AI OMA chapter 12.1-12.4 included generated Flashcards

(81 cards)

1
Q

What is the objective of Regulation (EU) 2016/1185?

A

To establish the common rules of the air and operational provisions regarding services and procedures in air navigation applicable to general air traffic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

To whom does Regulation (EU) 2016/1185 apply?

A

It applies to airspace users and aircraft engaged in general air traffic, including those operating into, within, or out of the Union.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

A

VFR are rules that allow pilots to fly based on visual reference to the ground and other landmarks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)?

A

IFR are rules governing flight operations in weather conditions generally poor enough to require reliance on instruments for navigation and control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the minimum flight altitude for IFR flights over high terrain?

A

At least 600 m (2,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the minimum flight altitude for IFR flights elsewhere?

A

At least 300 m (1,000 ft) above the highest obstacle located within 8 km of the estimated position.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What must a pilot do when changing from IFR to VFR?

A

Notify the appropriate air traffic services unit that the IFR flight is cancelled and communicate any changes to the current flight plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

True or False: An IFR flight can cancel its IFR status when it encounters visual meteorological conditions.

A

False. It can only cancel if it is anticipated that the flight will continue in uninterrupted visual meteorological conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is required for IFR flights operating in controlled airspace?

A

They must comply with provisions for air traffic control services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the cruising level for IFR flights outside controlled airspace?

A

It must be appropriate to its track as specified in the table of cruising levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Fill in the blank: The pilot-in-command has final _______ as to the disposition of the aircraft while in command.

A

authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What should a pilot do before beginning a flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information appropriate to the intended operation, including weather reports and forecasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the communication failure procedure if an aircraft fails to establish contact?

A

Transmit its message twice on the designated channel preceded by ‘TRANSMITTING BLIND’.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should an aircraft do in case of air-ground communication failure?

A

Operate the transponder on Mode A Code 7600 to indicate the failure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What actions should a flight crew take in VMC during a communication failure?

A

Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, and report its arrival.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What actions should a flight crew take in IMC during a communication failure?

A

Maintain last assigned speed and level or minimum flight altitude for a specified time and adjust level and speed according to the flight plan thereafter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the main responsibility of the pilot-in-command?

A

The operation of the aircraft in accordance with the regulations.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does the term ‘appropriate ATS authority’ refer to?

A

The relevant authority designated by the State responsible for providing air traffic services.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the significance of the Chicago Convention in relation to air navigation?

A

It outlines the obligations and rights of Member States over the high seas regarding air navigation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the primary function of Datalink?

A

The exchange of digitized information between end-users

Datalink facilitates communication in aviation, allowing for efficient information exchange.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the two classifications of aeronautical datalink communications?

A
  • AOC (Airline Operational Communications)
  • ATC (Air Traffic Control Communications)

These classifications help differentiate the types of communications that occur in aviation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the core component of the airborne datalink system?

A

ACARS router

The ACARS router routes messages from the ground to onboard systems.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does D-ATIS stand for?

A

Digital Automatic Terminal Information Service

D-ATIS provides ATIS information through data links instead of traditional voice broadcasts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is a significant advantage of D-ATIS over traditional ATIS?

A
  • Avoids poor quality voice transmission
  • Available regardless of distance from the airport
  • Allows pilots to download and save messages

