All topics Flashcards
1
Q
What are the calls in case of emergency ldg?
A
2000agl finish prep
500agl brace for impact
stopped attention crew at stat
evacuate or cc and pax remain seated
2
Q
What conditions must an aerodrome meet to be elected as a take-off alternate?
A
Weather must be with +- 1hr an RVR higher than the operational minima and for type A approaches also ceiling at or above MDH
RVR stands for Runway Visual Range, and MDH stands for Minimum Descent Height.
3
Q
When an airport can be considered with 2 separate runways?
A
When runways may overlay, but if one closes, it cannot prevent the other from usage and they must have two different procedure but on two different ground aids.
4
Q
When a take off cannot commence?
A
If TS is in vicinity of AD or +SN, +GS, +SG, +PL, +FZRA or GR(hail) or moderate FZRA.
5
Q
visula minima
A
5km and 2500f equal cavok/2
6
Q
max fuel imbalance
A
up to full 400kg
above 3ton 400kg
above 700kg 700kg
7
Q
When an RNAV approach can be planned on OFP?
A
when alternate is not needed or if dest or alt has raw data app
8
Q
When 2 alternates are req?
A
When RVR/VIS is not as landing minima and for type A approaches ceiling is below MDH or no meteo avlb
This indicates conditions under which normal landing procedures may not apply.
9
Q
What’s type A app?
A
any approach with minima higher than 200ft
10
Q
What is the maximum autoland crosswind limit for all types?
A
20 (CATIII) and 25 (CAT II) for 321C
10 A321N
20 (no rollout) and 15 (autoroll
This is the maximum crosswind limit specified for CAT II operations
11
Q
cat2 minima TDZ MID END
A
300m 100ft but chart minima
125m or 75m if autoland and CAT dual
125m or 75m if autoland and CAT dual
12
Q
What is the APminimum altitude for F-G/S?
A
200 AGL.
13
Q
How long must batteries be kept on after APU shutdown?
A
2 minutes
14
Q
When Anti ice on gnd
A
When OAT <10° and standing water in any phase on gnd or vis is less than statute mile
15
Q
What must be waited for before switching off the APU after disembarkation?
A
Completion of disembarkation
16
Q
How is roll controlled in Alternate Law?
A
Directly.
17
Q
What is the maximum headwind limit for autoland for alla types?
A
30 (cat 3)a and 40 (cat 2) A321C
15 A321N
30 a320c
This limit applies specifically to CAT II operations
18
Q
memory itme windshear
A
“windshear toga”
TOGA
pull for SRS even if full backstick
no change config
recovery out of shear with pitch 10°
19
Q
When Anti ice must be set on inflight
A
anytime OAT or TAT below 10° in des
in clb when OAT or TAT below 10° but OAT still above -40°
20
Q
What is the AP minimum altitude for other operations?
A
900 AGL.
21
Q
when TAWS memory items must be applied
A
anytime the message contains “PULL UP” or during caution message you are in IMC or nightime
22
Q
What is the maximum Xwind and thrust reverse for OEI?
A
Max X-wind and max Rev Idle on live engine
OEI refers to One Engine Inoperative conditions
23
Q
What happens to yaw control in Alternate Law?
A
Yaw is without turn coordination and yaw dumping is reduced.
24
Q
What type of protection is lost in Alternate Law?
A
- Pitch protection (except load factor protection) * Bank protection * AoA protection (replaced by normal stall warning) * High speed protection.
25
What functions can the APU provide?
Electricity and bleed air
26
What is the AP minimum altitude for CAT 1 on FMA?
160 AGL.
27
What replaces AoA protection in Alternate Law?
A normal stall warning at stall warning speed.
28
How long must the APU start be delayed after external power is set?
70 seconds
29
What type of antiicing can't be used?
type 3
30
What should be done if OAT is 0°C or below about ApU usage vs Gpwr
Start APU and don’t use GND PWR
31
cat 1 minima TDZ MID END
550m 200ft but chart minima
250m or 125m if RCLL
250m or 125m if RCLL
32
What is controlling when it comes to reported RVRs?
All reported and relevant RVRs are controlling
33
Fill in the blank: If DH/MDH is higher than _______ AAL, the approach cannot be continued into the final approach.
1000
34
What is introduced regarding speed stability in Alternate Law?
Only high/low speed stability is introduced.
35
When runway contaminated what setting in autobrk and rev can minimize the offside from runway
low brk idle rev
36
CAT III with DH TDZ MID END
200m
125m or 75m if autoland and Cat dual
37
What is the maximum distance an alternate aerodrome can be from the departure aerodrome?
250 nautical miles
## Footnote
This distance is applicable for selecting an alternate aerodrome.
38
Can you take off with RCC less than 3?
no
39
What is Alternate Law in aviation?
A mode that occurs when multiple failures are introduced, recognizable from the XX on the bank protection indication.
40
What is the recommended action regarding APU and GPU usage if OAT is above 0°C?
Delay APU start until door open and 1636°, can use APU and GND PWR in parallel
41
True or False: The parallel usage of APU and GPU is recommended.
False
42
What does APU stand for?
Auxiliary Power Unit
43
When there's no need of alternate for the destination?
An isolated aerodrome or flights of less than 6hr with 2 separate runways and weather within ±1hr with Ceiling at +2000ft and visibility of more than 5km
## Footnote
The runways may overlay, but if one closes, it cannot prevent the other from usage and they must have two different procedure bait on two different ground aids.
44
What type of approaches must have a ceiling at or above MDH for an aerodrome to be considered as a take-off alternate?
Type A approaches
45
What is the responsibility of the Pilot in Command (PIC) regarding minima?
It is the PIC's duty to assess it
46
min flex temp is
OAT+5°
47
What is the AP minimum altitude for FINAL APP-V/S-FPA?
250 AGL.
48
What is the basis for pitch control in Alternate Law?
Load factor inputs.
49
When can the APU be started with batt only?
Anytime on normal electrical configuration but only below FL250 when using battery power
50
True or False: ATC may issue a clearance when minima is not available.
True
51
What is the minimum AP altitude for takeoff?
100 AGL or 5 seconds.
52
At what altitude can the APU provide also bleed air?
Below 22,500 ft
53
CAT III without DH TDZ MID END
75
75
75
54
NPA minima TDZ MID END
chart minima
250m or 125m if RCLL
250m or 125m if RCLL
55
What is the AP minimum altitude after a manual go-around?
100 AGL.
56
What is the AP minimum altitude for CAT 2 on FMA?
Highest of 80 ft and of 80% of minima.
57
at what spd antiskid is inop
20 GS
58
What is the AP minimum altitude for PAR approach?
250 AGL.
59
Fill in the blank: The approach cannot be continued below _______ AAL if RVR/VIS is less than minima.
1000
60
Can the APU work along the entire flight envelope for electricity?
Yes
61
How long should the APU bleed be delayed after APU start?
3 minutes
62
Why is the delay for APU bleed important?
To get the oil sealing warm and efficient
63
What is the maximum tailwind limit for all aircraft versions mentioned?
10
## Footnote
This is a consistent limit for tailwind across all specified aircraft versions
64
circling minima
4km and ceiling 1000ft or minima
65
What occurs during landing when the landing gear is down in Alternate Law?
All axis are reverted into direct law.
66
memory items for TAWS
"pull up toga"
AP off full pull
TOGA
SPD brk retracted
level wings
pitch 10° as above msa
ldg up
thrust clb and athr engaged
67
Can the approach be continued if the RVR/VIS falls below minima after passing 1000 AAL?
Yes, the approach may be continued to minima
68
Fill in the blank: An aerodrome can be elected as a take-off alternate only if the weather will be with an RVR higher than the operational minima for _____ hours.
±1 hr
69
what's type b app?
any approach with minima at or lower than 200ft
70
True or False: A take-off alternate can be the same aerodrome as the departure aerodrome.
True
71
when windshear message is triggered?
when detected by weather radar or by FAC
72
what parts are electical heated
FD windows, sensors, pitot, static, any drain mast.
73
When should an autopilot (AP) be used during flight?
Should be used anytime above FL100/10000’. Anytime an AP trips off, try to engage the other.
74
What happens if the RVR/VIS is less than the applicable minima before starting the approach?
The approach cannot be continued below 1000 AAL or into the final approach if DH/MDH is higher than 1000 AAL
75
How is the status of Alternate Law indicated on the E/WD?
As F/CTL ALTN LAW.
76
How many alternates need any IFR flights if other criteria are not fullfilled?
Destination must have specific criteria fulfilled
## Footnote
Unless other criteria are fulfilled, this is a requirement.
77
What is the AP minimum altitude for circling?
500 AGL.
78
what parts are bleed heated
3 outboard leading edge, slats and air intake
79
Manual thrust is permitted when
only during lifus
80
In some cases of deviation, red AUTOLAND light flashes in LAND or FLARE mode below….
A320 family.
200ft
81
What is the length of the Touchdown Zone?
900m starting from threshold
82
RVs 1000/1000/1000 reported by the ATC at nighttime, Approach lights and HIRL are available. What will be the applicable CMV to be used?
CMV cannot be used
83
In case of the Antiskid inoperative (in flight failure), is Autoland permitted for CAT Ill approach with RVR200m and DH50ft?
Yes autoland without auto rollout
84
Is the Approach Light System (ALS) mandatory for CAT with NO DH operations?
No optional
85
RVs 500/300/500. Is it allowed to commence a CAT II approach if the last 250 meters of the appro: lights are inoperative?
No. OMA 8.1.4.13 EFFECT OF TEMPORARILY FAILED OR DOWNGRADED GROUND EQUIPMENT ON LANDING MINIMACAT Il is not allowed with Approach lights inoperative.
Feedback for answer 2: Correct
86
Departure A/D is CAT I (nO LVO). WX is RVR 1200/1000/1000 OVC 001 NOSIG, Aircraft STS OK. Can you take off, need alt?
WAH/WT: We can commence T/O and we need T/O alternate.
87
Rvr measurement Ignores vertical and horizontal density changes?
Yes
88
If you depress the guarded NAV button, the MCDU RAD NAV pages are inhibited and only the RMP controls navaid tuning. T or f?
True
89
What is the approximate time (TAU) before reaching the Closest Point of Approach (CPA) in case of a TCAS TA when flying at 7000 ft?
40sec
90
When can managed vertical navigation be engaged?
Only after managed lateral navigation has been engaged.
91
Pneumatic data from the probes are converted by ... to data usable for the ADIRUs.
Eight ADMs (Air Data Modules
92
When the thrust levers are moved to the takeoff position, the FMGS updates its position at takeoff using:
The navigation Getabase and the likes run entered ante the MiC DU by the pilot
93
Which surfaces are NOT protected by hot bleed air Ice Protection System?
THS leading-edge.
94
What does a HYD PUMP FAULT light indicate? 1. Reservoir low level; 2. Reservoir overheat.; 3. Reservoir low air pressure; 4. Pump low pressure; 5. PTU is operating.
1, 2, 3, 4
95
How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?
HP bleed from Engine 1 or from the crossbleed duct.
96
On a CAT 3 DUAL approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?
FMGC 1
97
RNAV position information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?
ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.
98
The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates:
the #1 VOR receiver is inoperative.
99
If opened when armed, the passenger entry doors how do they open?
Pneumatically assisted into the open position
100
What does illumination of the white SLIDE ARMED light represent on the main cabin door?
This indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is opened from inside the aircraft.
101
What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?
It automatically unlocks.
102
What does illumination of the red CABIN PRESSURE light represent on the main cabin door?
This indicates that the aircraft cabin is still pressurized and the cabin door should not be opened.
103
What would happen during the takeoff if the thrust levers were set to the FLX/MCT detent without FLEX temperature entered?
A LEVEL TWO warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM message.
104
When does oil quantity indication begin to pulse?
Decreasing below 5 qts.
105
The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) controls which of the following functions:
Fuel metering
Auto and manual start
Eng limits
106
Alpha floor protection is available:
from lift off and down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.
107
If an A/THR disconnect button is pushed and held for more than .
.. seconds; the A/THR system is
disconnected for the remainder of the flight.
15sec
108
The FADEC will automatically abort an abnormal start thereby providing engine limit protection, but will th
FADE also automatically dry crank the engine?
Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.
109
What is the alert height?
Altitude at which a go-around is mandatory in case of any malfunction
## Footnote
Below this altitude, a go-around is only mandatory on Autoland warning during a fail operational Cat 111 DUAL.
110
What is the DH in aviation?
Height above ground of the landing gear; forbidden to change below 1000ft RA
## Footnote
RA stands for Radio Altitude.
111
Do limitations for Autoland apply to manual approaches in CAT II?
Yes, but wind components may vary
## Footnote
This may imply that an approach may not be completed.
112
What does fail passive mean?
No Autoland will be performed and no auto trim will happen in case of malfunction.
113
What does fail operational mean?
Redundancy is lost, but the system can continue with Autoland in CAT III SINGLE.
114
What does FU do during LAND mode?
Freezes to ensure correct final approach guidance for auto landing.
115
What actions can disengage Land mode?
GA engagement, pressing APP pushbutton on ground, or AP disconnection by more than 10 sec.
116
When does the AUTOLAND red warning flash?
When below 200 ft RA with autopilot engaged
## Footnote
This occurs when AP are off or there's excessive beam deviation, LOC or G/S fails on TX or RX.
117
Do you need hot time for deicing?
No
118
Where can you find info about alternate weather requeirements?
Oma 8.1.6.5
119
What are the actions of a bomb red alert on stand?
Inform atc, with cc PA quick disembarkation and request bomb Squad
120
What are the actions of a bomb yellow alert on stand?
Inform atc, with cc PA normal disembarkation and request bomb Squad
121
What are the actions of a bomb red alert during taxi?
Inform atc, request remote stand, ask stairs and inform pax about ops return. Ask with cc for quick disembark. Use slide only if stairs not avlb on reasonable time.
122
What are the actions of a bomb red alert inflight?
Stop climb and mayday. Start qrh. Ask for bomb checklist for security issue. Prepare quick disembark
123
At which alt go around during circling?
