Air Law Flashcards
(389 cards)
1
Q
ICAO year formed
A
1947
2
Q
ICAO Article stating aircraft have right to make flights across territories and landings without permission
A
Article 5
3
Q
ICAO Article stating scheduled international air services need permission from states to operate in
A
Article 6
4
Q
ICAO article concerning customs airports
A
Article 10
5
Q
ICAO Article concerning rules of the air in all states should be uniform with those established under ICAO convention
A
Article 12
6
Q
ICAO Article right to search
A
Article 16
7
Q
ICAO Article concerning aircraft being free of duty/tax
A
Article 24
8
Q
ICAO Article relating to airworthiness of aircraft
A
Article 29
9
Q
ICAO Article relating to carrying and use of radios
A
Article 30
10
Q
ICAO Article relating to competency and licenses of flight crew
A
Article 32
11
Q
ICAO Article relating to recognition of flight crew licenses by other states
A
Article 33
12
Q
Minimum (4) equipment required on all VFR aircraft
A
Sensitive pressure altimeter
Airspeed indicator
Magnetic compass
Accurate timepiece
13
Q
ISA stands for
A
International Standard Atmosphere
14
Q
3 Characteristics of ISA
A
Sea level pressure of 1013 hPa
Sea level temperature of 15 degrees celsius
Sea level density of 1.225 kg/mcubed
15
Q
ISA pressure reduction
A
1hPa every 30ft
16
Q
ISA temp reduction
A
2 degrees every 1000ft
17
Q
What is the Regional Pressure Setting?
A
Lowest forecast pressure setting for each ASR
18
Q
How regularly is the RPS updated?
A
Every hour
19
Q
MATZ characteristics
A
5nm radius, surface to 3000’
20
Q
MATZ stub characteristic
A
5nm from MATZ, 2nm either side of extended centreline, 1000’ to 3000’
21
Q
On charts, civil aerodromes are shown in what colour?
A
Red
22
Q
On charts, military aerodromes are shown in what colour?
A
Blue
23
Q
What is a CTR?
A
Control Zone
24
Q
What is a CTA?
A
Control Area
25
CTR purpose
Controlled airspace extending from surface to a level
26
CTA purpose
Controlled airspace that extends from a level to a level
27
What is a TMA?
Terminal Manouvering Area
28
TMA purpose
CTA at the confluence of airways
29
What airspace class is VFR not allowed in?
Class A
30
Class B Rules
Separation provided between all aircraft
31
Class C Rules
Separation provided between IFR traffic, and IFR from VFR traffic
32
Class D Rules
Separation provided between IFR traaffic
33
Class E Rules
Separation provided between IFR traffic, clearance not required for VFR traffic
34
Two types of uncontrolled airspaces
Class F and Class G
35
Class G Rules
Open Flight Information Region
36
UK uses Class A for what
CTAs, London TMA, airwways
37
UK uses Class B for what
Not used
38
UK uses Class C for what
Above FL195
39
UK uses Class D for what
CTAs and CTRs, Luton CTR
40
UK uses Class E for what
Some airways, moostly Scotland
41
UK uses Class G for what
Everywhere else
42
Rules of the Air: risk of collision when?
When an aircraft is on a constant relative bearing
43
Rules of the Air: aircraft on a constant relative bearing means?
Risk of collision
44
Rules of the Air: aircraft turn what when approaching head on?
Right
45
Rules of the Air: who has right of way in an overtake?
Aircraft being overtaken
46
Rules of the Air: aircraft being overtaken must
Maintain heading and speed
47
Rules of the Air: overtaking in the air
Keep aircraft on your left
48
Rules of the Air: overtaking on the ground
Keep aircraft on your right
49
Rules of the Air: differences in overtaking on ground/in air
In air, overtake on the right, on ground, overtake on the left
50
Rules of the Air: aircraft give way to
Airships, gliders and balloons
51
Rules of the Air: default circuit direction
Lefthand
52
Rules of the Air: two aircraft on final
Lower aircraft has right of way
53
Rules of the Air: following a ground feature...
Keep feature on your right
54
Rules of the Air: aircraft lights
Wing nav lights 110 degrees, tail light 140 degrees
55
Low Flying Prohibitionns Rule
Except for take off and landing, VFR flight shall not be flown less than 500 ft above ground/watr of above highest obstacles within 500ft radius
56
1000ft Rule
Flying over congested area shall not fly below height of 1000' above highest fixed obstacle within 600m horizontal radius
57
1000ft Rule exception
Written permission of the CAA
58
Land Clear rule
Aircraft over congested area shall not fly below a height that would not allow the aircraft to land clear in the event of a power unit failure
59
Flying over Open Assemblies rule
Shall not fly below 1000ft or such height that would not allow the aircraft to land clear
60
Open Air Assemblies with a minimum of
1000 people
61
VMC inside controlled airspace: above FL100
Visibility 8km ahead and 1500m behind
1000ft vertical from clouds
62
VMC inside controlled airspace: below FL100
Visibility 5km ahead and 1500m behind
1000ft vertical from clouds
63
VMC inside controlled airspace (C and E): below 3000' or 1000' above terrain, whichever is higher
Visibility 5km ahead and 1500m behind
1000ft vertical from clouds
64
VMC inside and outside controlled airspace (D): below 3000' or 1000' above terrain, whichever is higher is triggered by which speed or less
140 knots
65
VMC inside controlled airspace (D): below 3000' or 1000' above terrain, whichever is higher at 140 kts or less
Clear of cloud and in sight of surface
66
VFR minima only relevant for which controlled Airspace classes
C, D and E
67
Unless under Special VFR, VFR flights shouldn't takeoff/land/enter ATZ and CTR inside controlled airspace with what minima
Visibility less than 5km
Cloud ceiling below 1500ft
68
VFR minima outside controlled airspace: similarity to controlled airspace
Visibility 8km or 5km, 1500m behind
1000ft vertical from cloud
69
VFR minima outside controlled airspace, below 3000ft etc
5km visibility or 1500m if 140 knots or less
Clear of cloud and in sight of surface
70
Key altitude and speed for VFR minima determination
3000ft and 140 knots
71
IFR minima
Not less than 1000' below highest obstacle within 5nm
72
IFR minima exceptions
Unless for taking off and landing
Below 3000'AMSL, clear of clouds with surface in sight and flight visibilty of at least 800m
73
Special VFR circumstances
If in IMC conditions, VFR pilot can request SVFR to transit controlled airspace
74
SVFR minima
Visibility better than 1500m and clear of cloud and in sight of surface
75
Night definition
30 mins before sunrise and 30 mins after sunset
76
At night, obstacle characteristics higher than 500ft
Steady red light
77
At night, a steady red light indicates a
Obstacle higher than 500ft
78
500ft obstacles at night lit in exceptional circumstances in what way?
High intensity flashing white lights
79
At night, aeordrome identification beacons do what
Flash 2-letter morse code every 12 seconds
80
Runways: What is longest of the 4 DAs?
TODA
81
Runways: What is the shortest of the 4 DAs?
LDA
82
Runways: ASDA is
TORA + stopway
83
Runways: TODA is
TORA + clearway
84
Aerodromes: runway markings are
White
85
Aerodromes: taxiway markings are
Yellow
86
Aerodromes: runway edge lights are
Omni-directional white
87
Aerodromes: runway threshold lights are
Green from approach
88
Aerodromes: runway end lights are
Red in direction of runway
89
Aerodromes: taxiway lights
Centre is green and edge is blue
90
Aerodrome signals: White 'T' with a ball on top, or black ball suspended from a mast
Direction of takeoff and landing do not coincide
91
Aerodrome signals: clear white dumbell
Movement confined to hard surfaces
92
Aerodrome signals: white dumbell with black stripes
Take off and landing must be on runway, but ground movement not confined to hard surfaces
93
Aerodrome signals: horizontal red square with single yellow diagonal
State of manouvering area is poor
94
Aerodrome signals: red square with yellow diagonal cross
Aerodrome unsafe and landing is prohibited
95
Aerodrome signals: double white cross or two red balls suspended from mast
Glider flying is taking place
96
Aerodrome signals: yellow cross
Gliding two-rope dropping area
97
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. continuous red
Stop
98
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. stop signal
Continuous red
99
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. flashing red
Move clear of landing area
100
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. move clear of landing area
Flashing red
101
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. continuous green
Cleared take off
102
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. cleared take off
Continuous green
103
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. flashing green
Cleared to taxi
104
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. cleared to taxi
Flashing green
105
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. flashing white
Return to apron
106
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to ground aircraft. return to apron
Flashing white
107
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. continuous red
Do not land, continue circling
108
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. do not land and continue circling
Continuous red
109
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. flashing red
Do not land
110
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. do not land
Flashing red
111
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. continuous green
Cleared to land
112
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. cleared to land
Continuous green
113
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. flashing green
Return to aerodrome, wait for permission to land
114
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. return to aerodrome and wait for permission to land
Flashing green
115
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. flashing white
Land after continuous green
116
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. land after continuous green
Flashing white
117
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. red flare
Do not land, wait for permission
118
Aerodrome signals: ATSU to aircraft in air. do not land, wait for permission
Red flare
119
Aerodrome signals: aircraft flashing its landing lights or navigation lights on and off
I am compelled to land
120
5 Air Traffic services outside controlled airspace
Basic, Traffic, Deconfliction, Procedural, Alerting
121
Which of the 5 ATC services outside controlled is provided automatically?
Alerting
122
Procedural Service can only be provided to..?
IFR flights
123
Which ATC services outside controlled airspaces involve potential entry into IMC?
Deconfliction and Procedural
124
What ATC service is provided inside controlled airspace?
Radar Control Service
125
Three kinds of Secondary Radar (Transponder)?
Mode A, C and S
126
Hijack Squawk Code
7500
127
Radio Failure Squawk Code
7600
128
Emergency Squawk Code
7700
129
Mode C is
Mode A plus pressure altitude
130
Mode S is
Mode A/C plus Registration, Type, Speed and more
131
Search and Rescue Signals: V
Require assistance
132
Search and Rescue Signals: require assistance
V
133
Search and Rescue Signals: require medical assistance
X
134
Search and Rescue Signals:X
Require medical assistance
135
Licence privileges related to state
Pilots must have a license issuedby the state in which the aircraft is registered
136
An SEP lasts how many years before renewal?
2
137
2 methods to renew an SEP?
Proficiency check or by experience
138
SEP renewal involves how many hours of relevant experience?
12
139
SEP renewal by experience - 12 hour breakdown
6 hours PIC, 12 takeoffs and landings, training flight of 1 hour with FI
140
SEP currency for passengers
Within last 90 days, 3 takeoffs and landings
141
IR (R) gives what visibility minima for takeoff and landing
1800m
142
ATC clearance required for VFR in Class E?
No
143
ATC clearance required for IFR in Class E?
Yes
144
What is the difference of VFR minima between Class C/E and D?
C/E is 5km/1500m/1000ft and D is Clear of Cloud and in Sight of Surface
145
AIC stands for
Aeronautical Information Circular
146
AIC stands for
Aeronautical Information Circular
147
AIC administration matters coloured in
White
148
AIC administration matters coloured in
White
149
AIC operational matters coloured in
Yellow
150
AIC charts coloured in
Green
151
AIC charts coloured in
Green
152
AIC temp airspace restriction coloured in
Mauve
153
AIC safety related topics coloured in
Pink
154
SERA stands for
Standard European Rules of the Air
155
ANO stands for
Air Navigation Order
156
Name of legal UK doc for aviation
Air Navigation Order
157
ANO states that UK will adhere to
SERA and specific UK rules
158
AIP stands for
Aeronautical Information Publication
159
Why is AIP not legal?
Contains info for safe conduct of flight only
160
Student pilots can operate under the instructor's licences when flying solo as part of their training?
Yes
161
Official Differences can be obtained by what 2 parts of training?
Training from an instructor and log-book sign off
162
From what date does the Single Engine Piston (Land) Class Rating become valid?
Date of skills test
163
Revalidating a SEP(Land) Class Rating by experience requires how many takeoffs and landings within last 12 months?
12
164
Revalidating a SEP(Land) Class Rating by experience considers experience how far back?
12 months
165
Revalidating a SEP(Land) Class Rating by experience considers the entire previous 24 months of experience?
False
166
As a PART-FCL PPL(A) licence holder, you may legally hire an aircraft for business use, and claim back the cost of that hire from the business. True or False?
True, but only as long as you're not employed as a pilot
167
Renewing a a SEP(Land) Class Rating can be done by experience?
False
168
Difference in revalidating a a SEP(Land) Class Rating compared to renewing it?
You can use experience, as well as a License Proficiency Check
169
ONLY exception to the rule about night flying without a rating?
Allowed 5 solo takeoffs and landings
170
To fly a different variant of aircraft within the same CLASS (that does NOT have any of the official differences), what is required?
Familiarisation
171
FRTOL stands for
Flight Radiotelephony Operators Licence
172
License relating to use of radio
FRTOL
173
The minimum age to hold an FRTOL is?
14
174
Your logbook must be kept for how long?
2 years from the date of the last entry
175
Minimum age to go solo (medical permitting):
16
176
Minimum age for PPLicence issue:
17
177
UK TMZs require what transponder for flights without a clearance?
Mode S
178
Can aircraft without a transponder, or only with Mode A, enter a TMZ?
Yes, but only by first gaining a clearance to enter via RTF
179
Can aircraft without a transponder, or only with Mode A, enter a TMZ?
Yes, but only by first gaining a clearance to enter via RTF
180
Minimum cloud ceiling at night for VFR?
1500ft
181
Revalidating a SEP(Land) Class Rating by experience requires how much PIC?
6 hours
182
Minimum PIC hours for a multi-engine piston (land)?
70
183
Part-MED Class 2 medical is valid for (until 40 years old)?
60 months
184
All airspace items on the aviation chart are shown in what kind of height measurement?
AMSL
185
For an obstacle to be shown on a chart, it must be higher than...
328ft AGL
186
All Restricted Areas apply to all types of aircraft. True or False?
False
187
<500ft Terrain on a NATS 1:500,000 chart is
White
188
500-1000ft Terrain on a NATS 1:500,000 chart is
Yellow
189
>3000ft Terrain on a NATS 1:500,000 chart is
Dark Orange
190
Are hazards of a non-temporary nature marked on a chart?
Yes
191
Which of the UK Flight Information Services (outside Controlled airspace) need to have radar in order for that service to be provided?
Traffic; Deconfliction
192
Traffic and Deconfliction Services require what ATC equipment?
Radar
193
What ATService can AFIS provide?
Basic and Alerting
194
What ATService is provided by all types of ATSU?
Alerting
195
What does AFIS stand for?
Aerodrome Flight Information Service
196
Why can't AGCS provide an Alerting Service?
Air Ground Communications Services (AGCS) is not viewed by the UK as an Air Traffic Service Unit
197
What does AGCS stand for?
Air Ground Communications Services
198
How is it possible that ATC can control uncontrolled airspace?
If ATC exists at an airfield that has a Class G ATZ, then the airspace is "Notified"
199
Safetycom frequency?
135.480
200
What ATSU can't control in air but can on the ground?
AFIS
201
An AGCS ATSU can instruct an aircraft to remain clear of the ATZ. True or False?
False
202
Deconfliction only available to what kind of flights?
IFR
203
If under Deconfliction Service, a/c must request what?
Request a heading or altitude change from the controller
204
Outside CAS, what service must you request heading/altitude changes from the controller?
Deconfliction Service
205
What 2 documents keep a Certificate of Airworthiness valid?
Airworthiness Review Certificate,
Certificate of Release to Service
206
How long is a C of A valid for?
It's non-expiring
207
What aircraft document is non-expiring?
Certificate of Airworthiness
208
Aircraft Documents: What does an ARC stand for?
Airworthiness Review Certificate
209
ARC is a single piece of paper that has the space for up to how many entries?
3
210
An ARC's single entry is valid for how long?
1 year
211
What is the minimum equipment required to be carried when flying VFR?
Airspeed indicator; Altimeter; Compass; Time-piece, Chart
212
Other than the 4 mandatory equipment for an aircraft when flying VFR, what else is required?
Chart
213
How long must the existing Weight and Balance Schedule be kept after re-issue following an aircraft re-weigh?
6 months
214
Which document details when the next check is due on an aircraft?
Certificate of Release to Service (CRS)
215
When should an aircraft anti-collision beacon be turned on?
Before engine start, and all the time whilst the engine is running
216
An aircraft may fly anywhere without displaying its registration. True or False?
True, but only if an exemption is obtained from every state in which the aircraft is to fly
217
Does airspeed affect VMC criteria?
No
218
SVFR can only enter what kind of Controlled Airspace?
Control Zone
219
In the UK, is SVFR allowed at night?
Yes
220
SVFR minima
Inside CTR
Visibility of 1500m
140kt IAS
Clear of cloud and in sight of surface
221
Visibility for SVFR is determined by a controller only when?
If aircraft is taking off or landing within a CTR?
222
When can a pilot determine visibility inside controlled airspace?
If under SVFR as long as they are not taking off or landing within CTR
223
In uncontrolled airspace, who determines the visibility?
Pilots
224
When do pilots determine visibility?
Outside controlled airspace and inside a CTR under SVFR if not taking off or landing
225
Chief difference concerning SVFR between SERA and UK ANO?
SVFR is permitted at night in the UK
226
To fly IFR, a working radio in the aircraft is always a mandatory requirement. True or False?
False
227
For IFR, when is a working radio a mandatory requirement?
Inside controlled airspace
228
For IFR, when is a working radio not required?
In Class G
229
Is SVFR allowed in Class E airspace?
No
230
In what controlled airspace does the VFR minima become reduced for 140kts/below 3000' etc?
Class D
231
ICAO semi-circular rule is determined by what aircraft measurement?
Magnetic track
232
Angular difference between the Heading and Track of the aircraft is called?
Drift
233
The IFR semi-circular rule only applies when the aircraft is flying above the...?
Transition Altitude
234
Under SVFR in the UK, whhat height rule is exempted?
Not below 1000ft of highst part of conngested area within 600m
235
SERA low flying rules (SERA.5005)
Not below 500ft agl
Not below 1000ft of the highest object of a congested part of a built up area within 600m radius of the aircraft
Not below a height that would allow a landing to be made without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface (SERA.3105)
236
What separation is required when flying near a gathering of more than 1,000 people when not taking off or landing, or performing a practice forced landing?
1,000ft height clearance whilst within 600m horizontally of the gathering
237
For clearance requirements, is congested city/town/settlement the same as a city/town/settlement?
No
238
An overtaking situation exists when the overtaking aircraft is within what degree of the tail of the other aircraft?
70 degrees
239
When are you exempt from all of the low flying requirements?
During taking off aand landing
240
Which reference below describes the "Low Flying" prohibitions?
SERA.5005
241
IFR 1000ft rule
1000ft above highest obstacle in 5nm radius
242
Aircrafts that have right of way should maintain what?
Course and speed
243
In the UK there is no minimum height required. True or False?
True
244
In the UK there is no minimum height required ONLY if...?
The aircraft remains at least 500ft AWAY from any person, vehicle, vessel or structure
245
Who is higher up in hierarchy of giving way in the air? Gliders or airships?
Gliders
246
Someone asks you (a pilot) to perform a fly-by at a local village fete, which they will advertise as being an attraction at their event. What has to take place to be legal?
ANO Article 86 applies, meaning the pilot must have a Display Authorisation, and an Article 86 permission must be gained from the CAA. All the requirements of CAP403 must be adhered to affecting both pilot and event organiser
247
In order for an aircraft and pilot to be able to participate in that display, they must hold a
valid "Display Authorisation"
248
What is the maximum combination length of an aircraft towing a banner?
150m
249
You wish to transport your shotgun on a flight with you. What rules and procedures apply?
The gun must be unloaded, and not accessible to passengers during flight
250
Does an Air Ground Communications Service have authority over an ATZ?
No
251
A pilot may perform aerobatics in an ATZ associated with an AGCS without permission. True or False?
True
252
In order to be able to purposely drop anything from an aircraft (except for the purpose of saving life), what do you need?
A specific exemption from the Rules of the Air
253
An Article 89 exemption from the CAA costs money?
No
254
In order to practice instrument flight, the only requirement is for a competent observer be present in the aircraft. True or False?
False
255
In addition to carrying a qualified pilot as a passenger, what else is required for simulated instrument flight conditions?
Fully functional dual controls
256
A person on the ground fires a laser pen at an aircraft passing overhead. What (in words) is the ANO article they would be prosecuted under?
Endangering the safety of an Aircraft
257
A Part-FCL PPL(A) may perform glider tugging, banner towing and parachute dropping. True or False?
True. But only after the correct rating has been obtained if this is to take place after April 2018
258
Caveat to PPL(A) pilots being able to do glider tugging/banner towing and parachute dropping (with appropriate ratings)
Cannot be renumerated (paid)
259
Best way to describe rights of way for ground manouevering?
An aircraft under its own power has PRIORITY over a vehicle towing an aircraft
260
An aircraft on the ground under its own power has to give way to a vehicle towing an aircraft. True or False?
False
261
Air Traffic refers to any aircraft...
In the air or on the manoeuvring area of an airfield
262
Where does the term Air Traffic not apply?
Apron
263
What useful rule can be remembered for explaining landing ON THE RIGHT of a departing aircraft?
Default circuit direction is lefthand
264
At an airfield with no designated runway, when coming in to land with an aircraft lined up for take-off, what side should you land on?
Right
265
What is the meaning of a flashing white light signalled from the ground to an aircraft in flight?
Land here and proceed to the apron when clearances given
266
What is the meaning of a flashing white light signalled from the ground to an aircraft on the ground?
Return to starting point of aerodrome
267
What signifies your first place to visit when arriving at an airfield?
A black "C" on a yellow square background
268
A black "C" on a yellow square background indicates what?
Control Point of an aerodrome
269
On the ground, when overtaking another aircraft, which side do you pass?
Either side
270
What colour is a Civilian Aerodrome Identification beacon always?
Green
271
Civilian Aerodrome Identification beacons flash what?
Morse identity of aerodrome
272
Civilian Aerodrome Beacons can flash what?
Just white or alternate white/green
273
On a cross-country exercise, you follow the A140 to Norwich
You should keep the line feature on your left
274
Formal (ATS) Flight Plans are advised if flight is to take place:
Over the sea
More than 10 miles from the coast
Over sparsely populated areas where SAR operations might be difficult
275
A formal (ATS) flight plan must be filed when??
The flight crosses an International Boundary (an international FIR boundary).
276
You must use what pressure altitude setting when flying below controlled airspace??
QNH
277
What is the difference between the QNH and the Regional Pressure Setting (RPS)?
QNH is the actual pressure setting at this point in time. The Regional Pressure Setting (RPS) is a forecast pressure setting that is the lowest forecast setting for the next 2 hours (updated hourly) in a given Altimeter Setting Region (ASR)
278
When does issues relating to customs apply to foreign aircraft in a state?
Only if they are landing or departing from that state
279
Under the Convention on International Civil Aviation, a State must not force an aircraft to land for customs purposes. True or False?
True
280
An aircraft overflies a state. Are they subject to customs purposes?
No
281
Are interception procedures required to be carried on international flights?
Yes
282
Are aircraft journey logbooks required to be carried on international flights?
Yes
283
Is the cargo manifest required to be carried on international flights?
Yes
284
Does a state have the right to search an aircraft, and if so, what conditions apply?
Yes, providing no "unreasonable delay" is incurred
285
What condition applies when a state is searching a foreign aircraft?
No unreasonable delay is incurred
286
An aircraft flies in a foreign airspace. What laws apply?
Air law of state the aircraft is registered in and the state the aircraft is flying in
287
You decide to take off from Earls Colne (UK), transit across France without landing, then land in Germany. Do you need prior permission from France and Germany to do so from an aviation Air Law perspective?
No permission from either required
288
ICAO Article 5 concerns what about permissions?
No permission required for overflight and arrivals if non-scheduled
289
What condition largely exempts a flight from permissions etc in international flying?
Non-scheduled
290
What technique should be used when transmitting messages in a radio failure situation?
Prefix all messages with "Transmitting blind"
291
What is the prefix for an URGENCY message?
PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN
292
What is used for a distress signal? Pan or Mayday
Mayday
293
What is used for an urgency signal?
Pan-Pan
294
What is more serious? Distress or urgency?
Disttress
295
When escaping a Prohibited Area, what should pilots not do?
Descend
296
If Pan-Pan, what is broadcast in Morse code (if necessary)?
X-X-X
297
Morse broadcast of X-X-X means an aircraft is what?
In a state of urgency (pan-pan)
298
If you have already been given a squawk by the current ATSU you are talking to during an emergency, what should you do?
Keep that squawk
299
If you have not been given a squawk by the current ATSU you are talking to in an emergency, what should you do?
Squawk 7700
300
Aerobatics squawk
7004
301
Lost squawk
0030
302
A squawk code of 0030 means an aircraft is
Lost
303
What is the international distress VHF frequency?
121.500 MHz
304
Aircraft response if intercepted?
Rocking aircraft, flashing navigational lights at irregular intervals and following.
305
Intercepted aircraft regular switching on and off of all available lights but in such a manner as to be distinct from flashing lights means?
Cannot comply
306
Intercepting aircraft commences an abrupt breakaway manoeuvre from the intercepted aircraft consisting of a climbing turn of 90 degrees or more without crossing the line of flight of the intercepted aircraft. This means?
You may proceed
307
How should you try to make contact with your interceptor?
On 121.5 MHz
308
Death by natural causes on a flight is a reportable accident?
False
309
A passenger suffers a heart attack in your aircraft, survives, but dies 6 days later. Since this is an occurrence within 7 days of the flight, it becomes a reportable accident. True or False?
False
310
Who investigates accidents?
AAIB
311
Does the CAA investigate accidents?
No
312
Is blame apportioned in an aircraft accident investigation?
No
313
What does CHIRP stand for?
Confidential Human Factors Incident Reporting Programme.
314
Is CHIRP anonymous?
No
315
A serious injury is defined by a hospital stay of longer than....?
48 hours
316
A pilot tells ATC about significant wind sheer on the approach. What is the official name for this type of observation?
A Special Air Report
317
Bird Strikes are a mandatory occurrence report item?
True
318
Reporting of bird strikes is optional, and any remains should be sent for analysis if the type of bird cannot be identified. True or False?
False
319
What should be your initial response to being intercepted?
Rock your wings and follow the interceptor
320
A student pilot on a solo circuit detail hears "PAN PAN, PAN PAN, PAN PAN" from an aircraft in the overhead at the same airfield whilst the student is on base leg. What is the best course of action for the student to take?
Continue their approach and land as soon as possible
321
Which of the following R/T calls is correct on the downwind leg on Runway 24 when a full stop landing is planned?
Downwind
322
Pre-conditioning in terms of human factors in the circuit means
Every approach should be planned with a go-around ocurring
323
A student pilot must have completed 3 take-offs and landings in the previous 90 days before solo flight. True or False?
False
324
Why does the 3 takeoffs and landings in the last 90 days rule not apply to students?
Students cannot carry passengers
325
Only exception to Aircraft shall not land on an occupied runway?
Land after clearance from a full ATC ATSU
326
Can you land on an occupied runway at an AGCS-staffed aerodrome?
No
327
Fly on what side of runway when going around because of a departing aircraft?
Dead side
328
From a legal perspective, it is permissible for an aircraft to take-off from an "occupied" runway?
Yes
329
As a student pilot, at an airfield with an AGCS ATSU, you line up on the runway behind a landing aircraft. When may you take off?
When you consider it safe to do so with enough room between you and the landing aircraft
330
Which document contains the official aviation sunset times?
AIP
331
What intl agency is a 'competent authority' related to?
EASA
332
Article 4 of ICAO Convention
Misuse of civil aviation
333
What does SARPs stand for?
Standards and Recommended Practices
334
What SARPs are discussed in ICAO Annex 2?
Rules of the Air
335
What characterises a hot air balloon's night lighting?
A red flashing light
336
Colour of runway threshold lights?
Green in approach, red at the end
337
What ICAO Article concerns sovereignty?
Article 1
338
A white light and red/green nav lights at night indicate an?
Airship
339
What ICAO Annex concerns search and rescue operations?
Annex 12
340
When reporting water on the runway, what is considered to be a 'significant portion' of wetness of a runway?
25% of one third of the runway
341
When reporting a runway's state, how is it reported?
Each third of the runway reported separately
342
Temporarily displaced runway thresholds are characterised with what symbol?
White chevrons
343
Wingsocks become horizontal at what approximate speed?
25 to 30 knots
344
What categories of Rescue and FireFighting (RFF) cover most light aircraft?
1 and 2
345
Marshalling: waving both hands above shoulders left to right and back to left
Continue ahead
346
Marshalling: waving both hands below shoulders left to right and back to left
Slow down
347
Marshalling: both hands below shoulder stationary
Hold position
348
Marshalling: clenching fist
Set brakes
349
Marshalling: unclenching fist
Release brakes
350
Marshalling: hands high above ahead and moving inwards
Chocks inserted
351
Marshalling: hands high above head and moving outwards
Chocks removed
352
Marshalling: paddles in one hand below shoulders and the other hand waving
Recommend evacuation
353
Marshalling: overlapping both hands well below shoulders together
Emergency contained
354
What takes precedence: light signals or a flare?
Flare
355
How to acknowledge a light signal on the ground at day?
Moving ailerons and rudder
356
How to acknowledge a light signal in the air (unless on finals) at day?
Rocking wings
357
VFR flights can land or depart from aerodromes within CTR with what minima?
Cloud ceiling 1500ft
Visibility 5km
358
Can Special VFR not talk to ATC?
No
359
What airspace doesn't exist in the UK/
Class F
360
Prohibited, Restricted Areas and Danger Zones are categorised as what?
Notified Airspace
361
On an airspace chart, an area labelled with Rxxx is a what?
Restricted Area
362
What does RMZ stand for?
Radio Mandatory Zone
363
Item to remember on NOTAM publications to do with the date?
Format is written in reverse
364
Part-FCL vocabulary often refers to gliders as...?
Sailplanes
365
How long is a Multi-Engine Piston Rating valid for?
12 months
366
How soon before an expiry date of an SEP rating can a proficiency check be performed?
3 months
367
Experience required for revalidation of MEP?
Proficiency check
10 route sectors as PIC
1 route sector with an examiner
368
MEP revalidation can involve which overlap?
1 route sector with examiner can be performed during the proficiency check
369
LAPL max weight and passengers?
2000 kg and 3 passengers
370
Passengers can only be flown after what requirement?
10 hours PIC after license issue
371
Flying below 140KIAS under 3000ft reduces VMC minima from what to what?
Visibility 5km to 1500m
372
Class 1 Medical Certificate validity up to 40 years of age
12 months
373
Validity of Class 2 Medical, 40 to 50 years of age?
24 months
374
Validity of Class 2 Medical over 50 years of age?
12 months
375
Unless above 60 years of age, in multi-pilot environments a Class 1 Medical is valid for how long?
12 months
376
Which document details when the next check is due on an aircraft?
Certificate of Release to Service
377
When under SVFR, what restriction is waived in the UK relating to minimum height?
1000ft rule
378
An Aerodrome Identification Beacon can be white?
False
379
An Aerodrome Identification Beacon is always what colour?
Green
380
Pilots should contact an ATC unit or other Authority at an aerodrome they are expected at if delayed by...?
30 minutes or more
381
Who is responsible for starting the investigation into an aircraft accident?
The Authority of the State in which the accident occurred
382
Is a serious injury to a person classed as an aircraft accident?
Yes
383
At night, a location emitting a two-letter morse code in red is a..?
Military airport
384
Mode C displays what info?
Aircraft's flight level
385
If a flightplan's destination remains the same but its routing changes, does it require a new flightplan?
No
386
On a chart, GVS stands for?
Gas Venting Stations
387
Which of the following documents will contain the name of the aircraft owner?
Certificate of Registration
388
An air traffic control unit shall not issue a special VFR clearance to aircraft to take off or land at an aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or aerodrome traffic circuit when the reported meteorological conditions at that aerodrome are below the following minima:
The ground visibility is less than 1500 m or, for helicopters, less than 800 m;
The ceiling is less than 180 m (600 ft).
389
SVFR minima
1500m visibility