These advantages enhance the efficiency and reliability of receiving important flight information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
True or False: The content of voice and data link ATIS messages is different.
False ## Footnote Both voice and data link ATIS messages provide identical information and are updated simultaneously.
26
What must an aircraft be equipped with to use CPDLC in FANS 1/A airspace?
* FANS A/A+/A+B * FANS C ## Footnote These equipment standards ensure compatibility with datalink services in specified airspace.
27
What is the purpose of the logon function in datalink?
It is part of the data link initiation capability (DLIC) ## Footnote The logon is necessary for establishing connections for CPDLC and ADSC.
28
What should a pilot do 10 to 25 minutes before entering datalink airspace?
Initiate a logon request ## Footnote This ensures the aircraft is ready to use datalink services upon entering the airspace.
29
What happens if a logon request is unsuccessful?
The flight crew should reconfirm logon information and reinitiate a logon ## Footnote Ensuring correct information is crucial for establishing successful communication.
30
What is CPDLC designed for?
Exchanging routine, NON-TIME CRITICAL instructions, clearances, and requests via datalink text messages ## Footnote CPDLC is not suitable for urgent communications that require immediate action.
31
What does CPDLC stand for?
Controller Pilot Data Link Communications
32
What is the primary function of CPDLC?
Enables the flight crew and controllers to exchange routine, non-time critical instructions, clearances, and requests via datalink text messages
33
True or False: CPDLC is intended for use in time-critical situations.
False
34
Above what flight level is CPDLC designed to provide service?
FL285
35
How is the introduction of CPDLC determined?
On a state by state basis depending on the upgrade of ATC systems at each area control centre
36
What must pilots do when a CPDLC message is received?
Respond to a CPDLC message via CPDLC and respond to a voice message via voice
37
When must pilots contact ATC by voice?
On each change of frequency
38
What should a pilot do if there is a technical fault affecting CPDLC?
Logoff and revert to voice
39
What are the potential risks associated with using CPDLC?
Potential misuse of equipment, loss of situational awareness, ambiguity in message interpretation, and conflicting instructions
40
What is a key operational guideline for CPDLC?
Operation of CPDLC must not interfere with the safety of the flight
41
Fill in the blank: CPDLC messages can be classified as '______' or 'downlink' messages.
uplink
42
What does ADSC stand for?
Automatic Dependent Surveillance – Contract
43
What is the purpose of ADSC?
To obtain position reports from the aircraft without flight crew action to update the current flight plan
44
What should flight crews check before initiating a logon with an ATSU when using ADSC?
Ensure ADSC is armed
45
What should flight crew members do when a CPDLC uplink is received?
Read the message individually and then discuss how to respond
46
What should be avoided when sending messages via CPDLC?
Sending multiple clearance requests in the same message and duplicate messages
47
True or False: CPDLC allows for the use of free text messages without restrictions.
False
48
What is the maximum number of CPDLC connections an aircraft can have established concurrently?
Two
49
What must happen for an ATS unit to initiate a CPDLC connection?
The ATS unit must successfully correlate an aircraft with the associated flight plan
50
What happens if a termination request message is received without additional message elements?
The aircraft system will downlink a CPDLC termination confirm message
51
What should be done if a pilot cannot comply with any portion of a multielement uplink message?
Respond to the entire message with UNABLE
52
What is one reason CPDLC should not be used during critical flight phases?
It may interfere with the safety of the flight
53
What is the primary communication medium pilots should use during an emergency?
Voice communications
54
What should be checked on the ATC FPL in the OFP?
The required aircraft equipment/datalink capability ## Footnote Item 10 includes CPDLC and ADSC descriptors.
55
What does item 10a of the ATC FPL indicate?
The appropriate CPDLC equipment descriptor ## Footnote Examples include ‘J1’ for ATN B1 airspace and ‘J4’ for FANS 1/A airspace.
56
What does item 10b of the ATC FPL indicate?
The appropriate ADSC descriptor for Wizz FANS C aircraft ## Footnote Examples include ‘D1’ for FANS 1/A airspace and/or ‘G1’ for ATN airspace.
57
What must be checked regarding the MEL status of the aircraft?
It must be checked against the airspace requirements along the planned route.
58
What should be coordinated with OCC?
To ensure that the filed ATC FPL reflects the equipment status of the aircraft.
59
How is the datalink system initialized in normal operations?
Automatically on all Wizz Air aircraft during flight deck preparation.
60
What should be done in case of unsuccessful datalink logon?
System settings can be checked and a manual initialization may be performed.
61
What is D-ATIS?
Digital Automatic Terminal Information Service that may be requested through datalink services.
62
Who is responsible for requesting D-ATIS when available?
The PF (Pilot Flying).
63
What should be done with the latest stored D-ATIS message?
It shall be printed or copied to the OFP if the printer is not available.
64
What is Digital Clearance Delivery (DCL)?
Departure clearance that may be requested through datalink services.
65
What must the PM do when DCL is available?
Request the Departure Clearance.
66
What is the role of the PF in the crew coordination for ATC clearance?
Requests the departure clearance and acknowledges receipt.
67
When should logon notification be sent?
While on the ground if ATC datalink signal coverage is available.
68
What is required before establishing a CPDLC connection?
A successfully completed datalink logon procedure.
69
When should CPDLC not be used?
Before passing FL100 in climb and after passing FL150 in descent.
70
What should crew members do after receiving a CPDLC uplink message?
Discuss the appropriate option to select in order to answer the received message.
71
What does the prompt 'WILCO' indicate?
The request/instruction can be complied with.
72
What does the prompt 'UNABLE' indicate?
The request/instruction cannot be complied with.
73
What should be done with uplink messages after the agreed actions are performed?
Close all uplink messages to avoid congestion.
74
What must happen before sending any downlink message to ATC?
Flight crew members shall discuss the planned action(s).
75
What is required for position reports in airspaces without ATC radar coverage?
They can be sent automatically or manually.
76
What should the PM do approximately 15 minutes after exiting CPDLC areas?
Check/perform CPDLC disconnection, then call out: 'CPDLC DISCONNECTED'.
77
What do nonroutine procedures address?
Communication problems encountered during using CPDLC.
78
What must be filed in case of a datalink initiation failure?
An ASR to notify state/regional monitoring agencies.
79
What must be filed in case of a datalink system failure?
To notify ATS unit and oper a workorder.
80
What is the primary communication method for block fuel and ETA updates?
Via datalink communication using MCDU and ACARS.
81
What should be entered when requesting block fuel?
BLOCK, TRIP, and TAXI fuel.