Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

PPL 2023 > Operational Procedures > Flashcards

Operational Procedures Flashcards

(111 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

Acts of unlawful interference (6)

A

(i) Unlawful seizure in flight
(ii) Unlawful seizure on ground
(iii) Hostage taking (on board or at AD)
(iv) Forcible intrusion (on board or at AD)
(v) Introduction of weapon or hazardous device on board for criminal purpose
(vi) Communicating false information to jeopardise safety of aircraft, passengers, crew, public in flight or at AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Aerial Work

A

Specialised work such as agriculture, construction, photography, S&R, aerial advertisement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Commercial Air Transportion

A

Transportation of passengers, cargo or mail for remuneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

General Aviation Operation

A

Aviation operator other than aerial work or commercial air transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Corporate Aviation Operation

A

Non-commercial operation or use of aircraft by a company to carry passengers or goods or other business purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Aerodrome operating minima activities (4)

A

i) Take off
ii) Landing (precision)
iii) Landing with vertical guidance
iv) Landing (non-precision)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Aerodrome operating minima criteria

A

Runway visual range/visibility
Cloud cover if applicable
Decision altitude/height (DA/H) for precision and vertical guidance landing
Minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) for non-precision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Alternate Aerodrome types (3)

A

Take off
En-route
Destination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Area Navigation (RNAV)

A

Method of navigation permitting any desired flight path within coverage of external navaids or capability of on-board aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Performance Based Navigation (PBN)

A

Area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft on designated ATS routes, instrument approaches or designated airspace

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Aircraft Operating Manual

A

Manual based on the flight manual, designed considering human factors principles, for use by operations staff and flight crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Operations Manual

A

Manual with procedures, instructions and guidance for operational personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Flight Manual

A

Manual associated with CofA containing airworthiness limitations and information relating to safe flight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Extended flight over water (definition)

A

Lesser of 50nm or 30 mins cruising speed from land suitable for emergency landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Best landing position on water

A

On crest of wave, parallel to swell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Flight time

A

Chock to chock (for the purpose of taking flight only)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Error

A

Action or inaction that leads to deviation from intentions or expectations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Threat

A

Events or errors occurring beyond the influence of operational person

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Large aeroplane

A

> 5700kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Night

A

Hours between end of evening civil twilight and start of morning civil twilight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Runway Visual Range

A

The range over which a pilot on runway centreline can see runway surface markings or lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Accident (short)

A

Aircraft sustaining or causing significant damage or personal injury, between somebody boarding with intent to fly and all people disembarking.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Advisory airspace

A

Airspace within which traffic advisory service is available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

ACAS
- Stands for
- Description

A

Airborne Collision Avoidance System
On-board system using Secondary Surveillance Radar (SSR) to detect similarly equipped aircraft that my conflict

