Air Law Flashcards
(253 cards)
1
Q
ICAO
A
International Civil Aviation Organisation
2
Q
Where are principals of ICAO laid out?
Where & when were they established?
A
Articles from the Chicago Convention 1944
3
Q
Article 1/2 - Sovereignty & territory
A
Nations have sovereignty over airspace over their territory (land and territorial waters)
4
Q
Article 5 - Right of non-scheduled flight
A
States required to allow aircraft from other states to fly into or through airspace or land without prior permission.
They can demand a landing.
Can prescribe routes or prior permission for remote terrain.
5
Q
Article 10 - Customs
(rights of states)
A
States can require aircraft to arrive or depart via customs airports, unless they have permission to cross territory.
6
Q
Article 11 - Air regulations
(rules aircraft must follow)
A
All aircraft must obey rules of the state they are in
7
Q
Article 12 - Rules of the Air
(requirements for states)
A
States must ensure aircraft within territory or registered to them obey RotA. Must endeavour to prosecute violators.
8
Q
Article 13 - Entry & Clearance
(aircraft requirements)
A
States regulations on entry, clearance, immigration etc. must be followed by passengers, crew or cargo or on their behalf.
9
Q
Article 16 - Search of Aircraft
(rights of states)
A
States have the right to search any aircraft and review documents on landing or before departure
10
Q
Article 17 - Aircraft nationality
A
Aircraft nationality is the nationality of the state it is registered to.
11
Q
Article 18 - Dual registration
A
Aircraft cannot be registered to more than one state, but can change state of registry.
12
Q
Article 22 - Facilitation
(requirements for states)
A
States must facilitate flights between territories of other states and prevent unnecessary delays (e.g. customs)
13
Q
Article 23 - Customs Procedures
(requirements for states)
A
States must establish customs & immigration procedures in accordance with international practice.
14
Q
Article 24 - Customs Duty
(rights for aircraft)
A
Aircraft entering states territory are temporarily free of duty, along with fuel, parts, oil (etc.) as long as they stay on board.
15
Q
Article 25 - Distress
(requirements for states)
A
States must assist aircraft in distress and allow state of registry and aircraft owners to assist.
16
Q
Article 26 - Accident Investigation
(who investigates)
A
The state in which an accident takes place carries out the investigation, the state of registry can observe.
17
Q
Article 28 - Air navigation systems
(requirements for states)
A
States must:
- Provide ICAO standard radio, meteorological and air navigation systems
- Operate standard systems for communications, signals etc.
- Publish aeronautical charts
18
Q
Article 29 - Documents
(requirements for aircraft) (7)
A
- Certificate of Registration
- Certificate of Airworthiness
- License for each crew member
- Journey logbook
- Radio licenses
- Passengers names, embarkation & destination
- Cargo manifest & declarations
19
Q
Article 30 - Radio Equipment
(requirements for aircraft)
A
Aircraft can only carry radio equipment licensed in their state of registry, and only be operated by licensed crew members.
20
Q
Article 33 - License recognition
(requirements for states)
A
States must recognise airworthiness and crew licenses of other states provided they meet ICAO standards.
21
Q
Article 35 - Cargo restrictions
A
Weapons and munitions must not be carried in a states territory without permission.
States may prohibit carriage of other items for safety or public order reasons.
22
Q
Article 36 - Photographic Apparatus
A
States may ban use of photographic equipment over the state
23
Q
Article 39 - Endorsement of licenses/certificates
A
Aircraft failing to meet airworthiness standards, or crew failing to meet international standards, should have airworthiness certificates/licenses endorsed.
24
Q
Article 47 - ICAO Legal Capacity
A
States must grant ICAO legal capacity required to carry out their role.
25
AIS
- Stands for
- Description
Aeronautical Information Service
Provided by CAA and includes all documents and information they put out.
