly.
Compression
Extension
Metering
152
Wheel axles
the shaft that allows the wheels to rotate freely
153
Drag strut
Braces the landing gear leg against the shock loads
154
Lateral side stay
Withstands side loads due to crosswind.
155
4 requirements of the nose wheel:
Free castoring (steering system)
Automatic self-centering using springs or centering cams
Shimmy protection
The ability to withstand high loads/
156
Down-locks ensure that
accidental retraction cannot occur on the ground
157
Up-locks are a type of _____ _____ which require hydraulic pressure to _____ and _____ them.
Hook lock
Engage
Release
158
Ground locks usually come in the form of a _____ which fits into the ___________
Pin
| Landing gear leg assembly
159
No lights in the cockpit means
The gear is up and locked.
160
3 systems for emergency gear lowing:
Manual hand crank
Compressed nitrogen to blow the gear down
Gravity/free fall system
161
The 2 forms of steering available for light aircraft:
Differential braking
| Rudder peddle steering
162
You can steer large aircraft using a _____. which can steer the nose wheel up to ___.
Tiller
| 75°
163
Shimmy can be caused by 3 things:
Worn/broken torque links
Wear in wheel bearings
Low/uneven type pressure.
164
Shimmy can be prevented by 5 things:
Hydraulically locking the steering system
Hydraulic dampers
Self centering springs
double nose wheels
Marstrand wheels (wheels with 2 points of contact)
165
Well based wheels are usually fitted to _____ ______ and have _____ _____
Light aircraft
| Tubed tyres
166
Detachable flange hubs allow easy _____ ______
Tyre replacement
167
Aircraft tyres comprise a _____ _____ which is constructed if _______ coated rayon, cotton or nylon ply cords. These are wrapped around _____ at each edge of the tyre.
Flexible casing
Rubber
Beads
168
The core of the ______ is a series of _____ wires which reinforce the tyre and hold its shape.
Bead
| Steel
169
Tyres are inflated with _____ which helps absorb _____ upon landing.
Nitrogen
| Shocks
170
Holds the tread patter and makes contact with the surface.
The crown
171
Where the tyre starts to thin from the crown
The shoulder
172
The weakest part of the tyre
The sidewall
173
The strong rim of the tyre
The bead
174
Tyre hubs are made from _____ _____
Aluminum alloys
175
Ply rating
An indication of the tyres strength
176
Tyre slipping around the wheel upon landing
Tyre Creep
177
Creep mark size for tyres <24in in diameter
1 inch
178
Creep mark size for tyres >24in in diameter
1.5 inches
179
Creep is most likely to occur after ______ ______ _____
Newly fitted tyres
180
Most common tyre for aircraft using concrete or tarmac runways
Ribbed tyres
181
Tyres used for rough/unmade runway strips
blocked tyres
182
Tyres with two areas of contact with the ground.
Marstrand
183
Tyre that deflects water spray away
Chined Tyre
184
The minimum tread for a tyre is ___
2mm
| except blocked tyres where as long as pattern is visible it is accepted
185
When inspecting a tyre you should look out for:
```
Cuts
Bulges
Foreign object damage
Contamination
Creep
Wear
Pressure
```
186
Aquaplaning
where water lifts the tyre off the ground
187
Equation for minimum aquaplaning speed for a rotating tyre:
9 x √tyre pressure (psi)
or
34 x √tyre pressure (kg/cm²)
188
Equation for minimum aquaplaning speed for a non-rotating tyre:
7.7 x √tyre pressure (psi)
189
To prevent tyres exploding due to excessive heat, a _____ _____ is fitted which blows before a tyre reaches excessive _____. This is protected from melting by the breaks by a _____ _____
Fusible plug
Pressure
Heat shield
190
There are two types of disk breaks:
Fixed disk - floating caliper
| Floating disk - fixed caliper
191
The breaks are made from _____
Carbon
192
Larger aircraft use multiple __________ system breaks
Floating disk - fixed caliper
193
Aircraft are fitted with ___________ to check the break wear.
Break wear indication pins.
194
On a multi disc system a series of pads are arranged around both sides of a _____ _____
Stator assembly
195
In between each pair of _____ is a _____ _____, which is engaged with the wheel assembly via the _____ _____
Stators
Rotor segment
Torque tube
196
A _____ _____ carries the operating pistons
Torque plate
197
4 Benefits of a carbon braking system:
Weight
Performance
Durability
Economy
198
An anti-skid system works by
Monitoring wheel rotation and applies and releases breaks is a wheel is slowing down too quickly.
199
Touch down and bounce protection features stop
break pressure being applied before thew aircraft is in solid contact with the ground.
200
Locked wheel skid control is deactivated at _____
15-20kts
201
Normal skid control is deactivated at _____
8-12kts
202
To disarm auto-breaking you can:
Press the break pedals
| Increase the throttle
203
Fail safes for breaks:
2+ hydraulic systems going to them
| Accumulators in the hydraulic systems.
204
The parking break will
Override all other systems
205
When chocks are placed under the tyres, you can...
Release the parking breaks to let them air cool.
206
Controls thew Yaw
The Rudder
207
Controls the Pitch
The Elevator
208
Controls the Roll
The Aileron
209
3 means of operating flight control surfaces:
Manual
Partially powered
Fully powered
210
5 Benefits of the manual control systems are:
```
Cheap
Simple
Reliable
Does not need power to operate
Aerodynamic feel helps not over-stress the aircraft
```
211
In a Manual control system, _____ _____ run from each control via a _____ _____
Steel cables
| Pulley wheels.
212
The controls on the manual control are _____
Reversible
213
What is the turn buckle's job?
To tension the cables
214
Moment = _____ x _____
Force x distance
215
Hinge moment = __________ x _____
distance form the hinge x force felt
216
Setback hinge
The hinge is moved further back along the elevator so the distance is reduced.
217
Balance seal
Flexible material between the elevator and the wing helps to push the elevator up/down
218
Balance tab
a smaller elevator on the end of the elevator aids pushing the main elevator up/down
219
Anti-balance tab
The opposite of a balance tab, used when the control system is too easy to move to help stop the aircraft over-steering
220
Trim tab
Adjusts the tab on the end of the elevator to make the control system easier to handle for S&L flight
