Air Traffic Control and IFR Flashcards

1
Q

TRACON is the contraction for what?

A

Terminal Radar Approach Control

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2
Q

Who has the sole responsibility to see and avoid other aircraft, terrain, and obstructions while in VMC?

A

The pilot in command

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3
Q

“Heavy” Aircraft are defined as airplanes with a certificated maximum takeoff weight of what

A

more than 41,000 lbs

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4
Q

How much vertical separation do you have with other airplanes up to FL290?

A

1,000 ft.

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5
Q

To fly (cruise) between FL 290 and FL 410 you must have what?

A

Reduced vertical separation minimum authorization (RVSM)

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6
Q

Above FL410 what vertical separation do you have with other traffic?

A

2,000 ft.

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7
Q

If you don’t have RVSM, where can you cruise?

A

Below FL290 and above FL410

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8
Q

When are position reports necessary?

A

When not in radar contact

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9
Q

What does a position report entail?

A
  1. identification
  2. position
  3. time over reporting point
  4. Altitude or FL
  5. Type of flight plan (only if report is to a FSS)
  6. ETA & name of next reporting point
  7. Name or reporting point after next
  8. pertinent remarks
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10
Q

Compulsory reporting points are shown by what?

A

a solid triangle or if the route is not on an established air route, then any fix that defines the route

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11
Q

When weather is less than vfr, when must you file and obtain a clearance?

A

prior to entering controlled airspace

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12
Q

What is ATC purpose?

A

To provide separation for airplanes in controlled airspace while flying IFR

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13
Q

What are the different Air Traffic Services Routes (ATS Routes) (“Airways”)?

A
  1. victor airways
  2. jet routes
  3. Q/T routes
  4. colored airways
  5. Arrival / departure routes
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14
Q

Victor airways go from what altitude to what altitude?

A

1,200 AGL to 17,999 MSL

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15
Q

Jet routes go from what altitude to what altitude?

A

18,000 MSL to FL 450

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16
Q

T/F Aircraft above FL450 fly point to point or direct navigation.

A

True

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17
Q

T/F T routes are low altitude RNAV routes, and Q routes are high altitude RNAV routes.

A

True

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18
Q

Colored airways are what?

A

low - medium frequency airways that are still used in alaska and coastal california. They are brown in color and are distinguished by (R)ed (G)reed (A)mber and (B)lue and a number

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19
Q

What are the different VOR classifications?

A

Terminal, Low, and High

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20
Q

Low VOR’s have a reception how far away?

A

from 1,000 AGL to 18000 MSL you can get reception up to 40 miles away

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21
Q

High VOR’s have a reception how far away?

A

same reception of L VOR’s below 14500 MSL. From 14500 msl to 17999 msl it extends to 100 NM. Above 18000 MSL to 450000 MSL it has a range of 130 NM

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22
Q

What is happening when you receive a verbal squeeling and the CDI is swaying back and forth?

A

You are in range of two VOR’s with the same frequency

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23
Q

T/F Terminal VOR’s are signified by a small (T) in the name and are on an airport surface usually used for an approach

A

True

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24
Q

What is the range of a terminal VOR?

A

1,000 AGL to 12,000 AGL with a range of 25 NM (not used for airways)

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25
FSS can be reached on 122.2 above what altitude?
5,000 agl
26
Flight Watch can be contacted 122.0 above what altitude?
5,000 agl
27
What services do flight watch provide?
weather pertinent to your route of flight and pireps
28
Sometimes you can simultaneously receive two VOR's with the same frequency, what are some indications?
An oral squeal and oscillation of the indicators
29
MEA guarantee and don't guarantee what?
guarantee: navigation signal strength, and obstacle clearance don't guarantee: radar coverage and communication
30
MOCA guarantee and don't guarantee what?
guarantee: navigation signal strength within 22 NM of navaid, and obstacle clearance don't guarantee: radar coverage and communication
31
T/F it is sometimes difficult to get a clearance at the MOCA or MEA
True, because those altitude don't ensure radar and communication
32
TRACON's (terminal approach control) handles communication in what dimensions?
30 miles from the primary airport and up to 10,000 to 12,000 feet agl, but soe can handle larger areas (laterally)
33
Air Route Traffic Control Centers are divided into a high altitude sector and a low altitude one, what is the altitude cut off?
FL230
34
When changing altitude, at what rate should you do that?
You should climb or descend at the optimum rate consistent with airplane characteristics until within 1,000 feet from the new altitude, then maintain 500 - 1500 fpm
35
When your maximum climb or descent rate is below 500 fpm you must notify atc of the new climb rate
yes
36
When must you notify atc when your tas differs from that filed in your flight plan
greater of +/- 5% or 10 knots
37
When any communication, navigational or approach equipment becomes inoperative, you must notify ATC, what else must you tell them?
The degree of the impairment and the nature of assistance required from ATC (e.g. no gyro approach, vectors, etc.)
38
T/F when flying direct legs between fixes, radar coverage is required which may result in you having a higher cruising altitude
True
39
When filing a flight plan, go to a navaid close to the airport, or one used in a STAR or approach
Yes
40
By how many miles should you avoid active restricted and prohibited as?
3 nm
41
T/F On high altitude Military operating areas aren't depicted, but there are vertical extensions that may require you to deviate when flying direct legs
True
42
How wide are VOR airspace?
4 NM of centerline
43
What is the obstacle clearance given on an airway?
1,000 in non mountainous areas and 2,000 in mountainous terrain
44
T/F VOR indicators show angular deviation from a course?
True ( a full scale, five dot, deviation indicates 10 degrees off course)
45
60 miles from the VOR, one degree of deviation indicates how many miles from the centerline?
1 mile
46
30 miles from the VOR, one degree of deviation indicates how many miles from the centerline?
1/2 mile
47
GPS CDI indicates linear, not angular deviation
True
48
what are the purposes of SID's
standardize traffic flow, ensure aircraft separation, and provide obstacle clearnace to the en route environment
49
Can you fly a SID without an ATC clearacne to do so?
no
50
Are ODP's textual or graphic?
They can be either. A graphic ODP will have the word "obstacle" in paranthesis
51
When should you fly an ODP?
An atc clearance in not required, and if one is established at the departure airport, fly it whenever in weather other than basic VFR.
52
Do takeoff minimums apply to part 91?
They don't apply unless it is for hire
53
What are standard takeoff minimums for hire?
1SM visibility for airplanes with one or two engines, and 1/2SM visiblity for airplanes with 3 or more engines
54
What is standard IFR Climb Procedure?
Clearance is predicated on a climb of at least 200 feet/NM and a climb to 400' AGL before turning
55
What is the expected descent rate?
250 - 350 feet per NM
56
What is a visual approach and when can it be approved?
It is strictly a visual descent and landing and will be given only when you see the airport and the preceding traffic (no prescribed missed approach)
57
What are the requirements of a "contact approach"
It must be initiated by the pilot and approved by atc, clear of clouds, 1 mile visibilty reported, airport has an approved IAP, and the pilot is responsible for obstruction clearance
58
Altitude Facts:
Never leave an assigned cruising altitude unless on a published route, never descend below published minimum altitudes, follow approach minimums, don't leave da or mda until runway environment is in sight
59
On a no-gyro approach, what rate should your turns be?
Standard rate up to final approach fix, then half standard rate
60
Use full call sign when?
On initial contact or when an airplane has a similar call sign. It can be shortened to last three digits or registration.