Follow the instrument app missed approach but don't perform any turn before the circling altitude.
124
How can you deice the radome and all sensors?
Only type 1 from back or hot air
125
If you are treating a local area for icing do you need hot?
No as its considered deicing. CWOM 4.3.9.3
126
When can you set flaps in icing conditions also after deicing?
At the holding point
127
What are the memory items of emergency des?
"Emer des", oxy mask, seat belt, max spd or actual, op des, spd brk, 7700
128
What are the memory items for WS?
"WINDSHEAR toga" SRS also full backstick, no change config, recovery at 10pitch
129
What are the memory items of gpws?
Ap off, toga, full backstick, spd brk retract, no change of config, recovery at 10pitch
130
What are the unreliable speed memory items?
If safety is jeopardised, ap off, fe off, toga 15, clb 10, clb 5. If full set f3. Buss or pitch. Spd brk and ldg retract
131
What are the memory items for STALL in crz?
Ap off, pitch -10. Clb thrust +pitch only when above vls. Spd brk Retract
132
How to fight a risk of over spd in crz?
Reduce spd of fcu. Brief use of spd brk. Last resource is thr levers
133
What are the memory items of stall on take off?
Toga 15 until extinguishment of warning
134
What are the memory item for tcas ta then ra without autotcas?
"Tcas I have ctl" at ta the pin on case of ra request Ap/fd off follow green. At high alt only small pitch changes
135
What are the memory item for tcas ta then ra with autotcas?
"Tcas blue" "Tcas"
136
What are the memory items for volcanism ash?
180 turn and atc. Athr off and idle. Oxy mask and cc notify
137
What are the memory items for loss of brk?
Full reverse, release brk. Askid off then apply pedals brk with the alt brk sys. If still no effect try park brk
138
What are the memory item for eng failin crz?
Mct, athr off. Spd ,78/300 or Gdot. Opdes f150.
139
Where do you find company costumizations for abnormal procedure like memory items?
OMB chapter 3.
140
How do you declare emergency fuel?
Mayday x3 +fuel
141
What's the meaning for mayday fuel? Reference
If aircraft is suspected to land with less than final reserve or less. OMA 8.3.7.2
142
What's the meaning of minimum fuel?
If any clearance amendments would result to start burning final reserve
143
When commander shall request delay information?
When circumstances may result to use the alt+final reserve.
144
If TS is approaching the airport or is overhead can you take off or try the approach?
No
145
At which distance should you avoid magenta/yellow radar return?
Up to 25000ft 10nm. 25-30 is 15nm. Above 30000ft is 20nm
146
At which altitude should you avoid TS?
5000ft
147
Whats notoc
Is the manifest of dangerous good containing all info. And must be presented to cpt
148
What are the reasons for an emergency evacuation?
Fire, bomb, ditching, smoke, serious damage. Any immediate life threatening
149
How is performed the emer evac checklist?
Started with the command by cpt and then read and do by cm2.
150
What can trigger emer evac without cpt order?
Smoke fire, ditching, serious damage or any life threatening visible in the cabin
151
What are the callouts for the emer evac?
Attention crew at station", "evacuate, evacuate", " cabin crew and passenger remain seated."
152
After emer evac is completed and evac started what are the duties of flight crew?
Cm2 shall take emer equip and help pax on gnd and direct them. Cm1 check all pax end evacuate via 4L
153
When is used quick disembarkation?
When there's no immediate threats but an abnormal situation arises. Like fuel spillage, bomb threat or light collision
154
How quick disembarkation is initiated and managed? How stopped?
It's organised with the scc and initiated with "quick disembarkation". "Cancel disembarkation"
155
How quick disembarkation is directed by scc?
Scc inform pax about reason and direct them to leave belongings and to evacuate via 1l/4L
156
How a medical emer is handled in flight?
Diversion is decided together with scc via dodar. Medical advise can be used. Pan pan can be used. Inform scc using nits after aerodromo is selected. After prk cycle seat belt
157
How the aerodromo should be selected in case on medical onboard?
Must give an unhurry approach, not too much demanding, with appropriate medical and maximum use of automation, in a short range and with least detrimental ops effect.
158
What's med-c-a-r-e?
Medical problem and syntoms, cc actions, assistance if present a doctor, recommended plan, essential pax data. Sex, age, syntoms, location
159
How to report illness onboard?
Using intelex report and sickness/illness report. This last if not signe by pax can be signed by cpt and 2 witnesses.
160
Can a pax ill refuse a treatment?
Yes but a note be done on he journey log
161
What must be reported if oxy from bottle is used onboard?
Sickness report and etlb entry
162
Whats to be noted in the OFP
DEP clearance, ATIS, freq changes, LVL changes and fuel/time monitoring