26
Entity responsible for AIS
Entity that delivers AIS
CAA responsible
NATS delivers it (e.g. via website)
27
AIP
- Stands for
- Sections
- Update name & regularity
Aeronautical Information Publication
Sections: General (GEN), Enroute (EN), Aerodromes (AD)
AIRAC updates every 28 days
28
AIS
- Components
AIP (publication)
AICs (circulars)
NOTAMs (notices)
AIP supplements
29
AICs
- Stands for
- Update regularity
Aeronautical Information Circulars
Updated monthly
30
AICs
- Types
Air Safety (pink)
Administrative (white)
Operational & ATS (yellow)
UK Restrictions Charts (mauve)
Maps/Charts (green)
31
NOTAMs
- Stands for
- Description
- Categories
Notices to Airmen
Updated continuously with temporary or urgent information
- NOTAMN (new info)
- NOTAMR (replacing old info)
- NOTAMC (cancelling old NOTAM)
32
AIP Supplements description
Temporary information with too much detail for a NOTAM (e.g. diagrams)
33
ANO
- Stands for
- Description
Air Navigation Order
The ANO is the UKs legislative instrument for aviation
34
European version of RotA
SERA
35
Who do RotA apply to?
All UK registered aircraft and all aircraft in UK territory
36
When can RotA or SERA be departed from?
Either for safety or to comply with territorial rules.
Departure for safety must be reported within 10 days.
37
Overtaking in air
- Definition
- Method
Overtaking in the air when within 70 degrees either side of tail line of plane.
Overtake on the right.
38
Approaching head on in the air
Turn to the right
39
Right of way rules (2)
i) Power < Airships < Sailplanes < Balloons
ii) On the right, in the right
40
Circuit rules (2)
Unless instructed otherwise by ATC:
i) follow pattern of existing traffic
ii) make left turns unless ground signals indicate otherwise
41
Priority of aircraft when landing
Lower aircraft has priority
42
Landing with no runway rules
When landing leave any other landed craft clear on your left.
After landing turn only to the left
43
Required lights
Flashing red in all directions is optional.
Green (R) & Red (L) for 110 degrees.
White at rear, 70 degrees each side.
44
Definition of night (UK)
30 mins after sunset to 30 mins before sunrise
45
Main low flying rule
At least 500ft higher than any person, vehicle, building within 150m
46
Congested area rules (2)
At least 1000ft above any object within 600m.
Must be able to glide clear
47
Exemptions to low flying rules (4)
Taking off and landing
Helicopters manoeuvring (60m min)
Police
Flying displays
48
Aerobatics (RotA)
Not over congested areas
49
Simulated instrument flight (RotA)
Must be a competent observer aboard
Must have dual controls
50
Interception
- General requirement for aircraft
International flights must carry a guide to signals
51
Interception
- Initial communications
Rocking wings - "You have been intercepted, follow me"
Reply - Rock wings & follow
52
Interception
- You may proceed
Abrupt breakaway and climb
53
Interception
- Land at this airfield
Circling the aerodrome, lower landing gear and overfly runway in landing direction
54
Interception Response
- Airfield inadequate
Raise landing gear while overflying runway 1000ft to 2000ft
55
Interception Response
- Cannot comply
Switch all lights on and off regularly, but not as if flashing
56
Interception Response
- Distress
Lights on and off at irregular intervals
57
Ground signals for entering unauthorised area
Projectiles or lights at 10 second intervals in mix of red and green
58
Requirement to land at military aerodrome
Prior permission
59
Requirement to land on private land
Landowners permission
60
Requirement for flight training on unlicensed aerodrome
Landowner and PIC need to be satisfied that facilities are adequate
61
Rule around unfit fuel
No person shall cause or permit fuel not fit for purpose to be used in aircraft
62
Requirements if late to destination aerodrome
Notify aerodrome if destination is changed or expected over 30 minutes late
63
Manoeuvring Area defn.
Take off, landing and taxiing areas
Excludes apron and maintenance areas
64
Apron defn.
Area of airfield designed for loading/unloading, maintenance etc.
65
Aerodrome Lights (2)
- Aerodrome Beacon: White or White/Green flashing
- Identification Beacon: Green morse code (red for military)
66
Right of Way on ground (5)
i) PIC responsible
ii) Give way to landing aircraft
iii) Head on approach - turn to right
iv) On the right, in the right
v) Overtake either side, well clear
67
TORA
- Stands for
- Definition
Take Off Run Available
- Runway only
68
TODA
- Stands for
- Definition
Take Off Distance Available
- Runway + Clearway (to first obstruction)
69
ASDA
- Stands for
- Definition
Accelerate Stop Distance Available
- Runway + Stopway
70
LDA
- Stands for
- Definition
Landing Distance Available
Runway + suitable landing ground
71
SNOWTAM
- What is it?
- Info.
Report on snow conditions on runway
Runway split into thirds, info provided on % coverage, type of snow
72
Runway lights
Unidirectional
Green in direction of approach
Optional red lights at end within 3m, also in direction of approach
Edge lights are white
73
Colour of mandatory signs
White on red background
74
Tall objects near aerodromes,
day and night requirements
Within 15km should be lit with red lights at night (more than 1 if over 45m), painted red/white stripes for day
75
Take off & landing directions may be different
76
Take off and landing direction may be different
77
RH Circuit
78
Movements of planes and gliders on ground restricted to hard surfaces
79
Planes and gliders must take off and land on hard ground, but can taxi on other surfaces
80
RH Circuit
81
Manoeuvring area poor, special precautions
82
Landing prohibited
83
Helicopters to land at larger H area only
84
Gliding taking place
85
Gliding taking place
86
Tow rope dropping area
87
Unfit section of runway
(taxiway same but yellow)
88
Boundary of runway, taxiway, apron
89
Boundary of unpaved area available for aircraft
90
Light aircraft landing area
Second means light aircraft can also use runway
91
Runway marking meaning landing dangerous
92
Runway marking meaning emergency use only
93
Permanently displaced threshold
94
Temporarily displaced threshold
95
Temporarily displaced threshold - area unfit for movement of aircraft
96
Manoeuvring aircraft require ATC permission
97
Light signals to aircraft in air
Red - do not land, continue circling
Red flash - go to another aerodrome
Green - Cleared to land
Green flash - return to aerodrome, wait for permission to land
White flash - Await permission to land
98
Light signals to aircraft on ground
Red - Stop
Red flash - Move clear of landing area
Green - Cleared to take off
Green flash - Cleared to taxi
White flash - Return to starting point
99
Red flare from aircraft
Distress
100
Green flare from aircraft
Request to land (or land in different direction)
101
Proceed to another marshaller
102
Move ahead
103
Open up starboard engine
104
Stop
105
Start engine (point to engine or number of fingers)
106
Chocks inserted
107
Chocks away
108
Cut engines
109
Slow down
110
Slow indicated engine
111
This bay
112
Extending fingers - release brakes
Clenching fist - engage brakes
113
Marshalling finished
114
Reverse port engine
115
Recommend evacuation
116
Recommend stop
117
Emergency contained
118
Fire
119
Standard Pressure
1013.2 hPa
120
Transition Altitude
3000ft in most of UK
Detail shown in AIP
121
Transition Level
The lowest flight level above 3000ft
122
Which types of flight must use flight levels instead of altitudes
Flights in controlled space or IFR
123
Semi-circular rule (IFR & VFR)
IFR up to 400
East (0-179) - Odd 10's
West (180-359) - Even 10's
VFR - Add 5
West uses 430 not 420 then skip
124
When to use pressure settings (general)
FL over 3000ft, QFE in the circuit, QNH otherwise
125
FIR
- Stands for
- Those in UK
Flight Information Region
Up to FL245 - London & Scotland
UIR (Upper) over FL245
126
Controlled & uncontrolled airspace codes
A-E controlled
F-G uncontrolled
127
When do flight always get ATC?
In controlled airspace
128
CTR
- Stands for
- Definition
- Dimensions
- Class
Control Zone
Around certain aerodromes from surface to stated alt./FL, at least 5NM radius
Class D
129
TMA
- Stands for
- Definition
- Class
Terminal Control/Manoeuvring Area
Confluence of several major aerodromes (eg London)
Class A, C, D or E
130
CTA
- Stands for
- Definition
- Class
Control Area
Portion of ATC controlled airspace between two alt./FLs.
Class A, C or D
131
Airway
- Definition
- Class
Corridor 5nm either side of a line with identifier
Class A, C or E
132
Upper Airspace
- Flight level
- Class
FL195
Class C
133
Special VFR uses
Flights in controlled airspace with relaxed rules.
Can allow transit of class A CTR
Relaxed operating limits
134
Special VFR requirements (4)
<140kts
1500m visibility
Cloud ceiling > 600ft
Clear of cloud and sight of surface
135
Crossing airways
- PPL pilot
- Instrument pilot
PPL can cross at 90 degrees below lower altitude of airway only.
IR pilot can cross in VMC if the file a flight plan (during flight ok) and get clearance 10 mins before penetration
136
Open FIR
Class G airspace, everything not a higher class
137
ATZ
- Stands for
- Description
- Dimension
Air Traffic Zone
Contain an aerodrome and use the same class as surrounding airspace
Ground to 2,000ft aal
2nm radius if <1,850m runway
2.5nm radius if >1,850m runway
138
Required before entering ATZ
Permission from ATC if it exists.
Otherwise information from AFIS or A/G radio if neither exists
139
MATZ
- Stands for
- Description
- Dimension
Military Air Traffic Zone
Contains military aerodrome
Ground to 3,000ft aal
5nm radius
4nm wide stub between 1k, 3k ft
140
Required before entering MATZ
Technically not regulated space so don't need permission to enter, but still need to obey ATC
141
Upper air space classification
Airspace above FL195 in UK is class C
142
Royal Airspace
- Airspace and class established
- Times
- Applies to which flights
Temporary Class D (CAS-T) established with control zones & areas around aerodromes.
15 mins before to 30 mins after ETA/D
Doesn't apply to helicopters generally
143
Class A airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service
No VFR (except SVFR)
All flights need ATC clearance
Separation for all flights
144
Class B airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service
IFR & VFR
All flights need ATC clearance
Separation for all flights
145
Class C airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service
IFR & VFR
All flights need ATC clearance
Separation for IFR from IFR & VFR
Traffic info for VFR from VFR
146
Class D airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service
IFR & VFR
All flights need ATC clearance
Separation for IFR from IFR
Traffic info for all other cases
147
Class E airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service
IFR & VFR
Only IFR need ATC clearance
Separation for IFR from IFR
Traffic info for other cases where possible
148
Class F airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service
IFR & VFR
No clearance needed
IFR can request procedural or deconfliction
All flights can request basic or traffic
149
Class G airspace
- Permitted flights
- Clearance required
- Separation service
IFR & VFR
No clearance needed
All flights can request a service
150
ACC
- Stands for
- Responsibilities
Area Control Centre
- ATC services in airways
- Flight information service (FIS) & alerting service
- Distress and diversion service
151
ATC
- Stands for
- Responsibilities
- Components (3)
Air Traffic Control
ATC services around an aerodrome
Can be split into Approach, Tower and Ground
152
FIS
- Stands for
- Definition
Flight Information Service
Information only service at aerodromes
153
A/G
- Stands for
- Definition
Air/Ground communication service
Simple service at aerodromes, low qualifications
154
Safetycom
- What is it?
- Restrictions
135.48
General radio frequency for aerodromes without dedicated channel
Only use within 2000ft aal (or 1000ft above circuit) and 10nm distance
155
LARS
- Stands for
- Definition
- Range of availability
Lower Airspace Radar System
Radar service (basic, traffic or deconfliction) available within 30nm of ATS units up to FL100
156
Services outside controlled airspace (4)
Basic
Traffic
Deconfliction
Procedural
157
Basic Service
- Available to
- Provided by
- Responsibility for terrain and collision avoidance
- Traffic info provided
Available to all flights and offered by any ATC unit (including information)
PIC is fully responsible for all avoidance actions.
Do not expect any traffic info.
Can change course or altitude without informing unit, unless an agreement has been made.
158
Traffic Service
- Available to
- Provided by
- Responsibility for terrain and collision avoidance
- Traffic info provided
Available to all flights and offered by radar service units
PIC responsible for avoidance, but controllers may issue headings & FLs (no deconfliction)
Traffic info will be provided as far as it can be
159
Deconfliction Service
- Available to
- Provided by
- Deconfliction minima
- Traffic info provided
Available to IFR only by radar service units
PIC still ultimately responsible, but service provides deconfliction to 3000ft/5nm (not identified) or 1000ft/3nm (same ATC unit)
Traffic info still passed for help
160
Procedural Service
- Available to
- Provided by
- Responsibility for terrain and collision avoidance
- Traffic info provided
Available to IFR only by non-radar units
PIC responsible for clearance but service provides headings, timings, altitudes to achieve deconfliction for flights it controls
Provides traffic info on basic service flights under its control but can't see traffic it isn't controlling
161
Which flights require flight plans?
Class A-D
Class E if night, IMC or IFR
Flights crossing FIR boundary
>=5,700kg AND >=40km
162
How to activate a flight plan
If you file with ATSU from which you take off, it is activated when you take off.
Otherwise use AFPEX or get a friend to call the filed ATSU
163
How to close a flight plan
On arrival phone the ATSU or file via AFPEX
164
Flight plan delay requirements
Must cancel and file again if over 60 minutes delayed (30 mins if entering controlled airspace)
165
AFPEX
Assisted Flight Planning Exchange
166
VMC visibility minima
8km above FL100
5km below
167
VMC distance from cloud minima
1,500m horizontal, 300m vertical
Exceptions in class F/G (sometimes D)
168
VMC distance from cloud exceptions
Only need clear of cloud with surface in sight.
- Below 3,000ft ASML or 1,000ft above ground; and
- Class F/G. Also class D in daytime below 140kts
169
Helicopter VMC visibility minima reductions
5km can reduce to 1,500m and 1,500m to 800m in some cases
170
VMC minima at night
- Cloud ceiling >1,500ft
- Ground visibility >5km
- Sight of surface below 3000ft AMSL
- >1,000ft clearance above highest obstacle in 8km (2,000ft high terrain)
171
Additional VMC night flying requirements (2)
- Flight plan required if leaving vicinity of aerodrome
- 2 way radio should be established
172
IFR minima (height)
>1,000ft clearance over tallest obstacle within 8km, (2000ft in high terrain)
(except TO/L)
173
IFR flight requirements (ATC)
Flight plan needed if in controlled airspace
Follow terms of clearance and ATC instructions
Inform ATC of any departures from this rule
Inform ATC when aircraft lands or leaves controlled airspace
174
IFR switching to VFR requirements
Need to be sure VMC can be maintained whilst in controlled airspace
Need to inform ATC and request cancellation of flight plan
175
Is "-" required in registration?
Only if country code is a letter
176
Where are balloon registration marks displayed?
On each side near the middle
177
Where are heavier than air craft registration marks displayed?
On base of left wing, top of letters by leading edge
On both sides of fuselage between wings and tail, OR both sides of tail
178
Size requirements for registration marks
50cm wings, 30cm fuselage/tail
179
Rules for registration mark font
Roman capitals, Arabic numbers, width 2/3 of height (except I and 1)
180
Identification plate requirement
Fireproof copy near door
181
Exceptions to registration of craft
Non EASA gliders/hang-gliders.
Test/experimental craft
182
Airworthiness documents and expiries for Part-21
Certificate of Airworthiness - non-expiring
Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) - annual
183
Airworthiness documents and expiries for non-part-21
Certificate of Airworthiness - 3 years
Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) - annual
184
What is required to fly without Certificate of Airworthiness
Permit to Fly
Issued by CAA for part-21, or suitable maintenance person for non-part-21
185
Documentation for mechanical aspects (3)
Need a technical logbook recording flight times, unserviceable items, maintenance record etc.
Certificate of Release to Service (CRS) if craft or a major part is overhauled.
Aircraft logbook, Engine logbook, variable pitch propeller logbook (if appropriate)
186
Rules governing flight of damaged aircraft
State where craft is located can prevent flight, must notify state of reg.
State of reg. can prevent flight, or determine a flight to allow repair is ok
State of location must allow this flight
187
Where is aircraft mass/balance recorded
Description
Aircraft Weight Schedule within the Certificate of Airworthiness
Mass & COG determined regularly at basic weight, old version kept for 6 months
188
Most important CofA limitations that must be clear to pilots
V(NE) and V(FE)
189
Which craft need noise certificate?
Propeller below 9,000kg
Helicopters & microlights
Subsonic craft with >610m take off length
Only a few STOL (short take off & landing) craft exempt
190
Insurance categories
Third party
Passenger
Hull (optional)
191
PPL remuneration allowances
LAPL/PPL teaching/examination (if FI rated)
Cost sharing in craft up to 6 POB
192
Expiry of part-FCL licenses
Do not expire, but ratings and endorsements required to use them
193
Licensing age requirements
Age 16 for solos
Age 16 for gliders, balloons
Age 17 for PPL, LAPL
194
Class 2 medical validity
< 40 years - 60 months
40-49 years - 24 months
50 years+ - 12 months
All valid until expiry, but pre-40 expires age 42, pre-50 expires age 51
195
LAPL medical validity and rules
Can be issued by GP if no health issues
<40 years - 60 months
> 40 years - 24 months
196
PMD
- Stands for
- Use
Pilot Medical Declaration
Only if UK pilot wants to fly UK registered craft in UK only
197
Anaesthetic rules
12 hours after local
48 hours after general
198
Blood/bone marrow donation rules
12 hours blood
24 hours bone marrow
199
Pregnancy rules
If certified fit to fly, up to 26th week ok
200
PPL nav. requirements (A, H)
A - 150nm, 2 TOLs
H - 100nm, 2 TOLs
201
PPL recency requirements (A, H)
To carry passengers, 3 TOLs in last 90 days.
To carry passengers at night one must have been at night.
202
Maintaining SEP rating
i) Proficiency check in 3 months before expiry, or
ii) 12 hours flight time (6 as PIC), 12 TOLs, 1 hour with FI or CRI
Can get exemption for passing suitable flight test in this time.
203
How long are SEP and MEP ratings valid for?
SEP - 2 years
MEP - 1 year
204
Maintaining MEP rating
i) Proficiency check in 3 months before expiry, or
ii) 10 route sectors in last 12 months (TO, 15 mins cruise, L) OR 1 route sector with instructor
205
Initial MEP rating requirements
70 hours PIC.
ATO course with 7 hours theory, theory exam, 2.5 hours two-engine flight and 3.5 hours asymmetric flight, skill test.
206
IMC/IR(R) ratings
Instrument Meteorological Conditions
Instrument Rating (Restricted)
Essentially the same thing
207
Requirements for IR(R)/IMC rating
25 hours after PPL including
(i) 10 hours as PIC, of which 5 XCtry and
(ii) 15 hours PUT on IR(R) course, of which 10 solely referencing instruments
Written exam and flight test
208
Privileges of IR(R) rating
Area of validity
Allows flight in IFR conditions except:
(i) class A airspace, and
(ii) TOL when visibility under cloud below 1,500m
Valid in UK only
209
IR(A) priveliges
Allows full flight in IFR, with minimum decision height 200ft
210
LAPL requirements
A/H
Hours, XCtry
A - 30 total, 15 dual, 6 solo, 3 XCtry
H - 40 total, 20 dual, 10 solo, 5 XCtry
80nm XCtry, 1 land away
211
Required documents always on board (6)
i) Aircraft flight manual (or operations manual)
ii) Details of flight plan (if app.)
iii) Relevant Aeronautical charts
iv) Interception info
v) Minimum equipment list (if app.)
vi) Other pertinent documentation
212
Required documents which can remain at aerodrome if TOL at same one (7)
i) Original cert. of registration
ii) Original CofA
iii) Noise certificate (if app.)
iv) List of approvals (if app.)
v) Aircraft Radio License (if app.)
vi) Insurance cert.
vii) Journey log
213
Documents required for flight crew
Original license
Photo ID
214
Pilot logbook kept for
2 years from last entry
215
Transponder modes
A - Just codes
C - Codes and altitude
S - 17 million codes and further info
216
Mandatory transponder areas
Scottish TMA 6000ft AMSL - FL100 (Mode A)
UK above FL100 (Mode C)
UK controlled below FL100 (Mode C)
Transponder Mandatory Zones (Mode S)
217
Transponder code - Emergency
7700
218
Transponder code - Radio failure
7600
219
Transponder code - Unlawful Interference
7500
220
Transponder code - Normal operations
7000
221
Transponder code - Entering UK from adjacent region
2000
222
Transponder code - Aerobatics
7004
223
Transponder code - Parachutists
0033
224
Transponder code - Lost
0030
225
Airprox reporting requirements
Report to connected ATSU over radio immediately, if not by phone on landing
Fill in form within 7 days
226
Weather considerations for VFR flights (3)
Don't take off unless forecast indicates VFR conditions along entire route.
Don't continue unless VFR conditions at destination or >=1 alternate.
Report any negative weather conditions encountered immediately.
227
Passenger briefing items (5)
Seat belts
Emergency exits
Life jackets
Oxygen equipment
Other emergency equipment
228
Minimum flight safety equipment (5)
(i) Accessible first aid kit
(ii) Fire extinguisher in each cabin
(iii) Seat for each passenger over age X
(iv) Seat belt for each berth
(v) Spare fuses
229
Minimum flight documents (ICAO) (3)
(i) Flight manual
(ii) Charts required
(iii) Intercepted aircraft info
230
VFR Flight additional equipment (5)
(i) Compass
(ii) ASI
(iii) Altimeter
(iv) Accurate timepiece
(v) Additional equipment required
231
Equipment for flights over water
SEP: Life-jackets if beyond gliding dist.
MEP: Life-jackets if >50nm from land
Rafts & pyrotechnics if >100nm (SEP) or >200nm (MEP) from land
232
Additional safety equipment under Part-NCO
Emergency Location Transmitter (ELT)
Any type for CofA pre 1/7/08
Automatic for CofA post 1/7/08
Personal one for craft <= 6 seats
233
Additional instruments under Part-NCO at night
Turn and slip
Attitude
Vertical speed
Heading indicator
Power status of gyro instruments
234
Part-NCO over water rules
Life jackets for all flights beyond gliding distance of land (or if PIC considers likelihood of ditching during TOL)
Should be worn uninflated for SEP.
PIC determines raft/pyrotechnics etc.
235
Use of oxygen rules
In unpressurised craft crew must use oxygen continuously when over:
10,000ft for 30 mins
13,000 feet for any time.
Passengers over 13,000 feet only.
236
Emergency frequency
121.5
237
Distress signalling
- morse, lights, pyro., other
SOS: dit-dit-dit dah-dah-dah dit-dit-dit
Single reds at short intervals
Red parachute flare
Continuous sound
238
Urgency (pan-pan) signalling
- morse, lights, pyro.
X-X-X: dah-dit-dit-dah x 3
Landing or nav lights on and off
Series of white pyrotechnics
239
RCC
- Stands for
- Description
Rescue Coordination Centre
Coordinate search and rescue operations
240
Alerting Service
Service offered by all ATSUs to alert appropriate authorities in case of emergency
241
How to get SAR observation of your flight
File a flight plan
242
SAR requirements for states
24 hour Search and Rescue
Must define regions where SAR is available and have RCC in each
243
RCC Phases
Uncertainty - Coordinate with ATSUs
Alert - Alert SAR units
Distress - Commence SAR action
244
Emergency ground signals
- Require assistance
- Require medical assistance
- Yes
- No
- Proceed in this direction
V - Require assistance
X - Require medical assistance
Y - Yes
N - No
----> - Proceed in this direction
245
Accident Definition
(i) Death or serious injury, in or on craft or contact with any part of it or jet blast (excludes stowaways)
(ii) Aircraft damage or structural failure (except limited to engine, propellers, tyres, brakes etc.)
(iii) Aircraft missing or inaccessible.
246
Who to notify of accident
Chief Inspector of Air Accidents
Local police authority in UK
247
Incident Definition
Anything less than accident:
Airprox, undershoot/overshoot runway, non-accident damage to craft, crew incapacitation, low fuel mayday call
248
MOR
- Stands for
- Description
Mandatory Occurrence Report
Filled in for a specified list of events, can also voluntarily fill one in if not on the list
249
Requirement for bird strikes
Must be reported whether damage caused or not.
CAA likes to hear about near misses too.
250
After how many days illness must a pilot inform the CAA
21 days
251
Speed limit below FL100
250kts
252
What colour is AVGAS 110LL equipment?
Red
253
Is start date of initial medical certificate the issue date or medical exam date?
Date of the medical examination