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
ATIS - Stands for - Description
Automated Terminal Information Service Repetitive radio broadcast of aerodrome information
26
Ceiling
Height above ground of lowest layer of cloud covering half the sky
27
Incident
Occurrence other than accident which could affect aircraft safety
28
Serious Injury (6)
i) Hospitalisation for 48 hours within 7 days of accident ii) Bone facture (except simple fingers, toes, nose) iii) Lacerations causing severe haemorrhage, nerve/muscle/tendon damage iv) Internal organ injury v) 2nd/3rd degree burns or burns to >5% of body vi) Exposure to infectious substances or harmful radiation
29
Briefing (7)
- Seat belts - Emergency exits - Life jackets - Oxygen - Briefing cards - Other emergency equipment - Collective equipment (eg life rafts)
30
Minimum equipment (safety)
- Accessible first-aid kit - Portable fire extinguisher each cabin - Berth for each person over stated age - Seat belt for each seat - Spare fuses
31
Minimum documentation (3)
- Flight manual and related - Charts - Interception info
32
VFR minimum equipment (5)
- Compass - ASI - Altimeter - Accurate timepiece - Other appropriate equipment
33
Equipment for flights over water (SE/ME)
SE out of gliding or ME 50nm: Lifejacket for each person SE > 100nm or ME >200nm: Rafts for all POB and pyrotechnics
34
Flight planning - spare fuel
Day - 30 mins cruise Night - 45 mins cruise Same aerodrome - 10 mins cruise
35
Noise regulations - how are they enforced?
Not covered by noise act etc. CAA can't prosecute pilots as not covered by ANO Aerodromes are impacted by planning rules however and noise abatement procedures should be followed
36
When do noise abatement procedures not apply?
In an emergency ignore them
37
Purpose of 3 category holding points
Relate to category of Instrument Landing System in use (due to weather), more sensitive systems need waiting aircraft further from runway
38
Taxi holding position A Do not cross from solid line direction without permission
39
Taxi holding position B
40
Intermediate taxi holding position
41
Lights at taxi holding positions
i) Runway Guard Lights - flashing yellow wig wags close to runway entry (either side or across taxiway) iii) Stop Bar - Red "traffic lights" across taxiway, controlled by ATC or on a timer - do not cross red. Any holding point, not necessarily near runway.
42
Initial response to carburettor fire on start up
i) Starter - crank engine ii) Mixture - idle cut-off iii) Throttle - open iv) Fuel pump - off v) Fuel selector - off
43
Subsequent actions for carburettor fire on startup
i) Ignition - off ii) ATC - inform iii) Electric master - off iv) Grab fire extinguisher and exit
44
Likely cause of carburettor fire on startup
Excess fuel in induction system due to over-priming
45
Colour of flames for fuel or oil fire
Oil burns black Fuel burns orange
46
Components of a fire
Oxygen Fuel Heat
47
Actions for engine fire (in flight)
i) Fuel selector - off ii) Throttle - closed iii) Mixture - Idle cut-off iv) Fuel pump - off v) Heater - off vi) Defroster - off vii) Glide landing
48
2 methods for emergency descent during fire Purpose of each
i) Roll to 30deg, nose down, wings level once descending. Descend at high speed, not below V(NE) ii) Reduce speed below V(FE) and V(LE), lower flaps and landing gear and descend at slowest safe speed First method is quicker to ground but higher demands on airframe
49
Electrical fire actions
(consider mayday call before switching off avionics, lowering landing gear or flaps if electric) i) Master switch - off ii) Cabin vents - open iii) Cabin heat - off iv) Locate fire extinguisher v) Land ASAP
50
Type of fire extinguisher used in aviation
Halon
51
Time fire extinguisher will work for
8 to 25 seconds
52
Toxic components in smoke (2)
Carbon Monoxide Hydrogen Cyanide
53
Types of fire
A - Solid B - Liquid C - Electric D - Metal
54
Effect on airspeed when entering increasing headwind
Will initially increase, as momentum means groundspeed is resistant to change so headwind will be taking air past you faster than before
55
Overshoot effect 3 causes
An increase in rate of climb i) Flying into updraft ii) Climbing into increased headwind iii) Climbing into reduced tailwind
56
Undershoot effect 3 causes
A decrease in rate of climb i) Flying into downdraft ii) Climbing into decreased headwind iii) Climbing into increased tailwind
57
Types of clouds causing updraft or downdraft
Cumulus clouds create updrafts Cumulonimbus clouds create downdrafts
58
Windshear definition
A change in wind velocity or direction as you move from one point to another.
59
Causes of windshear
Fronts Thunderstorms Inversions
60
Low level windshear
Windshear close to the ground, particularly in approach path
61
Turbulence
Eddy motions in the atmosphere
62
Windshear reversal effect
Initial response to windshear is an overreaction, taking you past original target profile and requiring opposite control
63
Downburst
Downdraft out of cumulonimbus or thunderstorm cloud, spreads out as it approaches the ground
64
Microburst
Especially short lived (5-15 minute) downburst. Relatively compact, about 1 to 3 km.
65
Action to take if accidentally entering microburst
Continue straight ahead and apply full power
66
Virga
Rain that evaporates before reaching ground
67
Cause of wake turbulence
Wing vortices created at high angles of attack
68
ATC protection from wake turbulence
Light aircraft behind heavy jets delayed up to 3 mins before TO, 8nm before landing
69
Drift direction of wingtip vortices
Downwards and apart. Also downwind.
70
When are strong wing vortices produced? (2)
High angle of attack High lift
71
Conditions to be extra careful of wake turbulence
Nil winds - causes them to hang around
72
Wake Turbulence Categories (ICAO & Flight Plan)
Super/Heavy >136,000kg Medium 7,000 to 136,000 kg Light <7,000kg
73
Wake Turbulence Categories UK
Super/Heavy >136,000kg Medium 40,000kg to 136,000kg Small 17,000kg to 40,000kg Light <17,000kg [arrivals split medium at 104,000kg between upper and lower medium]
74
What is the Super wake turbulence category?
Same weight as Heavy, but for specific aircraft (e.g. A380)
75
Wake turbulence minima on approach Based on leading aircraft
Nautical miles
76
When do wake turbulence approach minima apply
i) Aircraft directly behind another one at same altitude or up to 1,000ft below. ii) Crossing below at same altitude or up to 1,000ft below. iii) Aircraft using same runway or parallel runways up to 2,500ft (760m) apart
77
Wake turbulence minima on take off Based on leading aircraft
## Footnote In case of full-length take off add 1 min
78
When do wake turbulence take off minima apply
i) Same runway ii) Parallel runways 2,500ft (760m) apart iii) Crossing runways if follower crosses path at same altitude or up to 1000 ft below iv) Parallel runways over 2,500ft (760m) apart if follower crosses projected path at same altitude or up to 1000ft below
79
How to avoid wake turbulence when positioning take off and landing
For take off, use full length of runway to take off well before larger aircraft did. For landing aim for a landing point further along than the larger aircraft. For crossing runway take off, ensure larger aircraft was still on the ground past the crossing point.
80
Avoiding wake turbulence in flight
Stay 200ft above altitude of heavier craft when following, or at least 1,000ft below.
81
Description of wing vortex shape
Spiral, starting under the wing near wing tip, going outwards then upwards and back over the top of the wing
82
Distance required from hovering helicopter
At least 3 rotors width
83
Engine failure order of actions
- Trim for best glide speed (range if over water) - Plan forced landing pattern - Declare mayday and set 7700 * - Complete fault finding checks * - Prepare for forced landing - Brief passengers
84
Engine failure fault finding checks (6)
- Fuel Selector: To tank with fuel in - Fuel pump: On - Mixture: Rich - Carb. Heat: On - Engine Gauges: Check for power loss - Primer: Check locked
85
NITS briefing
Nature of Problem Intentions Time to handle situation Special instructions
86
Safety brief - detail
- Emergency exit locations/use - Seat belt operation - Fire extinguisher & first aid kit location/use - Instruct to remain clear of controls - Brace position
87
Touchdown process in emergency
Aim to land at lowest possible airspeed When committed to landing: i) Turn off master ii) Turn off ignition iii) Fuel Selector to off iv) Mixture to idle cut off
88
Brace instructions
15 seconds before landing, shout "BRACE BRACE - BRACE BRACE - BRACE BRACE"
89
Definition of contaminated runway
More than 25% of runway surface are covered by: i) Surface water (or equivalent slush/loose snow) over 3mm; ii) Compressed snow; or iii) Ice or wet ice.
90
Surface conditions (5)
Not contaminated - Dry - Damp - Wet Contaminated - Water patches - Flooded
91
Surface condition described as "change of colour of runway surface"
Wet
92
Which runways are friction assessed in UK?
Hard surfaces only ASDA >1,200m Used for public transport craft >2,730kg
93
CFME (runway friction)
Continuous Friction Measuring Equipment
94
Global Reporting Format runway surface conditions
Dry Wet Slippery wet Contaminated
95
Runway contaminations (8)
Standing Water Compacted Snow Dry Snow Wet Snow Ice Wet Ice Frost Slush
96
SNOWTAM runway condition codes
0 (worst) to 6 (best)
97
Current position sign (taxiway)
98
Mandatory point sign (runway ahead)
99
Destination sign, taxiway or runway in this direction
100
Information sign, e.g. distance to runway
101
Best way to check fuel contents
Visually inspect tank, gauges can be misleading
102
Type of ice that forms on aircraft overnight
Hoar frost
103
Requirement for flight if ice exists in inspection
All ice must be removed before flight can take place
104
PAPI light signals
2 red 2 white is on glide scope More red is too low More white is to high
105
VASI light signals
3 red 3 white is on glide scope 6 red is low 6 white is high
106
OLS light signals
Single white in middle of line of green is on glide scope If white is above, you are high, if white (or turning red) is below, too low.
107
Mode S transponder parameters (9)
- Selected altitude - Pressure setting - Roll angle - True track angle - Track angle rate - Magnetic heading - Ground speed - IAS - Vertical rate
108
Time limit for filing mandatory occurrence report (MOR)
72 hours
109
Action if unsure of position when taxiing
Stop - unless on a runway - notify ATS and ask for clarification
110
Difference between UK and ICAO for flight plans?
UK doesn't require formal flight plan closure
111
Impact of tire pressure on aquaplaning speed
Higher tire pressure increases aquaplaning speed

PPL 2023 (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions