AI QB system Flashcards
1
Q
What does a steady align light indicate on an ADIRU?
A
The respective IR is operating normally in align mode.
2
Q
What is the basic role of the DMCs?
A
They compute and elaborate displays.
3
Q
Which hydraulic systems actuate the rudder?
A
Green, Blue and Yellow
4
Q
If VHF 1 is selected on RMP 2, the SEL light illuminates white on:
A
On RMP 2 only.
5
Q
Can you read the heading on the PFD?
A
Yes.
6
Q
Reverse deployment requires TLA signal from the SECs, one reverse will be lost if:
A
SECs 1+2 fail or SECs 1+3 fail.
7
Q
What is the meaning of a diagonal line on a CRT?
A
Electrical supply is good and corresponding DMC failed.
8
Q
The max continuous oil temp limit may be exceeded, what is the limit and under what conditions?
A
155 deg.c for less than 15 mins.
9
Q
The Hot light on the brake fan pushbutton illuminates when brake temperature reaches:
A
300 deg.c.
10
Q
The engine nacelle is anti-iced by:
A
air bleed for the high pressure compressor.
11
Q
Tuning of VOR / DME and ILS is provided by:
A
Automatic tuning / Manual tuning.
12
Q
With fuel in all tanks (A320), in flight, fuel is used:
A
From the center tank, then from inner cells to a predetermined level when outer cell fuel combines with inner cell fuel.
13
Q
Where do the wing anti-ice indications appear on ECAM?
A
‘ANTI-ICE’ appears in white on the ECAM bleed page and ‘WING A.ICE’
14
Q
The bulk cargo door is locked how?
A
Mechanically locked and opened.
15
Q
In normal electrical configuration, how is DC ESS bus supplied?
A
From TR 1 via DC bus 1 and DC Bat Bus.
16
Q
Thrust reversers are actuated by:
A
Hydraulic actuators; Green for engine one - Yellow for engine two.
17
Q
Gen 1 and Gen 2 when operating have priority over the APU gen:
A
Yes.
18
Q
System page ‘Wheel’; L/G position indicators (triangles), First line shows green triangles, second line behind shows amber crosses, is the landing gear down?
A
Yes.
19
Q
Where can the battery voltage be checked?
A
On the elec overhead panel and the ECAM elec page.
20
Q
The yellow system includes operation of:
A
The flaps and slats.
21
Q
In Approach, ‘LAND’ illuminates green on FMA when radio altitude is:
A
200 ft.
22
Q
Select the correct statement:
A
DMC1 supplies data to PFD1 - ND1 - EWDU(Upper ecam).
23
Q
How many control modes are there on the elevator servo jacks?
A
3 - active, damping and centering.
24
Q
The Brake & Accumulator pressure gauge shows pressure:
A
From both Yellow brake system and the Brake Accumulator.
25
The anti skid and Nose wheel switch is set to off:
Anti skid and Nose wheel steering are deactivated.
26
When a SELCAL is received on VHF 2:
SELCAL flashes in amber on the VHF 2 transmission key and a buzzer sounds.
27
Each passenger door does not have a slide arming lever.
FALSE
28
Normal minimum battery voltage before APU start is:
25.5v.
29
The Avionics bay smoke detector is located in the:
avionics bay.
30
What is the (A321) maximum allowable flex temperature?
ISA + 43c.
31
What is the minimum fuel quantity for take off?
5,350 kg.
32
On ground what happens if the RAT and Emer. Gen. Man On Pb. Is pressed?
The RAT is extended.
33
What happens when ND shows red circle with ‘map not avail’ message?
FMGC position invalid/ADIRS not aligned.
34
The alternate brake system uses:
The Yellow hydraulic system and the hydraulic accumulator.
35
In flight the RAT is extended:
Manually or automatically.
36
How many escape ropes are there in the cockpit?
1.
37
The aircraft interphone systems allow the flight crew members to communicate with:
The cabin attendants, the cockpit, and the mechanic.
38
Avionics Smoke warning is inhibited during take-off from:
80kts to lift-off.
39
The blue system operates:
Both ailerons.
40
In case of reservoir Lo-air pressure the hydraulic system affected is:
Definitely lost.
41
How can you check that engine anti-ice has been selected on?
the ON light on the associated engine anti-ice PB and the ENGINE ANTI-ICE message on the ECAM engine page.
42
In normal operation, each engine is supplied by:
Two wing tank pumps and one center tank pump.
43
What is the FADEC?
A digital control system that performs complete engine management consisting of the electronic control unit and its peripheral sensors and components.
44
The engine 2 fire valve is between the yellow reservoir and:
The Eng. 2 Hydraulic pump.
45
In certain cases the static inverter is supplied by:
D/C Bat bus.
46
Normally, where can you check the fuel quantity of each tank?
On ECAM upper display, or on refueling control panel.
47
Where is the vent surge tank located?
In the outer section of each wing.
48
If an RMP fails:
The selected receiver is no longer controlled by this RMP.
49
On ground, Blue electric pump Pb at auto, the circuit is energised if:
One engine is running or Blue pump ovrd. Pb has been pressed.
50
Do the Check ATT. messages appear on both PFDs at the same time?
No.
51
The normal tank filling order is:
Wing tanks then center tank.
52
Nose wheel steering by rudder pedals is limited to:
+/- 6 deg. under all conditions.
53
With AUTO BRK MED selected for landing, the green DECEL light comes on when deceleration is:
20% of the selected rate.
54
At Toulouse (500 ft); TREF is 29c, outside air temp is 36c, and you found a corrected Flex TEMP of 33c, is it possible to use flex thrust for take off?
No, flex temp 33c is not allowed because it is less than OAT.
55
What are the load factor limits?
+2.5g and -1g clean; +2.0g and 0g in other configurations.
56
During T/O the FMA shows SRS, what is the order of the horizontal Fd bar?
Climb at V2 with both engines running.
57
With green hydraulic system lost, the NWS is operative.
The NWS operates in alternate.
58
If the blue system is lost, the slats are:
Lost.
59
With green hydraulic system lost, the anti skid is:
Lost.
60
During first engine start the PTU is:
Inhibited.
61
What is the maximum starter operating time?
1 min followed by 20 sec of no operation.
62
What is the maximum starter operating time?
2 min followed by 20 sec of no operation.
## Footnote
The starter operating procedures are critical for engine management.
63
In direct law, who controls yaw with the rudder pedals?
The pilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals, while the yaw damping and turn coordination functions are lost.
## Footnote
Direct law limits some autopilot functions, placing more control in the pilot's hands.
64
Rudder travel limitation is a function of?
FAC in normal and ELAC in alternate.
## Footnote
Understanding the functions of ELAC and FAC is essential for aircraft control.
65
With the MECH transmission key on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) pressed, what is selected for transmission?
The flight interphone channel is selected for transmission via the ACP RAD switch or the side stick radio selector.
## Footnote
This feature aids in communication during critical phases of flight.
66
Pitot heating operates:
at a low level on the ground and at normal power in flight.
## Footnote
Proper pitot heating is crucial for accurate airspeed readings.
67
During Take-Off and Go-Around, what does the speed window on the FCU display?
Dashes and the light is illuminated; Managed speed such as V2 or memorised Vapp are automatically used by the FMGS.
## Footnote
Understanding speed management is vital for safe take-off and landing.
68
Suction valves are:
Normally closed by pump pressure.
## Footnote
This ensures fuel system integrity during operation.
69
Landing Gear position is indicated by?
One panel on center instrument panel, ECAM, visual means on the wing.
## Footnote
Knowing the indicators helps in assessing landing gear status.
70
In case of failure of FMGC 1 & 2 (Back up tuning), what can RMP1 control?
RMP1 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 1. RMP 2 controls VOR, ILS DME and ADF receivers 2.
## Footnote
Backup tuning is essential for navigation in case of FMGC failure.
71
When disconnecting the IDG, the button should be pressed for how long?
For no more than 3 secs.
## Footnote
Proper procedures help prevent electrical system damage.
72
How are the electric wipers controlled?
By 2 individual pushbuttons
## Footnote
The electric wipers can also be controlled by other methods, but this is the primary way.
73
What provides the reference speed for the anti-skid system?
A wheel tachometer.
## Footnote
Other references may include BSCU and ECAM.
74
In the event of both FMGCs failing, how can navaids be tuned?
Navaids can only be tuned through the MCDU RAD NAV page.
## Footnote
RMP units can also be used for tuning under certain conditions.
75
Which valve ensures adequate fuel flow?
The fuel metering valve of the HMU.
## Footnote
Other valves may also play a role in fuel management.
76
Where are lavatory smoke detectors located?
Located in each lavatory air extraction duct.
## Footnote
There may be variations in installation depending on aircraft configuration.
77
How is oxygen supplied to the fixed oxygen system in the cockpit?
From a high pressure fixed cylinder in the left hand lower fuselage.
## Footnote
Other sources of oxygen include chemical generators and portable bottles.
78
When do the wing anti-ice shut-off valves close automatically?
In case of leak detection or loss of electrical power supply.
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to prevent ice accumulation.
79
What can pressurize the green hydraulic system?
The No. 1 engine hydraulic pump, the PTU or by an electric pump.
## Footnote
Various systems contribute to hydraulic pressure management.
80
When Take off mode is engaged, what happens to A/Thr?
A/Thr automatically engages but is not active.
## Footnote
This indicates readiness without engagement.
81
Which spoilers does the Blue system operate?
Spoilers 2 & 4.
## Footnote
This is part of the aircraft's aerodynamic control systems.
82
Which ailerons does the green system operate?
Both ailerons.
## Footnote
This ensures coordinated control during flight.
83
What is the purpose of the LOC Pb on the FCU?
Used for performing a published localizer approach.
## Footnote
This is essential for precision landings.
84
What action should be taken if ADIRU 2 fails?
Set ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors to CAPT/3.
## Footnote
This helps maintain navigation accuracy.
85
How are elevators, ailerons and spoilers controlled?
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
## Footnote
This combination provides responsive control.
86
When is the D/C bat bus automatically connected to the batteries?
Below 100 kts.
## Footnote
This connection is crucial for emergency power management.
87
How is the aircraft's position computed for the flight plan?
FM part of the FMGC.
## Footnote
This is critical for accurate navigation.
88
What is the ignition sequence during an automatic ground start?
Ignition by N2>16%, HP fuel valve opening by 22%, start valve closure by N2>50%.
## Footnote
This sequence ensures safe engine starting.
89
What happens when both sticks are moved in the same or opposite direction?
Control surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflections of both sticks.
## Footnote
This allows for coordinated control movements.
90
Does the engine one pump fault light illuminate amber when engine one is stopped?
No.
## Footnote
This indicates that the fault light is not triggered under certain conditions.
91
What comprises the yellow system?
One engine driven pump, one electric pump, one hand pump.
## Footnote
This system is essential for hydraulic operations.
92
Where are emergency evacuation slides fitted on the A320?
The four entry doors and the overwing exits.
## Footnote
This ensures passenger safety during emergencies.
93
When is pressure in the nose wheel steering system shut off?
With towing lever in towing position or both engines are shut down or the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is OFF.
## Footnote
This is important for ground handling.
94
What happens when Gen. 1 or Gen. 2 is selected to off?
The Generator field is de-energised and the line contactor is open.
## Footnote
This is a standard procedure for managing electrical systems.
95
What VOR information is displayed in Rose Nav mode with VOR 1 selected?
Deviation Bar, selected course and the bearing pointer.
## Footnote
This aids in navigation accuracy.
96
What happens when the Gen 1 line Pb. is set to off?
AC Bus 1 is not powered because the gen. 1 line contactor is opened and transfer contactor is not closed.
## Footnote
This is crucial for understanding power distribution.
97
What does the blue system include in operation?
The flaps and the slats.
## Footnote
This enhances the aircraft's lift and control.
98
What does roll normal law maintain?
Maximum bank angle of 45°, provided no other protections are active.
## Footnote
This is a key safety feature during flight.
99
What does smoke detection in the cargo compartments consist of?
4 smoke detectors in each compartment and a SDCU.
## Footnote
This is vital for fire safety.
100
What are the basic modes of the AP/FD (Flight engagement)?
V/S and HDG.
## Footnote
These modes are essential for automated flight control.
101
What are the functions of the FMGC?
Flight management and flight guidance.
## Footnote
This is essential for efficient aircraft operation.
102
Is the maximum cruise N1 displayed on the upper ECAM?
Always.
## Footnote
This is important for monitoring engine performance.
103
Which elevator does the green system operate?
Both.
## Footnote
This ensures effective control during flight.
104
When is the AC Ess shed bus automatically shed?
If the RAT stalls or aircraft is on ground with speed <100kts.
## Footnote
This is part of emergency protocol.
105
When can windshield rain repellent be used?
May be used in moderate to heavy rain.
## Footnote
This is important for visibility during flight.
106
Can the inertial FPV be seen in red colour in Trk / FPA mode?
No (it disappears when failed).
## Footnote
This indicates a failure in the system.
107
What are the main components of the FMGS?
2 FMGC - 2 MCDU - 2 FAC - 1 FCU control panel.
## Footnote
This architecture supports advanced flight management.
108
Where can the RAT be restored?
On ground and in flight.
## Footnote
This flexibility is crucial for emergency scenarios.
109
What are the starter cooling time requirements?
5 min cooling time after 4 cycles of 2 min.
## Footnote
This is vital for maintaining starter integrity.
110
What is the maximum EGT during engine start?
950 c.
## Footnote
This limit is critical for engine safety.
111
What happens to the engine anti-ice valve during loss of electrical supply?
Closes when the engine is running.
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to prevent engine icing.
112
Which system operates all ground spoilers?
The green system.
## Footnote
This is essential for landing performance.
113
What is the pitch direct law?
A direct sidestick to elevator relationship.
## Footnote
This allows for direct control over pitch.
114
What does FOB (fuel on board) boxed amber on ECAM fuel page mean?
Both transfer valves in either wing tank fail to open when inner cell is at low level or the centre tank pumps are off.
## Footnote
This indicates a critical fuel management issue.
115
With both engines stopped, how can the green system be pressurized?
By the yellow electric pump and the PTU.
## Footnote
This is important for hydraulic system functionality.
116
From where can the EVAC COMMAND be signaled with the switch in the CAPT & PURS position?
The cockpit and at each cabin door.
## Footnote
This ensures effective communication during emergencies.
117
What information is shown on the ADIRU CDU display window when the display SYS selector knob is selected to 1?
Aircraft heading in relation to magnetic north as determined by IR 1.
## Footnote
This is crucial for navigation.
118
What happens when the parking brake is set to on?
Autobrake can be armed.
## Footnote
This is part of the aircraft's braking system.
119
What must happen when engine anti-ice is selected on?
Continuous ignition is selected on automatically when the anti-ice valve is open.
## Footnote
This is important for engine safety.
120
Why is a 2% additional space provided in each fuel tank?
For fuel expansion without spillage into the vent surge tank.
## Footnote
This helps maintain fuel system integrity.
121
How are wing anti-ice shutoff valves controlled?
By 2 wing anti-ice Pbs.
## Footnote
This is essential for managing ice accumulation.
122
How many turns are necessary to extend the landing gear by gravity using the handcrank?
Three turns clockwise.
## Footnote
This is a manual operation for emergency scenarios.
123
Is autobrake activated if max braking is selected and ground spoilers are not armed?
No, because spoilers will not deploy if not armed.
## Footnote
This is important for understanding braking dynamics.
124
What is the EGT limit at TOGA power setting?
950 deg.c.
## Footnote
This is crucial for engine performance monitoring.
125
What does the yellow system include in operation?
One engine driven pump, one hand pump and the RAT.
## Footnote
This system is vital for hydraulic operations.
126
Following a dual engine generator failure, what is available?
FMGC 1 only is available (Nav. function only).
## Footnote
This impacts navigation capabilities.
127
At takeoff, what happens as soon as the power is set (flex or toga)?
A/THR function is armed but not active.
## Footnote
This indicates readiness for thrust management.
128
What is the function of the emergency generator following a dual engine generator failure?
Supplies the aircraft
## Footnote
The emergency generator provides power to essential systems when both main generators fail.
129
What happens to the A/THR function at takeoff as soon as the power is set?
A/THR function is armed but not active
## Footnote
The autothrottle function is prepared to engage but does not actively control thrust until further conditions are met.
130
In normal operation, RMP 1 is dedicated to which systems?
VHF 1 and HF 1
## Footnote
RMP (Radio Management Panel) 1 typically handles communications for these specific radio frequencies.
131
If ELAC 1 and 2 are inoperative, how is roll control provided?
Ailerons only through the SECs
## Footnote
SECs (Spoiler Electronic Controls) help manage aileron movement when ELACs (Elevator Aileron Computers) are not functioning.
132
What does the engine 1 pump fault light indicate in flight?
Reservoir low oil pressure, overheat, low pressure, or pump low pressure
## Footnote
The amber light signals potential issues with the engine pump, requiring immediate attention.
133
What must be done to extend the landing gear if the green hydraulic system is lost?
The landing gear must be extended by gravity
## Footnote
In the absence of hydraulic pressure, gravity extension is a fail-safe method to deploy landing gear.
134
In Rose VOR mode, what happens in the event of VOR receiver failure?
The VOR flag flashes red for nine seconds then disappears
## Footnote
This indicates a loss of VOR signal and alerts the crew to the issue.
135
Which AP/FD lateral modes are managed?
NAV, APPR, LOC, RWY, RWY TRK, GA TRK
## Footnote
These modes assist in lateral navigation and approach management.
136
What does a half boxed amber fuel quantity on the upper ECAM indicate?
The quantity shown is not fully usable (intercell valve failure or loss of center tank pumps)
## Footnote
This indicates a discrepancy in usable fuel due to system faults.
137
What does the IDG regulate in a generator?
Speed
## Footnote
The Integrated Drive Generator (IDG) maintains the correct speed for electrical generation.
138
How can a thermal discharge of the APU fire bottle be detected without electrical power?
By the red disc indicator on the outside of the rear fuselage
## Footnote
This visual indicator signals a thermal discharge even when electrical systems are offline.
139
What occurs when the rain repellent push-button is pressed?
The timer applies a measured quantity of rain repellent to the selected windshield
## Footnote
This system ensures optimal visibility during rain by applying repellent as needed.
140
What is the maximum tyre speed?
195 kts
## Footnote
Exceeding this speed can lead to tyre failure and safety hazards.
141
In normal operation, how is a modification made on MCDU 1 sent to MCDU 2?
Via FMGC 1 and FMGC 2
## Footnote
The Flight Management and Guidance Computer (FMGC) facilitates communication between the two MCDUs.
142
How can a navaid tuned through the STBY NAV on RMP 1 or 2 be identified?
You cannot identify navaids tuned through STBY NAV
## Footnote
This limitation affects situational awareness and navigation reliability.
143
When is the rain repellent system inhibited?
When both engines are shut down and the aircraft is on the ground
## Footnote
This safety measure prevents unnecessary activation of the system when not needed.
144
What happens in the event of no ADF 1 reception with ADF 1 selected on ND?
The bearing pointer goes out of view and ADF flag is displayed
## Footnote
This indicates the loss of ADF signal, prompting pilot awareness and action.
145
Do FACs compute Vls, G Dot, F & S speeds?
Yes
## Footnote
The Flight Augmentation Computers (FACs) provide critical speed data based on flap position.
146
To preset a heading of 233 degrees, what should the pilot do?
Turn Hdg. knob, set 233 deg., pull Hdg. knob when ATC clears to turn to 233 deg
## Footnote
Proper procedure ensures accurate navigation and compliance with ATC instructions.
147
What does a green arc on one wheel indicator on the ECAM signify?
The brake temperature is above 100 deg.C
## Footnote
Monitoring brake temperature is essential for safety during landing and taxi operations.
148
With AP 1 and AP 2 not engaged, what is the control setup with FD 1 and FD 2 engaged?
FMGC 1 controls both engines
## Footnote
This configuration allows for continued control of the aircraft without autopilot engagement.
149
What does the mode selector push-button control?
Center tank and wing tank pumps
## Footnote
This functionality is crucial for fuel management and distribution.
150
What does REV green indicate on the N1 indicator?
The reverse doors are fully deployed
## Footnote
This visual cue confirms the activation of reverse thrust for landing.
151
Is alternate braking using the yellow system still available without anti-skid?
Still available provided yellow system hydraulic pressure is available
## Footnote
Alternate braking systems ensure continued operation under various conditions.
152
If only the hydraulic green system is remaining, what is the status of the horizontal stabilizer?
Available
## Footnote
This highlights the redundancy in control systems for maintaining aircraft stability.
153
When does the DISCH light on the AGENT PB illuminate amber?
When the agent has fully discharged
## Footnote
This alert is critical for the crew to assess fire suppression capabilities.
154
What is the mandatory parameter used by the Alpha Floor detection?
A/C minimum speed
## Footnote
Alpha Floor is a safety feature that prevents stalling by automatically adjusting thrust.
155
In cruise, how are lateral AP orders executed?
Ailerons and rudder
## Footnote
This coordination ensures effective lateral control during flight.
156
When do FD bars NOT flash?
When deviation exceeds 1 dot above 100’ on glideslope
## Footnote
Continuous monitoring of flight director indications is essential for maintaining proper approach.
157
What is the maximum fuel imbalance for inner tanks with the heavier tank full?
1500 kg
## Footnote
This limit is crucial for maintaining aircraft stability and performance.
158
Where is high pressure air supplied from?
Engine 1 and 2 bleed systems, APU load compressor, and HP ground connection
## Footnote
This supply is vital for various pneumatic systems on the aircraft.
159
What is the maximum N1?
105%
## Footnote
Exceeding this limit can result in engine damage or failure.
160
How many emergency exits are there on an A320?
4
## Footnote
This number is designed to ensure passenger safety during emergencies.
161
What is the maximum N2?
100%
## Footnote
This limit is critical for engine performance and safety.
162
When alternate law is active, what protections are lost?
High speed and high angle of attack protections are lost
## Footnote
This indicates a shift in the aircraft's handling characteristics under alternate law.
163
Is the bulk cargo door a plug type door?
TRUE
## Footnote
Plug type doors are designed to enhance safety and efficiency during operation.
164
Where are the transfer valves located?
On the sealed rib of each wing tank (i.e. between each inner and outer cell)
## Footnote
Their location is critical for fuel management and transfer.
165
What do AC Bus tie contactors enable?
To be supplied by any generator or external power
## Footnote
This ensures flexibility and reliability in the electrical system.
166
When the thrust levers are in the climb gate, what happens when A/Thr disengages?
The engines thrust is frozen at the existing thrust
## Footnote
This prevents unintended thrust changes during critical phases of flight.
167
What happens when the passenger entry doors are opened in an emergency?
Are pneumatically assisted into the open position
## Footnote
This feature enhances the speed and efficiency of evacuation.
168
Is each passenger door equipped with a mechanical locking indicator?
TRUE
## Footnote
This ensures crew awareness of door status for safety.
169
What occurs when the center tank is empty in auto mode?
Stop automatically 5 mins. after low level is reached in the center tank
## Footnote
This prevents unnecessary fuel pump operation and conserves energy.
170
When will the transfer valves close again if open?
When the cell is empty
## Footnote
This automatic closure is essential for maintaining fuel system integrity.
171
During an ILS approach, if one engine fails below 100 ft. RA, will this cause a landing capability downgrade?
No, a downgrade will not occur and you may continue to land
## Footnote
This indicates the robustness of the aircraft's landing capabilities in emergencies.
172
Brake pressure from the hydraulic accumulator is only available in which mode?
In Alternate (without anti-skid)
## Footnote
This highlights the importance of redundancy in braking systems.
173
Can the wipers operate at different speeds?
Yes, low speed and high speed
## Footnote
This feature allows for adaptability to varying weather conditions.
174
In case of reservoir overheat, how long do the fault lights of the faulty system stay on?
Continuously
## Footnote
Continuous illumination alerts the crew to ongoing issues that require attention.
175
What happens to the IDG cooling fuel when the wing tank is full?
The system selects center tank pumps off, wing tank pumps feed approx. 500 kg., & the center tank pumps run again
## Footnote
This process ensures efficient cooling of the IDG while managing fuel levels.
176
In case of single hydraulic system low pressure, what occurs?
The master caution light illuminates and the single chime sounds
## Footnote
This alert system is crucial for pilot awareness of hydraulic system status.
177
Reduced thrust is not permitted under which conditions?
On a contaminated runway or with one or more reverser inop
## Footnote
These restrictions are critical for maintaining safety during takeoff and landing.
178
What does the green system operate?
Spoilers 1 & 5, Spoiler 3, The standby generator, Spoilers 2 & 4.
179
What does the LVR MCT flashing white message indicate?
Thrust Levers are not in MCT position after engine failure when speed is greater than green dot.
180
How is lift augmentation achieved on each wing?
2 flap surfaces and 5 slat surfaces.
181
What does it mean when the align light flashes?
IR alignment fault, or no present position entry after 10 mins or difference between position at shut down and entered position exceeds 1 deg. of lat. or long.
182
What happens following a manual position updating of the FMGC?
It is also necessary to realign the ADIRs at the new position (full align).
183
What do air data modules (ADM) supply pressure information to?
All pitot probes and static ports.
184
What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch?
16 Quarts from Irish stations or 14 Quarts from outstations.
185
How many escape ropes are fitted in the cockpit?
2 escape ropes - each must be used through the associated window.
186
What controls nose wheel steering?
BSCU.
187
How many DMCs can ADIRU 3 supply information to?
DMC 1, DMC 2 and DMC 3.
188
When does LVR CLB flash white on the FMA?
If the throttles are not in the climb position when the a/c is above the altitude of thrust reduction.
189
In manual mode, what happens when the thrust levers are between the climb detent and idle?
Each position of the levers correspond to an N1.
190
In case of total electrical loss, the AC Ess bus is supplied by:
Emer Gen.
191
How do you cancel the ON VOICE green light?
By depressing the on voice p/b.
192
What happens when the wing anti-ice p/b is set to ON on the ground?
The wing anti-ice control valves open for 30 seconds as a test sequence.
193
During an automatic starting sequence, when do the pack valves close?
Start valve closes at N2 > 45%.
194
What is the maximum continuous oil temperature?
140 deg.c.
195
Are the engines still supplied in case of fuel filter clog?
Yes, bypassing the fuel filter. (Crew awareness only).
196
When do the fasten seat belt, no smoking and exit signs illuminate?
When the appropriate switches are either on or off and/or excessive cabin altitude is detected.
197
If blue system is lost, what happens to the flaps?
Lost.
198
When will auto thrust re-engage after being disengaged?
As soon as the thrust levers position is changed.
199
In ground spoiler function, what happens?
All spoilers deploy.
200
When does the flight mode change to flare mode for landing?
When the aircraft passes 50’ RA.
201
What happens when CAPT 3 is selected on AUDIO SWITCHING panel?
The Captain uses his acoustic equipment and the third occupant’s ACP.
202
What occurs if the angle of attack is greater than alpha prot?
Angle of attack reduces to alpha prot.
203
Does each passenger door have a warning light for ARMED or DISARMED indication?
TRUE.
204
On the ground, when is the engagement of the autothrust function performed?
Is performed automatically at the engagement of the take-off modes.
205
Which surfaces are used as ground spoilers for lift dumping?
All spoilers.
206
How can the RAT be extended?
Both Automatically in case of loss of power to Ac bus 1 & Ac bus 2 and Manually from the O/head panel.
207
If AC bus 1 fails, how is the AC Ess bus supplied?
AC Bus 2.
208
What is displayed when electrical power is initially supplied to the aircraft?
A/C status page (for database validity check).
209
What happens if the NAV key on the RMP 2 is pressed to select STBY NAV?
Selection of the NAV key does not affect the selection of communication radios and their frequencies.
210
How many avionic compartment access doors are there?
3.
211
When does the fire shut off valve close?
Automatically if a fire is detected.
212
Below what bank angle will the selected bank angle be maintained with the stick neutral?
33 deg.
213
How is the flight director engaged?
By pressing the FD P/b on the FCU.
214
Where are the engine fire detectors located?
On the pylon nacelle, the engine core and the fan section.
215
What wheel steering angle do the hand wheels in the cockpit provide?
70 deg.
216
Which ADIRS close the safety valve of the green hydraulic supply when speed is > 260 kts?
ADIRS 1 & 3.
217
Where are the EVAC command switches located on the A320?
All cabin crew stations and cockpit overhead panel.
218
In normal operation, what is the state of the crossfeed valve?
Closed for take off.
219
Can you reconnect the IDG in flight?
No.
220
What does it mean when the ADR fault light illuminates steady on the ADIRS CDU?
A fault is detected in air data reference.
221
Which computer processes the red warnings?
FWC.
222
What happens at landing as the aircraft descends through 30’?
The attitude is set as an initial reference for pitch attitude control.
223
What causes the messages 'Select offside range/mode' & 'Map not available' to appear on the co-pilot side ND?
Single FMGC operation and the two EFIS control panels are not set at the same range and mode.
224
What does the low pressure rotor (N1) consist of?
A front fan - 5 stage booster - 5 stage Lp turbine.
225
In flight, in case of loss of all main generators, what does the static inverter supply?
A/C Ess bus and Engine Ignition A.
226
If one main generator fails in flight, what happens to the galley load?
Part of the galley load is automatically shed.
227
What is the power transfer unit?
Reversible between green and yellow.
228
What is the Max speed with landing gear extended (VLE)?
280 kts. / M.67.
229
In manual thrust, what is the N1 limit for cruise?
Displayed max climb N1, minus 2.4 %.
230
What are the braking modes?
Green with anti skid, Yellow without anti skid, Parking brake.
231
What does the electrical power system consist of?
A three phase 115/200 volt 400 hertz constant frequency AC system and a 28DC system.
232
When is the engagement of both autopilots possible?
When A/C is stabilized at G/S interception altitude.
233
Can a VOR tuned on RMP 1 using the STBY NAV function be seen?
The question is incomplete.
234
What is the voltage of a 28 volt DC system?
28 volt DC system
## Footnote
Refers to a specific electrical system used in aviation.
235
What is the voltage and frequency of a three-phase system mentioned?
180/220 volt, 400 hertz
## Footnote
This is a constant frequency system commonly used in aircraft.
236
When can both autopilots be engaged?
As soon as the Loc. has been intercepted
## Footnote
Indicates the conditions for autopilot engagement.
237
What must happen for the autopilot engagement light to illuminate?
After appr. Pb. switch is pressed and illuminates
## Footnote
Indicates the sequence for autopilot activation.
238
What does 'Land' illuminating in green on the FMA signify?
Autopilot can be engaged
## Footnote
Indicates readiness for landing phase.
239
What is the function of a VOR tuned on RMP 1 with STBY NAV?
Information on RAD NAV page is not available when the NAV pb on RMP is pressed
## Footnote
Indicates the limitations of the navigation system.
240
How is the FADEC electrically supplied?
Batteries if A/C electrical power fails
## Footnote
FADEC stands for Full Authority Digital Engine Control.
241
What happens to the FADEC when aircraft electrical power fails?
Self powered above 15% N2
## Footnote
Ensures continued operation under specific conditions.
242
What is the flight control law with Hydraulic G+Y failure?
Alternate, after landing gear extension
## Footnote
Indicates operational modes during hydraulic failures.
243
Do all flight lock actuators remain engaged during landing roll?
False - they disengage
## Footnote
Indicates the behavior of flight lock actuators during landing.
244
What is the purpose of the pressure relief sequence valves?
They act as overpressure protectors in the center tank
## Footnote
Protects the fuel system from pressure issues.
245
If the green system is lost, what happens to slat operation?
Inhibited
## Footnote
Indicates the impact of hydraulic loss on slats.
246
What happens when the APU fire PB is released?
The APU generator is deactivated
## Footnote
Indicates the outcome of APU fire control actions.
247
What triggers the PTU to run automatically?
When differential pressure between green and yellow systems is more than 500 psi
## Footnote
Indicates the condition for PTU operation.
248
What is the principle of the anti-skid system?
Comparing wheel speed with aircraft reference speed
## Footnote
Ensures optimal braking performance.
249
Is the engine still supplied in case of fuel filter clog?
Yes, by bypassing the fuel filter (by-pass valve)
## Footnote
Indicates the engine's fuel supply mechanism.
250
Where are avionics compartment access doors situated?
Lower fuselage main landing gear bay
## Footnote
Indicates the location for maintenance access.
251
What does the ON/OFF switch on the RMP control?
Power supply to the RMP
## Footnote
Indicates the function of the RMP switch.
252
Can hydraulic fluid be interchanged between green and yellow systems?
No
## Footnote
Indicates the limitations of hydraulic fluid systems.
253
What does the landing gear indicator panel receive information from?
Both LGCIU 1 and LGCIU 2
## Footnote
Indicates the sources of landing gear status information.
254
Is anti-skid available after failure of all 3 ADIRS?
No
## Footnote
Indicates the dependency of anti-skid on ADIRS functionality.
255
When is slat retraction from 1 to 0 inhibited on the A320?
Angle of attack > 8.60 or speed < 148
## Footnote
Safety measures to prevent stalling.
256
What normally supplies the AC essential bus?
AC Bus 1
## Footnote
Indicates the primary power source for essential systems.
257
What happens when an engine anti-ice valve is open?
N1 limit is automatically reduced and the idle N1 is automatically increased
## Footnote
Adjusts engine parameters for anti-ice operation.
258
How can the CVR be tested before engine start?
Pressing the CVR GND CTL p/b ON and pressing the CVR TEST p/b with the parking brake set
## Footnote
Procedure for pre-flight checks.
259
What powers the yellow hydraulic system?
Eng. 2 Hyd. pump, the yellow electric pump, or the PTU
## Footnote
Indicates multiple sources for hydraulic power.
260
How many cells are in each wing tank on an A320, excluding the Surge/Vent tank?
Five
## Footnote
Indicates the fuel storage configuration.
261
What is the speed limitation for use of windshield wipers?
230 kts
## Footnote
Safety regulation for windshield operations.
262
When do the overhead emergency lights illuminate?
AC bus 1 or DC essential shed bus fails or normal aircraft electrical power fails
## Footnote
Indicates emergency response conditions.
263
What does the ON light indicate on the wing anti-ice P/B?
When the anti-ice valves open
## Footnote
Indicates operational status of anti-ice systems.
264
What does the green diamond on the PFD heading scale represent?
The aircraft's present heading
## Footnote
Provides critical navigation information.
265
What does the FCU allow?
Selection of flight guidance functions / modes
## Footnote
Indicates control over flight parameters.
266
What does the test PB on the engine fire panel verify?
The operation of both the fire detection and extinguishing systems
## Footnote
Ensures readiness of fire safety systems.
267
How are hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?
From the pneumatic system
## Footnote
Indicates the source of hydraulic pressure.
268
If the green system is lost, what happens to flap operation?
Slow
## Footnote
Indicates reduced performance during hydraulic failure.
269
What is the situation when Managed Guidance - Manual Control - Selected Speed is described?
FMGC computes and sends steering orders for navigation purpose, the pilot flies through the side stick, speed is adjusted in the FCU window
## Footnote
Describes the interaction between automation and manual control.
270
How long does a normal IR alignment take?
Approximately 5 minutes
## Footnote
Indicates the standard procedure duration.
271
What happens if the upper ECAM display is lost?
The E/WD automatically transfers to the lower ECAM display
## Footnote
Indicates redundancy in display systems.
272
What does the evacuation command button at the attendant panel do?
Can be used to activate the EVAC ALERT only if the cockpit switch is at the CAPT & PURS position
## Footnote
Indicates conditions for emergency alert activation.
273
What occurs if a TR fails?
The other TR automatically replaces the faulty one & the Ess TR supplies the DC Ess Bus
## Footnote
Ensures continued power supply during failures.
274
What can supply the DC Bat bus?
DC Bus 1 or batteries
## Footnote
Indicates the power sources for the battery bus.
275
What do the call buttons on the cockpit overhead panel allow?
The captain to call all attendant stations at the same time, or individually
## Footnote
Indicates communication capabilities within the aircraft.
276
How is the oil cooled?
By the engine fuel/oil heat exchanger and the servo fuel heater
## Footnote
Describes the oil cooling system mechanics.
277
What happens with the braking system if the green hydraulic system is lost?
Alternate
## Footnote
Indicates a backup mode for braking operations.
278
Are wing tank pumps running while the center tank is supplying fuel?
No, because of center tank pump priority
## Footnote
Indicates fuel management priority.
279
Which of the following will NOT cause the autopilot to disengage?
Deflection of NWS tiller
## Footnote
Indicates autopilot stability against specific inputs.
280
What temperature does the precooler regulate at?
950 deg.c.
## Footnote
Indicates the operational limits of temperature regulation.
281
What happens when the RAT is automatically extended?
The blue hydraulic system is pressurized and the emergency gen runs
## Footnote
Indicates emergency power restoration procedures.
282
What is the function of the RESET p/b on the ACP?
To extinguish the CALL, MECH or ATT amber lights if illuminated
## Footnote
Indicates the operational reset function.
283
After lift-off, is the brakes hot warning on ECAM still available?
Yes, gear down or up
## Footnote
Indicates the availability of warnings during flight.
284
What controls the Lp valves to the off position?
Engine master switches and fire push buttons
## Footnote
Indicates emergency control mechanisms.
285
Which selection must be made to communicate with the ground mechanic at the engine nacelle interphone jack?
MECH transmission key pressed, INT reception knob released out, use RAD position on ACP
## Footnote
Indicates the correct communication setup.
286
What is the maximum speed for landing gear retraction?
250 kts
## Footnote
Regulatory limitation for safe aircraft operation.
287
With green and yellow hydraulic systems lost, what happens to manual pitch trim?
Lost
## Footnote
Indicates the impact of hydraulic failures on control systems.
288
Can the cabin interphone system be used in flight?
Yes - to communicate with the cabin crew
## Footnote
Indicates the functionality of interphone systems during flight.
289
How is cranking manually selected?
With the master switch to on the mode selector to crank and the man start PB to on
## Footnote
Indicates the procedure for manual engine starting.
290
How is the extinguishing system controlled?
By the crew using the AGENT PBs on the overhead panel
## Footnote
Indicates manual control for fire suppression systems.
291
When does the oil pressure indicator become red?
When pressure is lower than 13 psi
## Footnote
Indicates critical engine health status.
292
What is the maximum reverse thrust usable down to?
70 kts (idle reverse down to A/C stop)
## Footnote
Indicates operational limits for reverse thrust.
293
When is the fuel used indication automatically reset?
When the engine is shut down at the end of the flight
## Footnote
Indicates fuel management practices.
294
When is the CVR energized?
On the ground during first 5 minutes after energization of the aircraft electrical network or with one engine running
## Footnote
Indicates operational protocols for cockpit voice recorders.
295
How is an APU fire on the ground normally extinguished?
Automatically
## Footnote
Indicates the automatic fire suppression systems in place.
296
When does the amber fault light illuminate on the Tank pump Pb?
When the delivery fuel pressure drops
## Footnote
Indicates a warning system for fuel delivery issues.
297
What happens to the fuel remaining in the surge tank?
Scavenged into the adjacent cell, which is the Center tank
## Footnote
Indicates the fuel management process.
298
What occurs if the left main landing gear shock absorber is stuck in the compressed position after T/O?
The gear cannot be retracted, gear lever is blocked (interlock mechanism)
## Footnote
Safety feature to prevent gear retraction under unsafe conditions.
299
What does switching to ALTN do for the AC Ess Feed p/b?
Causes the AC Ess Bus to be supplied from AC bus 2
## Footnote
Indicates the backup power supply mechanisms.
300
What happens when the gear lever is blocked?
The gear cannot be retracted due to the interlock mechanism.
## Footnote
The gear can be retracted once the nose wheel steering is centered.
301
When switched to ALTN, what does the AC Ess Feed p/b cause?
Supplied from AC bus 2.
## Footnote
Other options include supplied from DC bus 1, DC bus 2, and AC bus 1.
302
Which systems do the fire shut off valves shut off?
The blue and yellow systems.
## Footnote
Other options include yellow and green systems, only blue system, and green and blue systems.
303
When the No.1 engine fire PB is released, which valves close?
No.1 LP fuel valve, hydraulic fire valve, engine bleed valve, and pack flow control valve.
## Footnote
Other options include no.1 HP fuel valve and fuel crossfeed valve.
304
To check battery voltage, the Bat Pb must be set to:
On position.
## Footnote
Other options include Off position, Auto position, and Norm position.
305
In which case are AP/FD, ATS and Landing capacities totally lost?
2 IRS’s failure or 2 ADR’s failure.
## Footnote
Other options include 2 ILS’s failure, both FAC’s failure, and 2 RA’s failure.
306
The AFS computers are:
FMGC and SEC.
## Footnote
Other options include FMGC and ELAC, FMGC and FAC, and ELAC and SEC.
307
In flight on batteries only, are the AC Ess Shed bus and DC Ess Shed bus lost?
Yes.
## Footnote
Other options include No, only D/C Ess Shed Bus is lost, only A/C Ess Shed Bus is lost.
308
On the Wheel page of ECAM, if Autobrake is flashing green, what does it indicate?
Autobrake is disengaged.
## Footnote
Other options include Anti-skid failure, Autobrake in operation, and Autobrake failure.
309
What does the ASYM amber message (FMA) indicate?
Asymmetric power is established due to TLA resolver fault.
## Footnote
Other options include asymmetric power due to fadec malfunction, one engine has failed, and thrust lever set out of climb detent.
310
What do FACs calculate?
Speed trend and Vls.
## Footnote
The extremities of the trend vector and Vls segment indicate speed value at the next 10 seconds and 1.23 Vs 1g with present setting.
311
Which slats are protected by hot air supplied from the pneumatic system?
Slats 1, 2, 4.
## Footnote
Other options include the three outboard leading edge slats 3, 4, 5, only slat 1, and slats 2, 3, 4.
312
How is window heating regulated?
By two independent Window Heat Computers (WHC), one for each side.
## Footnote
Other options include window heat is not regulated, one WHC as master, and manually by the flight crew.
313
If the instinctive disconnect pushbutton is pressed for more than 15 seconds, what happens to A/thr?
Lost.
## Footnote
Other options include Active, Available, and Armed.
314
Can you read amber annunciations on FMA part of your PFD?
Yes.
## Footnote
Other options include No, only on Nav. display, and only on EWD.
315
In which case does A/thr not disengage?
When the aural warning announces ‘Retard’.
## Footnote
Other options include pressing the A/thr pushbutton on the FCU, pressing the instinctive disconnect button, and when thrust levers are at idle position.
316
On the ground, when is the blue system pressurized?
When one engine is running.
## Footnote
Other options include Ext. power is on, Ext. power is available, and The APU is running.
317
For yaw damping and trim, rudder control is:
Electrical.
## Footnote
Other options include pneumatic, mechanical, and hydraulic.
318
The electric standby horizon normally draws current from:
The DC ESS BUS. In case of total electrical failure, the horizon remains unusable for 5 minutes.
## Footnote
Other options include the AC ESS BUS or different time limits.
319
When the hand wheel and pedals are operated simultaneously, which has priority?
Hand wheel has priority.
## Footnote
Other options include BSCU transforms orders into nose wheel steering angle, hand wheel input is not affected by pedals, and pedals have priority.
320
The Nose wheel steering is powered by:
The Green hydraulic system.
## Footnote
Other options include an Electric actuator, Blue hydraulic system, and Yellow hydraulic system.
321
R.A. gives height on PFD at:
At the bottom of the attitude sphere, and on the altitude scale (red ribbon).
## Footnote
Other options include top of the attitude sphere.
322
In autothrust mode, the thrust computed by the FMGC is limited to:
To the value corresponding to the thrust lever position, unless the alphafloor mode is activated.
## Footnote
Other options include TOGA detent and FMGC itself.
323
If RMP 1 fails, what should be done?
Switch off RMP 1 and use remaining RMPs.
## Footnote
Other options include STBY NAV function is not available and HF is not available.
324
Which signals cause rudder pedal movement?
Rudder trim and yaw damping.
## Footnote
Other options include rudder trim only and turn co-ordination.
325
If a slide fails to inflate automatically, what must be done?
It must be inflated by manual activation or used as a manually held escape slide.
## Footnote
Other options include it cannot be inflated and it must be considered inoperative.
326
The window heat computer provides two power levels for the windshield:
High power in icing conditions, low power in other conditions.
## Footnote
Other options include high power in flight and low power on the ground.
327
PTU running delivers pressure that is:
Stable at normal system pressure (3,000 psi).
## Footnote
Other options include stable at 2,500 psi and fluctuating between 2,500 and 3,000 psi.
328
What is the purpose of the RMPs?
Give the flight crew control of all VHF and HF radio communication systems, and to provide back up to the FMGCs for controlling radio navigation systems.
## Footnote
Other options include providing radio navigation systems only and automatically tuning navaids.
329
With hydraulic blue system only remaining, how many full brake applications are available?
Seven full brake applications are available.
## Footnote
Other options include anti skid is still available and autobrake and antiskid are still available.
330
The rain repellent bottle should be replaced:
When the pressure indicator needle is in the yellow sector or when the refill float is in view.
## Footnote
Other options include every 28 days and after each flight.
331
After an automatic retraction of the flaps, what happens?
Flaps do not automatically re-extend.
## Footnote
Other options include flaps automatically re-extend when speed decreases.
332
With the Blower and Extract P/Bs in OVERRIDE, where does the avionics ventilation system get air from?
Ventilation inlet valve.
## Footnote
Other options include skin heat exchange bypass valve and air conditioning inlet valve.
333
For aircraft position determination, FMGC uses data from:
DME, VOR, GPS or ILS systems and 3 ADIRS.
## Footnote
Other options include GPS only.
334
When the ATT HDG and AIR DATA selectors are at NORM, what does it mean?
ADIRU 1 supplies data to PFD 1, ND 1 and RMI / VOR DME. ADIRU 2 supplies data to PFD 2, ND 2.
## Footnote
Other options include different configurations of data supply.
335
How many cockpit emergency exits are there?
2.
## Footnote
Other options include 3 and 4.
336
The brakes are actuated by two independent systems, pressurized by the:
Yellow and Green hydraulic systems.
## Footnote
Other options include blue and yellow hydraulic systems.
337
With engines and APU running and APU bleed valve selected on, what happens?
Engine bleed valves close, X bleed valve closes, APU bleed valve opens.
## Footnote
Other options include different states of valve openings.
338
Which type of motor controls the fuel X-feed?
Single.
## Footnote
Other options include double, hydraulic motor, and pneumatic motor.
339
The Bat fault light illuminates when:
Battery voltage < 25v.
## Footnote
Other options include charging current is low and charging current increases at an abnormal rate.
340
What does a fault light under the ‘RAT and Emer.Gen.’ label indicate?
Emergency generator is not supplying when AC Bus 1 and 2 are not powered.
## Footnote
Other options include RAT is not extended.
341
How many pumps are there in the wing or center tanks?
Two fuel pumps in each tank.
## Footnote
Other options include one fuel pump in each tank.
342
What happens during the emergency gen. test?
The blue system is pressurized and the emergency generator comes on line.
## Footnote
Other options include different systems being pressurized.
343
Is gravity feeding from center tank possible?
Yes, but only when wing tanks are empty.
## Footnote
Other options include yes, but only when wing tanks are full.
344
When auto brake operates, it can be disarmed by:
Pressing the push button or losing an arming condition, or by depressing one pedal enough when auto brake is operating in MAX, MED or LO.
## Footnote
Other options include decelerating below 72 kts.
345
The SQUIB light on the AGENT PB illuminates white when:
The agent has fully discharged.
## Footnote
Other options include a fire or overheat is detected.
346
What happens when the DISCH P/B on the CARGO SMOKE panel is pressed?
The agent is discharged into the corresponding cargo compartment and the amber DISCH light illuminates when the bottle has discharged.
## Footnote
Other options include agent no.1 is discharged into the forward compartment.
347
The thrust rating limit is computed by:
The FADEC (ECU) according to the thrust lever position.
## Footnote
Other options include the FMGC according to the ECU order.
348
In case of blue electric pump failure, what happens when the RAT man on P/b is pressed?
The blue hydraulic system is pressurized by the RAT.
## Footnote
Other options include the emergency generator running.
349
What is supplied to the mask with the regulator set at the 100% position?
Pure oxygen at all cabin altitudes, on demand
## Footnote
This ensures that passengers receive the necessary oxygen supply during emergencies.
350
During an approach, what causes the master warning and ECAM 'Gear not down'?
L/g not down locked and flaps 3 or full and both rad alts failed, or L/g not down locked, flaps at 3 and radio height lower than 750 ft
## Footnote
This indicates a potential landing gear issue that needs immediate attention.
351
Can you operate a cargo door when no electrical power is available?
Yes, using the hand pump.
## Footnote
Hand pumps allow for manual operation of cargo doors in emergencies.
352
In normal mode, what does the damper actuator do?
Limits the door travel.
## Footnote
In emergency mode, it drives the automatic door opening.
353
When does the static inverter work?
When A/C speed is > 50kts and on batteries only.
## Footnote
This is crucial for maintaining electrical power during specific flight conditions.
354
What does roll normal law combine control of?
Ailerons, spoilers 2-5 and rudder in the sidestick.
## Footnote
This ensures coordinated control during flight maneuvers.
355
With autopilot engaged, what controls the rudder?
The SEC.
## Footnote
The SEC (Spoiler Elevator Computer) manages rudder inputs for stability.
356
After take-off in CONF 1, what happens if the pilot does not select configuration 0?
Flaps and slats automatically retract at 210kts.
## Footnote
This automatic retraction is part of the aircraft's safety features.
357
What happens when the cargo smoke test P/B is pressed?
The smoke detector lights are tested, the red smoke lights illuminate twice, the ECAM warning is displayed, the aft isolation valve closes, and the amber DISCH lights illuminate.
## Footnote
This process ensures that the smoke detection system is functioning properly.
358
Which source controls the X bleed valve?
Pneumatic.
## Footnote
The X bleed valve is critical for managing air pressure in the aircraft systems.
359
What must you do to select MCT after a flex take off with an engine failure?
You must disconnect the ATHR and the A/P.
## Footnote
This is necessary to manually control thrust after an engine failure.
360
If the yellow system is lost, what happens to the flaps?
Slow.
## Footnote
The yellow system typically provides hydraulic power for flap operation.
361
How can the CVR recording be erased?
Pressing the CVR ERASE p/b for 2 seconds when aircraft is on the ground and the parking brake is on.
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to manage sensitive data.
362
What happens when the EVAC COMD is pressed at the Forward Attendant Panel with the switch set to CAPT only?
EVAC signal will sound in cabin and cockpit.
## Footnote
This alerts both crew and passengers in case of an emergency.
363
What happens when the FAC detects a too high angle of attack in normal law?
Alpha floor function operates.
## Footnote
This is a protective measure against stalls.
364
During an ILS approach, when will the NAV mode be deactivated?
At Glide slope capture.
## Footnote
This is critical for managing the aircraft's descent path.
365
When will oxygen masks drop out in the cabin if cabin altitude exceeds 14,000ft?
When an electrical latching mechanism opens automatically or when the cabin crew press the appropriate button on the CIDS panel.
## Footnote
This ensures passenger safety at high altitudes.
366
What is the function of the two electric motors provided for the crossbleed valve?
One for on ground operation, the other for in flight operation.
## Footnote
This allows for flexible operation of the crossbleed system.
367
What happens when the wiper is turned off?
The wiper stops out of view.
## Footnote
This is to ensure that the wiper does not obstruct the pilot's view.
368
In alternate law, when does the change to direct law occur?
Landing gear down.
## Footnote
This is crucial for controlling the aircraft during landing.
369
Can you display FD bars and FPV at the same time on different PFDs?
No, the FD presentation on both PFDs will always be the same.
## Footnote
This standardization is important for pilot coordination.
370
What causes the altitude window to change from yellow to amber?
When A/C deviates from its selected altitude or selected flight level.
## Footnote
This alerts the crew to altitude deviations.
371
Pressing the engine fire Pb switch on the eng. fire panel causes the closure of?
Fuel Lp valve and Hp valve (due to LP valve closure).
## Footnote
This is essential for preventing fuel flow in case of a fire.
372
In the cabin fixed oxygen system, how long does oxygen supply last once a generator is activated?
15 minutes - oxygen is supplied to all masks attached to that generator.
## Footnote
This is a critical duration for emergency situations.
373
What does a dark MCDU CRT indicate when normal electrical power supplies the aircraft?
The FMGC has failed.
## Footnote
This is a serious issue requiring immediate troubleshooting.
374
When does window heat come on automatically?
When at least one engine is started or the aircraft is in flight.
## Footnote
This is important for maintaining visibility during flight.
375
What is the maximum N2 for starter engagement?
20%.
## Footnote
This is crucial for proper engine start procedures.
376
When does the amber fault light illuminate on 'mode sel.' Pb?
Center tank has more than 250 kg and any wing tank has less than 5,000 kg.
## Footnote
This indicates a fuel management issue.
377
How many fire detection loops are in the APU fire detection system?
Two.
## Footnote
This redundancy is critical for fire safety.
378
If you select VHF 2 on RMP 1, where does the white SEL light illuminate?
RMP 1 & RMP 2.
## Footnote
This indicates the selected radio frequency is active.
379
What system does the RAT pressurize when extended in flight?
The yellow system and the green system via the PTU.
## Footnote
This is essential for maintaining hydraulic power during emergencies.
380
In case of PFDU failure, how is the PFD image transferred to the NDU?
Automatically.
## Footnote
This ensures that critical flight information remains available.
381
Can you read optional data (wpt or vor.d or ndb) on rose vor or rose ils?
No, (Wpt info. only appears on rose nav mode or arc mode).
## Footnote
This limits the display options available to pilots.
382
How can the landing gear be extended?
Green system or mechanical gravity extension.
## Footnote
This provides redundancy in landing gear operation.
383
What indicates a thermal discharge of the crew oxygen bottle?
Red blow out disc missing.
## Footnote
This is a safety indicator for the oxygen system.
384
During take-off, what is the status of the center tank fuel?
Not supplied while slats are extended.
## Footnote
This is part of the fuel management system.
385
In the event of low air pressure, what happens to the engine anti-ice valve?
The engine anti-ice valve closes automatically.
## Footnote
This is crucial for engine performance and safety.
386
What device provides direct closure of the HP Shut Off Valve?
The ECU.
## Footnote
This is critical in controlling fuel flow to the engine.
387
How could you receive ATIS information from a VOR?
Pressing and releasing out the VOR reception knob and selecting the ON VOICE key on the ACP.
## Footnote
This allows for communication of vital airport information.
388
What happens when pressure and temperature are not sufficient to supply the corresponding engine bleed valve?
I P valve closed.
## Footnote
This is critical for maintaining engine performance.
389
Can you control the H P valve position through the air bleed cockpit panel?
No.
## Footnote
This indicates that HP valve control is managed through other systems.
390
What does setting the parking brake to on require?
Requires yellow hydraulic system or accumulator.
## Footnote
This ensures proper braking performance.
391
When the engine fire PB is released out, which systems are affected?
Fuel, hydraulics, electrics, air.
## Footnote
This is a critical safety measure in case of an engine fire.
392
The priority valves operate in case of?
High hydraulic pressure in the green system.
## Footnote
This ensures that critical systems receive hydraulic power.
393
What happens when SFCC1 fails?
Flaps are lost.
## Footnote
This impacts the aircraft's ability to configure for landing.
394
With the aircraft in flight, A/Thr not engaged, Thr levers on CLB detent, what happens when Alpha floor is detected?
A/Thr automatically engages and controls the engines with TOGA thrust.
## Footnote
This is a safety feature to prevent stalling.
395
The FADEC automatically selects continuous ignition in the following cases?
In flight automatic restart or engine flame out or EIU failure or engine anti-ice on.
## Footnote
This enhances engine reliability during critical situations.
396
With the CAPT & PURS/CAPT switch in the CAPT & PURS position, what can happen?
The evac alert may be activated from the cockpit and any cabin crew position.
## Footnote
This allows for coordinated emergency responses.
397
Normal hydraulic power is provided by?
Engine driven pumps for green and yellow, elec. pump for blue, elec pump for yellow.
## Footnote
This is essential for aircraft control and safety.
398
What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach?
Flaps are set at 3 and the landing gear is not down.
## Footnote
This serves as a warning to the crew.
399
Does the bulk cargo door open inwards and upwards?
TRUE
## Footnote
This design is important for cargo loading and unloading.
400
What happens when lavatory smoke warning is activated?
The smoke detection control unit (SDCU) sends a warning to ECAM and CIDS.
## Footnote
This alerts the crew to potential fire hazards.
401
With radar selected on, what can you read on ND about antenna setting?
Tilt angle.
## Footnote
This is necessary for effective radar operation.
402
Electrical heating is provided for the protection of?
Pitot heads, static ports, AOA probes and TAT probes.
## Footnote
This is critical for accurate airspeed and altitude measurements.
403
When does the landing gear indicator panel UNLK light illuminate red?
Gear is not locked in selected position.
## Footnote
This serves as a warning to the pilot.
404
Electrical heating is provided for the protection of:
pitot heads, static ports, AOA probes and TAT probes
## Footnote
AOA stands for Angle of Attack, TAT stands for Total Air Temperature.
405
The UNLK light on the landing gear indicator panel illuminates red if:
Gear is not locked in selected position.
406
Nose wheel steering is available when:
A/C speed below 70 kts, Both engs. (required to be) running, Towing lever normal position, A/C on ground.
407
What is the minimum starting oil temperature?
-40 deg.c.
408
If ELAC 1 and 2 have failed, pitch control is automatically transferred to:
SEC 3.
409
On the ramp with APU running, the park brake message on ECAM memo shows Park Brake:
In yellow (because of accumulator pressure).
410
In normal operation, ADIRU 1 supplies information to:
The Captains PFD and the First Officers ND.
411
Each ADIRU receives two analogue inputs; they are:
Angle of attack (AOA) and Total Air Temperature (TAT).
412
Engine 2 Hydraulic pump energizes:
The green system and the yellow system via the PTU should the yellow system pump fail.
413
In Rose ILS mode, the ND displays what ILS information:
Deviation bar, selected course, G/S and LOC scales.
414
Vls indication is inhibited:
Never.
415
Hydraulic pressure to the landing gear is supplied up to:
300 kts.
416
If FAC 1 and 2 have failed, rudder control is:
the rudder can still be controlled by the rudder pedals.
417
The hydraulic motors for the stabilizer are driven by:
one of three electric motors for auto trim and a mechanical trim wheel.
418
Window heat can be:
operates automatically after engine start or can be selected on manually before start with the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT PB.
419
On ground and before engine start, with blue pump auto and A/C power available, the blue pump is:
Automatically energised.
420
The agent pushbutton is active when:
the corresponding DISCH light is illuminated.
421
Pneumatic system operation is controlled and monitored by:
Two bleed monitoring computers.
422
The FAC computes rudder travel limit:
At any time.
423
The FADEC system is:
Self powered above 15 % N2 with A/C power when N2 is below 15 %.
424
Air conditioning smoke warning is activated if smoke is detected in:
air conditioning duct.
425
The green light flashes on the cockpit door keypad when:
An emergency request to enter the cockpit has been made, but no action has yet been taken by the flight crew.
426
When is the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) not available?
if blue hydraulic system has failed.
427
The yellow system operates:
Both reversers.
428
Nose wheel steering is available when:
All gear doors closed.
429
Climbs and descents are always limited by:
By flight plan (T/C) and (T/D) points.
430
What happens in case of total loss of main generators?
The Rat is automatically extended and powers the blue system which drives the emergency generator.
431
In Emergency configuration, AC Ess shed bus is automatically shed:
If the RAT stalls or aircraft is on ground with speed<100kts.
432
When the probe heat switch is in the AUTO position probe heat starts automatically:
when at least one engine is running (heat operates at low level).
433
APU fuel is supplied by:
Either main (a/c) pumps or apu pump.
434
If RMP 1 fails, the remaining RMPs control:
all VHF or HF transceivers.
435
The yellow system operates:
Spoilers 1, 3 & 5.
436
Hydraulic green system only remaining, the auto brake is:
Lost.
437
If the yellow system is lost, the slats are:
Inhibited.
438
How many passenger doors are there on a 320?
4.
439
In flight in case of loss of all main generators, emergency generator not running, the DC Ess Bus is supplied by:
Ess TR.
440
The thrust reverser activation conditions are:
Aircraft on the ground and thrust lever between reverse idle detent and max reverse.
441
On ground the start sequence is automatically aborted:
In case of hot start, hung start, stall or no light up.
442
Can you select VOR 2 using the STBY NAV function on RMP 1?
No - VOR 2 cannot be tuned through STBY NAV function.
443
How many hydraulic motors drive the stabilizer screw jack?
2.
444
The rain repellent bottle and pressure indicator is located:
in the cockpit on the right hand side.
445
Can you speak on VHF and the PA at the same time?
Never - because when PA transmission key is pressed the previous transmission key is deselected.
446
Smoke detection systems are installed in:
avionics bay, cargo compartments and lavatories.
447
The pitch normal law provides:
load factor limitation, pitch attitude protection and high speed protection.
448
When avionics smoke warning activates the ‘smoke’ light illuminates on the:
Gen 1 P/B on overhead ELEC panel.
449
Which source operates the bleed valve:
Electric.
450
The ELAC safety tests (power up test) are automatically performed:
On ground at computer power up.
451
The slats alpha lock function accomplishes which of the following?
Prevents slats retracting when the airspeed is too low or angle of attack is too high.
452
How can a deactivated stick be reactivated?
by momentarily pressing the takeover PB on the active stick.
453
In flight, if blue electric pump fails, blue system:
Is lost.
454
The flight guidance functions are:
Autopilot, flight director, autothrust.
455
Yellow electric pump Pb switch off and cargo door manual selector valve set at open or close position, the PTU and flight controls are:
Inhibited.
456
On the FMA, on the second line of the longitudinal zone, ALT in cyan indicates that:
ALT mode is armed.
457
EGT indication becomes red on E/W display when EGT is higher than:
950 deg.c.
458
Air bleed from the engines is:
Cooled in a heat exchanger by cooling air bleed from the fan section.
459
In flight the FMGS position can be updated:
Using data from the selected NDB, VOR or DME stations.
460
What is the minimum oil pressure at ground idle:
11 psi.
461
The RAT is automatically extended in case of:
Loss of eng. and APU main generators.
462
If the bleed valve closes, the HP valve:
Closes automatically.
463
The baro. correction or reference selected is sent to each ADIRU via:
The FCU.
464
What happens to the IDG cooling fuel when the outer cells are full?
Fuel overflows into the inner cell through a spill pipe.
465
The normal FMGC operation is:
FMGC’s operate according to a master slave principle.
466
Autobraking is initiated:
467
What happens if the outer cells are full regarding the cooling of the IDG?
Fuel is not used to cool the IDG.
468
How does fuel overflow into the inner cell?
Through a spill pipe.
469
What happens to fuel after it spills into the inner cell?
It returns to the engine feeding line.
470
What occurs when the wing overfills with fuel?
Fuel spills overboard through the vent tank.
471
How many FMGCs can operate at a time?
Only one FMGC can operate at a time.
472
What principle do FMGCs operate under?
Master slave principle.
473
What is the priority of FMGC 1 and FMGC 2?
FMGC 1 has priority, FMGC 2 is in standby.
474
What initiates autobraking?
Main gear oleo compression, Ground spoilers extension, Reverse thrust selection, Nose gear oleo compression.
475
Which Flight Control Computer (FCC) normally controls the elevator and stabilizer?
SEC 1.
476
What happens when both hand wheels are operated simultaneously?
The signals are algebraically added.
477
What replaces a failed generator when the APU generator is available?
The APU.
478
Where are visual gear downlock indicators located?
Under a panel in the aisle floor.
479
Is it possible to lower the gear by gravity above 260 kts?
Yes, but only if yellow hydraulics are available.
480
How many extinguisher bottles are included in the engine and APU fire extinguishing systems?
2 extinguisher bottles for each engine, 1 extinguisher bottle for the APU.
481
How long is the proximity emergency escape path marking system powered by internal batteries?
30 minutes.
482
What does it indicate when the EXT Pwr Pb green avail is illuminated?
The external power is connected to the a/c.
483
What is the trim function of the FAC?
Pitch trim and Rudder trim.
484
When would a green AM light illuminate on RMP 1?
If AM mode is required and crew has selected HF 1 and AM.
485
What is the status of the autopilot function with only the green hydraulic system remaining?
Available with AP 1.
486
What is the maximum speed at which the landing gear may be extended?
250 kts.
487
Is it possible to select an intermediate flap setting?
No, only positions 0, 1, 2, 3 and Full can be selected.
488
For what purpose is fuel used by the electrical system?
To cool the IDG oil.
489
In flight control normal law, when is the stall warning activated?
When alpha max is reached.
490
When can A/thr be engaged?
Manually on ground (eng running), automatically after take-off.
491
What happens when you want to leave a hold in the flight plan?
Clear any discontinuity after the holding fix and the aircraft will leave the hold next time over the holding fix.
492
What does the red arrow near the landing gear lever indicate?
Landing gear is not down locked in approach config.
493
When do the pack valves close during an automatic starting sequence?
Ign start is selected.
494
Which of the following is not a condition for SRS disengagement?
Disengages manually by pulling the speed knob.
495
When do the center tank pumps run on ground with slats extended?
Yes, after engine start for 2 mins.
496
What switching is required to start an engine with external pneumatic power?
Engine and APU bleeds off, Pneumatic X bleed open.
497
What happens if the A/Skid and N/W steering switch is in the OFF position with the green hydraulic system available?
Braking is alternate, nosewheel steering is lost.
498
Can you tune a navaid with the STBY NAV function on RMP 3?
No - STBY NAV function is not available on RMP 3.
499
What additional external warnings are activated in case of an APU fire on the ground?
Red APU fire light comes on and an external warning horn sounds.
500
What does the static inverter transform the DC voltage from the battery bus into?
Three phase 115/200v - 400hz. A/C current.
501
What determines the A/Thr mode when the aircraft is in flight with AP engaged?
Depends on the AP vertical mode.
502
What are the certified FMGS limitations for CAT III automatic approach?
40 kt. 10 kt. 20 kt.
503
How are ADIRUs aligned in normal operation?
Using information from the MCDU.
504
Is it possible to restore normal landing gear operation after a gravity extension if green hydraulic pressure is available?
No, it requires maintenance action.
505
If a cyan HDG or TRK symbol appears on the horizon line, is your FD Pb switched on?
Yes.
506
What happens if a Wing Tip Brake (WTB) is activated in flight?
It cannot be released and the corresponding surface cannot be operated.
507
What is the flight control law with a dual hydraulic system failure before gear extension?
Direct law.
508
What systems are affected when the APU fire PB is pushed out?
Fuel (LP fuel valve closes), electrics (APU generator deactivated).
509
What does the continuous cavalry charge audio identify?
Over speed for the actual A/c configuration.
510
What does the Slat SYS 1 Fault on ECAM indicate?
The slat channel in SFCC 1 has failed.
511
Where can the correct GW be inserted when a 'Check GW' message appears?
Init 'A' page.
512
Does external power have priority over the APU generator?
Yes.
