All system Flashcards

1
Q

What is the approximate time (TAU) before reaching the Closest Point of Approach (CPA) in case of a TCAS TA when flying at 7000 ft?

A

40sec

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2
Q

When can managed vertical navigation be engaged?

A

Only after managed lateral navigation has been engaged.

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3
Q

Pneumatic data from the probes are converted by … to data usable for the ADIRUs.

A

Eight ADMs (Air Data Modules)

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4
Q

When the thrust levers are moved to the takeoff position, the FMGS updates its position at takeoff using:

A

The navigation Getabase and the likes run entered ante the MiC DU by the pilot

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5
Q

Which surfaces are NOT protected by hot bleed air Ice Protection System?

A

THS leading-edge.

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6
Q

What does a HYD PUMP FAULT light indicate?

A
  1. Reservoir low level; 2. Reservoir overheat.; 3. Reservoir low air pressure; 4. Pump low pressure; 5. PTU is operating.

1, 2, 3, 4

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7
Q

How are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurized?

A

HP bleed from Engine 1 or from the crossbleed duct.

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8
Q

On a CAT 3 DUAL approach, with both autopilots on, which FMGC is master?

A

FMGC 1

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9
Q

RNAV position information is displayed on the ND in which of the following modes?

A

ARC and ROSE NAV modes only.

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10
Q

The presence of VOR1 in red on the ND indicates:

A

the #1 VOR receiver is inoperative.

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11
Q

If opened when armed, the passenger entry doors how do they open?

A

Pneumatically assisted into the open position

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12
Q

What does illumination of the white SLIDE ARMED light represent on the main cabin door?

A

This indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is opened from inside the aircraft.

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13
Q

What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?

A

It automatically unlocks.

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14
Q

What does illumination of the red CABIN PRESSURE light represent on the main cabin door?

A

This indicates that the aircraft cabin is still pressurized and the cabin door should not be opened.

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15
Q

What would happen during the takeoff if the thrust levers were set to the FLX/MCT detent without FLEX temperature entered?

A

A LEVEL TWO warning would sound along with the appearance of an ECAM message.

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16
Q

When does oil quantity indication begin to pulse?

A

Decreasing below 5 qts.

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17
Q

The Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) controls which of the following functions:

A

Fuel metering
Auto and manual start
Eng limits

Fuel metering, Auto and manual start, Eng limits

18
Q

Alpha floor protection is available:

A

from lift off and down to 100 feet radio altitude in the landing configuration.

19
Q

If an A/THR disconnect button is pushed and held for more than … seconds; the A/THR system is disconnected for the remainder of the flight.

20
Q

The FADE will automatically abort an abnormal start thereby providing engine limit protection, but will the FADE also automatically dry crank the engine?

A

Yes, as long as the ENG MASTER switch remains in the ON position.

21
Q

What is the max g clean?

22
Q

What is the max g not clean?

23
Q

What is the max press alt 321n?

24
Q

What is the max xwind?

A

38 demonstrated (incl gusts)

25
What is the max tailwind for takeoff?
Some are 10 others 15m
26
What is the max tailwind for landing?
15 kt but flaps full may be mandatory on some serials
27
What are the max speeds for flaps?
0 350/.82 1 243 1+F 225 2 215 3 195 full 186
28
What is the max VLE?
280/0,67
29
What is the max VLO in extended position?
250/0.6
30
What is the max VLO in retracted position?
220/0,54
31
What is the max tire speed?
195kt
32
What is the max turn speed if GW > 76t?
20kt
33
What is the max IAS for wipers?
230kt
34
Is autorollout demonstrated on a contaminated runway?
No
35
How many start attempts are permitted on APU?
n°3 then wait 1hr
36
When can APU be started during refueling?
Only if not failed before and if fuel spilled stop APU
37
What is the max altitude for APU assisted engine start?
20000ft
38
What is the max altitude for bleed and electrical from APU?
22500ft
39
unpressurized areas are
tail, gear bay, ac compartments, radome nose
40
how many meters are lost on the pilots visual range in front
12,5m
41
study antennas