Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Module 1 > AGK Systems > Flashcards

AGK Systems Flashcards

1
Q

The purpose of Certification Standards is to:

“Ensure an acceptable safety level for ______ and ______ as installed on the Aeroplane”

A

Equipment

Systems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The more catastrophic the consequences of a failure would be, the ____ ____ it must be that it can ever happen.

A

Less Likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The standards for small piston engine powered aeroplanes.

A

CS 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The standards for turbine powered large Aeroplanes

A

CS 25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Minor may be _____

A

Probable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Major no more frequent than

A

Remote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hazardous no more frequent than

A

Extreamly remote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Catastrophic must be

A

Extremely Improbable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Failure up to 1 in 1,000

A

Probable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Failure of 1 in 1,000 - 100,000

A

Remote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Failure of 1 in 100,000 - 10 million

A

Extremely Remote

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Failure of 1 in 10 million - 1,000 million

A

Extremely Improbable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

____ may be Probable

A

Minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

____ no more frequent than Remote

A

Major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

____ no more frequent that Extremely Remote

A

Hazardous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

____ must be Extremely Improbable

A

Catastrophic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Extensive, pre-production, testing to destruction

enables a ____ ____ of a component to be established

A

Safe Life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A ____ ____ is then applied to all the

components so they are removed and replaced when they reach that number of cycle

A

Safety Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What 4 things can a Safe Life be measured in?

A

Flight Hours
Landings
Pressurization Cycles
Calendar Duration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

To fail with no or minimal consequences

A

Fail Safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

3 Problems with Fail-safe Multiple load path

A

Heavier aircraft
Increased operating costs
Hard to inspect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The internal force per unit area inside a structural component as a result of external loads

A

Stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The deformation caused by stress on a material, given as a change in dimension percentage of original

A

Strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

4 types of Stress

A

Tension
Compression
Torsion
Shear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The tendency of a material to return to its original shape

A

Elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The ability of a material to permanently deform

A

Plasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Multiple load path

A

If one fails, Still have at least 1 back up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When ____ increases by 1%, ____ increases by 5%

A

Weight

Fatigue life Consumption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When weight increases by __, fatigue life consumption increases by __

A

1%

5%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The tendency of a member to distort when subject to compressive loads

A

Buckling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What 2 things can indicates buckling

A

Wrinkled skin

Pulled rivets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

DLL Transport

A

2.5G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

DLL Utility

A

4.4G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DLL Aerobatic

A

6G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The Ultimate Load is __ times the Limit Load

A

1.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Airframes have their fatigue life calculated by the manufacture based on: (2 things)

A

The no. of hours flown

The no. of specified fatigue cycles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Greater mass cases greater ____

A

Stress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Repeated cycles of stress

A

Resonance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

____ makes microscopic cracks in metal

A

Resonance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Two main types of corrosion

A

Oxidation

Electrolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Alloys must possess what 4 qualities?

A

Elasticity
Plasticity
Stiffness
Strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Alloys exploit the ____ of the different ____ offered by the different materials

A

Benefits

Properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Carbon Fiber Reinforced plastics (CFRP) is the

A

most common Reinforces plastic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Kevlar Fiber Reinforced plastics (KFRP) is

A

aramide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Glass Fiber Reinforced plastics (GFRP) is

A

Radar transparent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q
  • Defined time limit
  • ‘Failure-Preventative’ method
  • Ensures items are removed from service before a
    safe life expires
A

Hard Time Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q
  • Inspections / functional checks
  • Applied to items where their continued airworthiness
    can be determined without disassembly or overhaul.
  • The condition of an item is monitored either
    continuously or at specified periods
A

On-Condition Maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

In testing, how long must a wing withstand its ultimate load?

A

3 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

_____ is the most common method for attaching metallic structures

A

Riveting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

_____ permit structural parts to be disassembled

A

Bolts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Trusses

A

Internal bracing frames used to prevent structure buckling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Semi-Monocoque

A

Series of aluminium frames joined by longerons with metal skin attached around the whole assembly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Semi-monocoque designs predominate in _____ _____

A

Modern aircraft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The 6 principal components of the semi-monocoque design are:

A 
Aircraft skin 
Formers/frames 
Stringers
Longerons
Bulkheads
Firewall
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Machined or integral structures do not need _____ or other _____ _____ saving weight.

A

Rivets

Attachment methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Fuselarge x-sections are circular/almost circular for 2 reasons:

A

Ensures that air flow will not separate at moderate angles of attack or sideslip.
More easily withstands the loads imposed by pressurisation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The double-bubble geometry uses _____ circles, tied together by the fuselage floor, to achieve an _____ structure with less wasted space.

A

Intersecting

Efficient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Oval x-section fuselages benefits because of 3

reasons:

A

Lower manufacturing cost
Greater capacity resulting in increased revenue
Better options for cargo loading and unloading

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The Pressure hull is pressurized up to

A

9psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The pressure hull experiences:

A

Axial stress that acts along the longitudinal axis

Hoop stress that acts across the fuselage cross section

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The 3 types of wing design:

A

The cantilever wing
The semi-cantilever wing
The externally braced wing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The _____ wing can be found on larger, faster aircraft. it has _____ support point and carries all loads _____

A

Cantilever
One
Internally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The _____ wing has some supporting external struts

A

Semi-cantilever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

An _____ wing has external supporting struts and bracing wires

A

Externally braced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The torsion box is very _____, resistant to _____ and greatly adds to wing _____.

A

Ridgid
Twisting
Strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Wing ribs do what 2 things:

A

Provide aerodynamic shape

Allow the stressed skin to be attached to the wing structure and transfer the loads into the spar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Stringers combine with ribs to share _____ and transfer load to _____

A

Loads

Spars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

_____ _____ provides the smooth _____ outer cover and withstands _____ and _____ stresses

A

Stressed Skin
aerodynamic
Tension
Compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Wet wing is

A

Internal wing spaces that can form an integral fuel tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Cargo doors are usually hinged along their _____ _____ and open directly _____ and _____. These hatches are held in place by _____ hook locks.

A

Top edge
Outwards
Upwards
Overcenter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Flight deck windows must be able to do 5 things:

A 
Have excellent optical qualities 
Withstand cabin pressurization forces
Withstand stresses imposed by temp. difference
Withstand significant impacts 
Be able to de-ice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Windscreen panels are made of 5 things:

A

Two or more transparent plies
Strengthened glass
Clear-Vinyl Vinyl Interlayer (absorbs impact loads)
An Electrical Conducting coat for Anti-Icing
The Window set in Rubber Pressure-Seals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

CS 25 requires aircraft equipped with direct vision window to _____ _____ or _____ _____. And it must be _____ to be used as an _____ _____

A

Slide back
Open inwards
Large
Emergency exit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

CS 25 says an Aircraft and Windscreen must be able to continue a safe-flight and landing after:

A

An impact by a 4Ib (2kg) bird at Vc Sea level or 0.85 Vc at 8,000ft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

On light aircraft, the majority of the floor is made up of…

A

The wing section extending through the cabin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Doors and hatches provide 5 things:

A

Normal access points (passengers and crew)
Emergency egress points
Large access points (Cargo)
Service access points (allow cabin service equipment to get to the galleys)
Access points to areas required for routine servicing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

On small un-pressurized aircraft, doors are usually hinged on their _____ _____

A

Forward edge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

A slightly open door will…

A

Significantly increase drag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Large aircraft doors have a series of _____ _____ and _____.

A

Locking pins

Latches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Most large transport aircraft use a ____ ____ design for normal access points.

A

Plug door

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When plug doors are set in place in its frame, it is ____ for the door to open _____.

A

Impossible

Outwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A plug door has two important implications:

A

Doors must initially open inwards to the cabin

It is impossible for a human to open the door when the cabin is pressurized.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Smaller passenger aircraft have doors that incorporate _____ _____. These doors open outwards using a conventional _____ type hinge.

A

Air Stairs

Piano

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Some over wing exits swing __ and _____ and are held closed by _____.

A

Up
Outwards
Locks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

CS 25 requires aircraft to be fitted with a _____ _____ _____ to ensure pilots set their eye position to the correct point

A

Eye reference position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Passenger windows are made of an _____ _____ and comprise of an _____ _____ and _____ pane

A

Acrylic material
Outer
Middle
Inner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

The system is _____ _____ becuse either the outer or middle pane can withstand the _____ _____ _____ load

A

Fail safe

Full cabin pressurization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Hydraulic systems transmit _____ to remote locations

A

Power

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Force in a hydraulic pressure system is the

A

input/output expressed in Ibs

90
Q

Hydraulic fluid must:

A 
low viscosity
Resistant to foaming/crating sludge
good lubrication 
Corrosion resistant 
High boiling point and low freezing point
Chemically inert
non flammable
good storage properties
91
Q

A closed center system provides

A

Constant pressure

92
Q

An open center system provides

A

Pressure only when needed

93
Q

Active hydraulic pumps use _____ or more _____

A

One

Pumps

94
Q

Hydraulic fluid is available in 2 forms:

A

Synthetic

Mineral

95
Q

It is important that 2 different type of fluid is not mixed because it can destroy _____ and _____ components

A

Seals

Corrode

96
Q

Advantages of hydraulic systems

A

Can provide large amounts of force to operate heavy services
Leaks are easy to spot
Reduced weight compared to a mechanical system

97
Q

Disadvantages of hydraulic systems

A

Fluid is highly corrosive
Forces generated require strong structures
Susceptible to fluid contamination
Exposure to Hydraulic fluid with out PPE is a health risk.
Hydraulic fluid is environmentally hazardous.

98
Q

Hydraulic systems drive an _____ which is the main leverage unit, this houses a _____

A

Actuator

Piston

99
Q

A _____ _____ diverts hydraulic pressure to the appropriate side of the _____

A

Selector valve

Actuator

100
Q

A _____ stores excess Hydraulic fluid.

A

Reservoir

101
Q

A ___ prevents reverse flow through the _____

A

NRV (non-return valve)

System

102
Q

A _____ pressurizes the fluid flow

A

Pump

103
Q

An _____ stores hydaulic fluid under pressure, and provides an _____ supply of _____ in the event of a pump failure.

A

Accumulator
Emergency
Pressure

104
Q

A _____ prevents foreign matter being passed into the system

A

Filter

105
Q

A ___ dumps excessive system pressure back to the reservoir.

A

PRV (Pressure relief valve)

106
Q

The 3 types of actuator:

A

Single acting
Double acting balanced
Double acting unbalanced

107
Q

A __________ actuator uses hydraulic pressure to move the piston in one direction only. A _____ supply’s the return force.

A

Single acting

Spring

108
Q

In a __________ actuator, hydraulic pressure moves the piston in both direction.

A

Double acting balanced

109
Q

The __________ actuator has inlet ports that are acting on both sides of the piston face.

A

Double acting unbalanced

110
Q

Non return valves allow _____ to flow in _____ direction only.

A

Fluid

One

111
Q

A _____ hydraulic system has no hydraulic pump, instead, all power must be supplyed by the _____.

A

Passive

Pilot

112
Q

An _____ hydraulic system uses one or more hydraulic pumps.

A

Active

113
Q

The _____ _____ system is used on small to mid-sized aircraft that don’t have large amounts of hydraulic power available .

A

Open Center

114
Q

The _____ _____ system maintains a constant supply of hydraulic pressure using a _____ _____ pump

A

Closed center

Variable volume

115
Q

The reservoir normally provides fluid through a _____ _____.

A

Stack pipe

116
Q

Inside the reservoir, there is an _____ _____ which ensures there is some fluid available in the case of a major fluid loss

A

Emergency supply.

117
Q

_____ and _____ inside the reservoir reduce the fluid swirling due to the aircraft maneuvering.

A

Fins

Baffles

118
Q

A pressurised reservoir prevent the fluid from _____ at altitude and provides _____ at the inlet to the engine driven pumps which helps to prevent _____.

A

Boiling
Pressure
Cavitation

119
Q

Accumulators are comprised of pressurised _____ and _____ in a cylinder separated by a piston or rubber diaphragm.

A

Gas

Fluid

120
Q

When the pumps are running and the system is operating, _____ pressure = _____ pressure.

A

Gas

Hydraulic

121
Q

Accumulators are often used in the _____ system to provide up to _ applications of brake.

A

Braking

_

122
Q

A pressure gauge displays:

A

The pre-charge nitrogen gas pressure when the hydraulic system isn’t powered
The hydraulic system pressure when it is.

123
Q

Incorrect pre-charge pressure causes

A

Harmful Hammering

124
Q

Excessive pre-charge pressure causes

A

Insufficient fluid to be stored in the accumulator.

125
Q

Very low pre-charge pressure results in

A

insufficient fluid pressure in the event of pump failure.

126
Q

4 Types of engine driven pump

A

HYDRAT (Ram air turbine)
PTU (power transfer unit)
Hand operated
Electrical

127
Q

A _____ _____ provides a constant fluid supply

A

Constant delivery (Fixed volume pump)

128
Q

An _____ ___ ___ _____ is normally fitted in conjunction with a constant volume pump to regulate hydraulic system pressure.

A

Automatic cut out valve (ACOV)

129
Q

A constant pressure pump comprises of a series of _____ attached to a _____ _____ which is rotated by a _____ _____.

A

Pistons
Swash plate
Drive shaft

130
Q

A _____ _____ adjusts the angle of the swash plate and therefore the output from the pump.

A

Control piston

131
Q

A _____ _____ uses hydraulic pressure to generate rotary motion

A

Hydraulic motor (rotary actuator)

132
Q

A ____ ____ ____ ____ is a valve which is capable of relieving the equivalent of the total pump output.

A

Full flow relief valve (FFRV)

133
Q

A ____ ____ reduces fluid flow to slow the speed of operation of a service.

A

Restrictor Valve (choke valve)

134
Q

The _____ _____ ensures sufficient fluid flow at all times to the primary controls wand wheel brakes.

A

Priority valve

135
Q

The _____ _____ allows one service to be operated by two independent supplies thus guaranteeing an adequate supply if either system fails.

A

Shuttle valve

136
Q

_____ _____ are fitted upstream of components to shut off flow and prevent total fluid loss in the event of a major leak.

A

Hydraulic fuses

137
Q

_____ _____ are similar to fuses in that they can shut-off services, however the valve isn’t self regulating but operated by an external controller.

A

Shut-off valve

138
Q

Large aircraft hydraulic systems must meet 6 requirements:

A

Redundancy through the use of duplicated systems
Instant response to inputs
The ability to operate multiple services simultaneously
Prioritised supplies to the flight controls and wheel breaks
Emergency sources of pressure
Greater output to overcome the much heavier operating loads

139
Q

The RAT can be an ______ _____ or a _____ _____ and provides the bear minimum _____

A

Electrical generator
Hydraulic pump
Pressure

140
Q

The RAT is slightly bigger than a _____ ______

A

Jack Russell

141
Q

The _____ _____ _____ contect multiple hydraulic systems so if one fails, it can drive the hydraulic pump in the failed system

A

Power transfer unit (PTU)

142
Q

The Tricycle landing gear comprises of…

A

2(or more) main gear

1 nose gear

143
Q

The Tail wheel system comprises of…..

A

2 main gear

1 tail dragger

144
Q

The legs attach to the fuselage from the wheel.

A

Cantilever spring

145
Q

Landing forces absorbed by a rubber bungee

A

Rubber bungee

146
Q

A shock absorber absorbs landing shock

A

Oleo pneumatic struct

147
Q

Main gear with more than 2 wheels…

A

Bogeys

148
Q

The rate at which the oleo strut can compress is limited by the _____ with which oil can _____ through the orifice.

A

Speed

Flow

149
Q

The oleo strut normally contains ____ oil and _____ gas.

A

Hydraulic

Nitrogen

150
Q

The oleo strut uses gas _____ to support the aircraft’s weight at _____ and to act as a ____ to absorb landing and taxi loads

A

Pressure
Rest
Spring

151
Q

The oleo strut uses hydraulic oil to control the rate of _____ and _____ or recoil of the leg through a _____ device in the leg assembly.

A

Compression
Extension
Metering

152
Q

Wheel axles

A

the shaft that allows the wheels to rotate freely

153
Q

Drag strut

A

Braces the landing gear leg against the shock loads

154
Q

Lateral side stay

A

Withstands side loads due to crosswind.

155
Q

4 requirements of the nose wheel:

A

Free castoring (steering system)
Automatic self-centering using springs or centering cams
Shimmy protection
The ability to withstand high loads/

156
Q

Down-locks ensure that

A

accidental retraction cannot occur on the ground

157
Q

Up-locks are a type of _____ _____ which require hydraulic pressure to _____ and _____ them.

A

Hook lock
Engage
Release

158
Q

Ground locks usually come in the form of a _____ which fits into the ___________

A

Pin

Landing gear leg assembly

159
Q

No lights in the cockpit means

A

The gear is up and locked.

160
Q

3 systems for emergency gear lowing:

A

Manual hand crank
Compressed nitrogen to blow the gear down
Gravity/free fall system

161
Q

The 2 forms of steering available for light aircraft:

A

Differential braking

Rudder peddle steering

162
Q

You can steer large aircraft using a _____. which can steer the nose wheel up to ___.

A

Tiller

75°

163
Q

Shimmy can be caused by 3 things:

A

Worn/broken torque links
Wear in wheel bearings
Low/uneven type pressure.

164
Q

Shimmy can be prevented by 5 things:

A

Hydraulically locking the steering system
Hydraulic dampers
Self centering springs
double nose wheels
Marstrand wheels (wheels with 2 points of contact)

165
Q

Well based wheels are usually fitted to _____ ______ and have _____ _____

A

Light aircraft

Tubed tyres

166
Q

Detachable flange hubs allow easy _____ ______

A

Tyre replacement

167
Q

Aircraft tyres comprise a _____ _____ which is constructed if _______ coated rayon, cotton or nylon ply cords. These are wrapped around _____ at each edge of the tyre.

A

Flexible casing
Rubber
Beads

168
Q

The core of the ______ is a series of _____ wires which reinforce the tyre and hold its shape.

A

Bead

Steel

169
Q

Tyres are inflated with _____ which helps absorb _____ upon landing.

A

Nitrogen

Shocks

170
Q

Holds the tread patter and makes contact with the surface.

A

The crown

171
Q

Where the tyre starts to thin from the crown

A

The shoulder

172
Q

The weakest part of the tyre

A

The sidewall

173
Q

The strong rim of the tyre

A

The bead

174
Q

Tyre hubs are made from _____ _____

A

Aluminum alloys

175
Q

Ply rating

A

An indication of the tyres strength

176
Q

Tyre slipping around the wheel upon landing

A

Tyre Creep

177
Q

Creep mark size for tyres <24in in diameter

A

1 inch

178
Q

Creep mark size for tyres >24in in diameter

A

1.5 inches

179
Q

Creep is most likely to occur after ______ ______ _____

A

Newly fitted tyres

180
Q

Most common tyre for aircraft using concrete or tarmac runways

A

Ribbed tyres

181
Q

Tyres used for rough/unmade runway strips

A

blocked tyres

182
Q

Tyres with two areas of contact with the ground.

A

Marstrand

183
Q

Tyre that deflects water spray away

A

Chined Tyre

184
Q

The minimum tread for a tyre is ___

A

2mm

except blocked tyres where as long as pattern is visible it is accepted

185
Q

When inspecting a tyre you should look out for:

A 
Cuts
Bulges
Foreign object damage
Contamination
Creep
Wear
Pressure
186
Q

Aquaplaning

A

where water lifts the tyre off the ground

187
Q

Equation for minimum aquaplaning speed for a rotating tyre:

A

9 x √tyre pressure (psi)
or
34 x √tyre pressure (kg/cm²)

188
Q

Equation for minimum aquaplaning speed for a non-rotating tyre:

A

7.7 x √tyre pressure (psi)

189
Q

To prevent tyres exploding due to excessive heat, a _____ _____ is fitted which blows before a tyre reaches excessive _____. This is protected from melting by the breaks by a _____ _____

A

Fusible plug
Pressure
Heat shield

190
Q

There are two types of disk breaks:

A

Fixed disk - floating caliper

Floating disk - fixed caliper

191
Q

The breaks are made from _____

A

Carbon

192
Q

Larger aircraft use multiple __________ system breaks

A

Floating disk - fixed caliper

193
Q

Aircraft are fitted with ___________ to check the break wear.

A

Break wear indication pins.

194
Q

On a multi disc system a series of pads are arranged around both sides of a _____ _____

A

Stator assembly

195
Q

In between each pair of _____ is a _____ _____, which is engaged with the wheel assembly via the _____ _____

A

Stators
Rotor segment
Torque tube

196
Q

A _____ _____ carries the operating pistons

A

Torque plate

197
Q

4 Benefits of a carbon braking system:

A

Weight
Performance
Durability
Economy

198
Q

An anti-skid system works by

A

Monitoring wheel rotation and applies and releases breaks is a wheel is slowing down too quickly.

199
Q

Touch down and bounce protection features stop

A

break pressure being applied before thew aircraft is in solid contact with the ground.

200
Q

Locked wheel skid control is deactivated at _____

A

15-20kts

201
Q

Normal skid control is deactivated at _____

A

8-12kts

202
Q

To disarm auto-breaking you can:

A

Press the break pedals

Increase the throttle

203
Q

Fail safes for breaks:

A

2+ hydraulic systems going to them

Accumulators in the hydraulic systems.

204
Q

The parking break will

A

Override all other systems

205
Q

When chocks are placed under the tyres, you can…

A

Release the parking breaks to let them air cool.

206
Q

Controls thew Yaw

A

The Rudder

207
Q

Controls the Pitch

A

The Elevator

208
Q

Controls the Roll

A

The Aileron

209
Q

3 means of operating flight control surfaces:

A

Manual
Partially powered
Fully powered

210
Q

5 Benefits of the manual control systems are:

A 
Cheap 
Simple 
Reliable
Does not need power to operate 
 Aerodynamic feel helps not over-stress the aircraft
211
Q

In a Manual control system, _____ _____ run from each control via a _____ _____

A

Steel cables

Pulley wheels.

212
Q

The controls on the manual control are _____

A

Reversible

213
Q

What is the turn buckle’s job?

A

To tension the cables

214
Q

Moment = _____ x _____

A

Force x distance

215
Q

Hinge moment = __________ x _____

A

distance form the hinge x force felt

216
Q

Setback hinge

A

The hinge is moved further back along the elevator so the distance is reduced.

217
Q

Balance seal

A

Flexible material between the elevator and the wing helps to push the elevator up/down

218
Q

Balance tab

A

a smaller elevator on the end of the elevator aids pushing the main elevator up/down

219
Q

Anti-balance tab

A

The opposite of a balance tab, used when the control system is too easy to move to help stop the aircraft over-steering

220
Q

Trim tab

A

Adjusts the tab on the end of the elevator to make the control system easier to handle for S&L flight

Module 1 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions