Aircraft General Knowledge Flashcards
(128 cards)
1
Q
The thickness of the wing is defined as the distance between the lower and the upper side of the wing at the… (1,00 P.)
most inner part of the wing.
thinnest part of the wing.
thickest part of the wing.
most outer part of the wing.
A
thickest part of the wing.
2
Q
How is referred to a tubular steel construction with a non self-supporting skin? (1,00 P.)
Semi-monocoque construction.
Grid construction
Honeycomb structure
Monocoque construction
A
Grid construction
3
Q
Primary fuselage structures of wood or metal planes are usually made up by what components? (1,00 P.)
Girders, rips and stringers
Frames and stringer
Rips, frames and covers
Covers, stringers and forming parts
A
Frames and stringer
4
Q
Which wing configuration is shown in the attachment? See figure (AGK-002) (1,00 P.)
Strut-braced high wing
High wing
Mid wing
Low wing
https://cloud.wafa-sadri.de/s/XgqTe6iZKm2rgXN
A
Strut-braced high wing
4
Q
A construction made of frames and stringer with a supporting skin is called… (1,00 P.)
Honeycomb structure.
Grid construction.
Wood- or mixed construction.
Semi-monocoque construction.
A
Semi-monocoque construction.
5
Q
Which tail assembly is shown in the attachment? See figure (AGK-003) (1,00 P.)
V-tail
T-tail
Fuselage-mounted tail
Cruciform tail
https://cloud.wafa-sadri.de/s/XgqTe6iZKm2rgXN
A
T-tail
6
Q
What are the major components of an aircraft’s tail? (1,00 P.)
Ailerons and elevator
Horizontal tail and vertical tail
Rudder and ailerons
Steering wheel and pedals
A
Horizontal tail and vertical tail
7
Q
The sandwich structure consists of two… (1,00 P.)
thin layers and a light core material.
thin layers and a heavy core material.
thick layers and a heavy core material.
thick layers and a light core material.
A
thin layers and a light core material.
8
Q
Which constructional elements give the wing its profile shape? (1,00 P.)
Rips
Planking
Spar
Tip
A
Rips
9
Q
The load factor “n” describes the relationship between… (1,00 P.)
thrust and drag.
drag and lift.
lift and weight.
weight and thrust.
A
lift and weight.
10
Q
Which are the advantages of sandwich structures? (1,00 P.)
High temperature durability and low weight
Low weight, high stiffness, high stability, and high strength
Good formability and high temperature durability
High strength and good formability
A
Low weight, high stiffness, high stability, and high strength
11
Q
Which of the stated materials shows the highest strength? (1,00 P.)
Carbon fiber re-inforced plastic
Aluminium
Wood
Magnesium
A
Carbon fiber re-inforced plastic
12
Q
What needs to be considered if permissible limitations were exceeded? (1,00 P.)
The helicopter must be inspected by the pilot in command and if no defect is found, no appropriate entry in the aircraft technical log is necessary
The helicopter must be inspected by at least two pilots licensed on the type, one of whom must be the pilot in command
The helicopter must be inspected by a qualified engineer before the next flight
The helicopter must be subjected to a duplicate inspected by two engineers
A
The helicopter must be inspected by a qualified engineer before the next flight
13
Q
Reasons for dents in the helicopter structure are… (1,00 P.)
material defects or old colour.
intense erosion or high wear.
hard landing or excessive stress.
excessive engine rpm and cylinder defects.
A
hard landing or excessive stress.
14
Q
What kind of hydraulic oil is used in aeroplane systems today? (1,00 P.)
Mineral oil
Vegetable oil
Bio-oil
Synthetic oil
A
Synthetic oil
15
Q
Number 1 on the gear designates the…
See figure (AGK-005) (1,00 P.)
fork.
strut.
torque link.
inner shock absorber
https://cloud.wafa-sadri.de/s/QA2nFwJ2Pn8NgnF
A
fork
16
Q
The fuselage structure may be damaged by… (1,00 P.)
exceeding the manoeuvering speed in heavy gusts.
neutralizing stick forces according to actual flight state.
stall after exceeding the maximum angle of attack.
airspeed decreasing below a certain value.
A
exceeding the manoeuvering speed in heavy gusts.
17
Q
Number 2 on the gear designates the…
See figure (AGK-005) (1,00 P.)
fork.
torque link.
fixed outer cylinder.
movable inner cylinder.
https://cloud.wafa-sadri.de/s/QA2nFwJ2Pn8NgnF
A
movable inner cylinder.
18
Q
How is the nose or tail wheel usually controlled on small aircraft and motor gliders? (1,00 P.)
By the steering wheel
By the control column
By weight movement
By the pedals
A
By the pedals
19
Q
Where is the brake system installed to slow the aircraft on ground? (1,00 P.)
On the tail wheel
On the nose and main gear
Only on the nose gear
Only on the main gear
A
Only on the main gear
20
Q
What kind of control surface is connected with the nose wheel? (1,00 P.)
Elevator
Trim rudder
Aileron
Rudder
A
Rudder
21
Q
What is checked by the marking in the attachment?
See figure (AGK-006) (1,00 P.)
The tread wear of the tire
The operating pressure of the carcass
The correct postion of the tire relative to the rim
The correct position of the outer isolation layers
https://cloud.wafa-sadri.de/s/HYRP45aGFjNwnzj
A
The correct postion of the tire relative to the rim
22
Q
About how many axes does an aircraft move and how are these axes called? (1,00 P.)
4; optical axis, imaginary axis, sagged axis, axis of evil
4; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis, axis of speed
3; x-axis, y-axis, z-axis
3; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis
A
3; vertical axis, lateral axis, longitudinal axis
23
Q
A movement around the longitudinal axis is primarily initiated by the… (1,00 P.)
rudder.
ailerons.
elevator.
trim tab.
A
ailerons
24
How are the flight controls on a small single-engine piston aircraft normally controlled and actuated? (1,00 P.)
Power-assisted through hydraulic pumps or electric motors
Hydraulically through hydraulic pumps and actuators
Manually through rods and control cables
Electrically through fly-by-wire
Manually through rods and control cables
25
What are the primary and the secondary effects of a rudder input to the left? (1,00 P.)
Primary: yaw to the left Secondary: roll to the right
Primary: yaw to the left Secondary: roll to the left
Primary: yaw to the right Secondary: roll to the left
Primary: yaw to the right Secondary: roll to the right
Primary: yaw to the left Secondary: roll to the left
26
What is the effect of pulling the control yoke or stick backwards? (1,00 P.)
The aircraft's tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft's nose to drop
The aircraft's tail will produce an decreased upward force, causing the aircraft's nose to drop
The aircraft's tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft's nose to rise
The aircraft's tail will produce an increased upward force, causing the aircraft's nose to rise
The aircraft's tail will produce an increased downward force, causing the aircraft's nose to rise
27
What happens to a helicopter during cruise when the stick is moved forward without other corrections? (1,00 P.)
The speed increases and the sink rate increases
The speed decreases and the sink rate increases
The speed increases and the sink rate decreases
The speed decreases and the sink rate decreases
The speed increases and the sink rate increases
28
Which of the following options states all primary flight controls of an aircraft? (1,00 P.)
All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft
Flaps, slats, speedbrakes
Elevator, rudder, aileron
Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls
Elevator, rudder, aileron
29
What is the purpose of the secondary flight controls? (1,00 P.)
To constitute a backup system for the primary flight controls
To improve the performance characteristics of an aircraft and relieve the pilot of excessive
control forces
To improve the turn characteristics of an aircraft in the low speed regime during approach and
landing
To enable the pilot to control the aircraft's movements about its three axes
To improve the performance characteristics of an aircraft and relieve the pilot of excessive
control forces
30
What is the purpose of a ground adjustable trim tab? (1,00 P.)
It is set on the ground to correct an out-of-trim condition arising from the mass and balance situation of an aircraft
It is preset on the ground and further adjusted in flight to reduce the need to constantly re-trim the aircraft
It is used to optimize the handling characteristics of an aircraft during ground operations
It is a non-movable metal tab on a flight control which is adjusted on the ground to optimize the
inflight characteristics of an aircraft
It is a non-movable metal tab on a flight control which is adjusted on the ground to optimize the
inflight characteristics of an aircraft
31
The trim wheel or lever in the cockpit is moved aft by the pilot.
What effect does this action have on the trim tab and on the elevator? (1,00 P.)
The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves up
The trim tab moves up, the elevator moves down
The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves up
The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves down
The trim tab moves down, the elevator moves up
32
When trimming an aircraft nose up, in which direction does the trim tab move? (1,00 P.)
Depends on CG position
It moves up
In direction of rudder deflection
It moves down
It moves down
33
How does a balance tab move in relation to the flight control surface that it is coupled with? (1,00 P.)
In the opposite direction
At an angle of 90°
At an angle of 45°
In the same direction
In the opposite direction
34
The trim is used to... (1,00 P.)
increase adverse yaw.
move the centre of gravity.
adapt the control force.
lock control elements.
adapt the control force.
35
Which of the following are an aircraft's secondary flight controls? (1,00 P.)
Elevator, rudder, aileron
All movable parts on the aircraft which aid in controlling the aircraft
Elevator, rudder, aileron, trim tabs, high-lift wing devices, power controls
Wing flaps, leading edge devices, spoilers or speedbrakes, trim systems
Wing flaps, leading edge devices, spoilers or speedbrakes, trim systems
36
What has to be considered during refueling? (1,00 P.)
Check the fuel content of the tank with a torch and remove fire protection
No open fires, obey smoking ban and apply ground cables
Refuel through a soaked rag and keep a fire extinguisher available
Apply ground wires, turn on the main switch and magneto ignition
No open fires, obey smoking ban and apply ground cables
37
The primer is... (1,00 P.)
an auxiliary pump in the fuel system to facilitate engine starting.
a mechanical switch in the cockpit to engage the turbocharger.
a valve in the fuel control system for automatic mixture regulation.
a nozzle in the Venturi tube of a carburettor for atomising the fuel.
an auxiliary pump in the fuel system to facilitate engine starting.
38
What is the purpose of the tank ventilation? (1,00 P.)
To prevent underpressure caused by fuel consumption
To prevent water disposal during parking
To distribute the fuel from one tank segment to the other during flight
To prevent fuel spillage during refueling on the filler plug
To prevent underpressure caused by fuel consumption
39
An aeroplane's current supply is carried out by the:
1. Battery
2. Generator
3. Relay
4. Circuit breaker (1,00 P.)
1 and 4
3 and 4
2 and 3
1 and 2
1 and 2
40
What is the unit for voltage? (1,00 P.)
Ampere
Watt
Ohm
Volt
Volt
41
What is the unit for electrical power? (1,00 P.)
Ampere
Ohm
Watt
Volt
Watt
42
What is the reason for static dischargers on aircraft? (1,00 P.)
To ensure grounding during refueling
To discharge static charging during flight
To eliminate electrical interferences during intensive radio traffic
To improve the quality of radio transmission in high altitudes
To discharge static charging during flight
43
What must be considered if the alternator fails in a helicopter? (1,00 P.)
All instruments and warning systems will fail
No change as long as the battery provides enough power
The engine runs roughly and is prone to knocking
Only high power consumers will failing
No change as long as the battery provides enough power
44
When using direct current, electrically driven flight instruments are marked with... (1,00 P.)
"EL".
"DC".
"AL".
"CO".
DC
45
What devices can be affected by a failure of the electrical system in a helicopter? (1,00 P.)
Fuel quantity indication, radio equipment and altimeter
Radio equipment, navigation equipment and magnetic compass
Airspeed indicator, altimeter and artificial horizon
Radio equipment, navigation equipment and gyros
Radio equipment, navigation equipment and gyros
46
Which cylinder arragement is commonly used on small aircrafts and motor gliders? (1,00 P.)
Horizontally opposed engine
Radial engine
In-line engine
V-type engine
Horizontally opposed engine
47
Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment?
See figure (AGK-007) (1,00 P.)
Second stroke - compression
Fourth stroke - exhaust
First stroke - induction
Third stroke - power
First stroke - induction
48
Which part of the cycle of a four-stroke Otto engine can be seen in the attachment?
See figure (AGK-008) (1,00 P.)
Second stroke - compression
Third stroke - power
Fourth stroke - exhaust
First stroke - induction
Second stroke - compression
49
What is likely to be the cause if the engine runs unusually rough while checking the magnetos? (1,00 P.)
Starter is faulty
Sparking plug is defective
Short circuit on the ground cable
Ignition switch is faulty
Sparking plug is defective
50
The highest absorbtion of humidity in fuel can be observed in which situation? (1,00 P.)
During parking on wet gras areas
During parking on cold aprons
Almost empty tanks
Almost full tanks
Almost empty tanks
51
Where does the condensation water converge in the tank? (1,00 P.)
It floats on the fuel
Near the cap of the tank
At the lowest position
It is mixed with the fuel
At the lowest position
52
What does the octane rating or fuel grade describe? (1,00 P.)
Anti-knock rating
Flame front speed
Ignition timing
Combustion temperature
Anti-knock rating
53
Which colour does Avgas 100 LL have? (1,00 P.)
Red
Green
Yellow
Blue
Blue
54
What is the direct influence by switching on the carburettor heating on fixed propeller engines during engine run-up? (1,00 P.)
RPM decreases
Angle of attack decreases
Angle of attack increases
RPM increaes
RPM decreases
55
What is the major task of a carburettor? (1,00 P.)
To pump fuel from the tanks into the cylinder
To control the aircraft's speed through the throttle valve
To provide additional fuel to cool the engine
To produce an ignitable air/fuel mixture
To produce an ignitable air/fuel mixture
56
In which phase of flight must the carburettor heating be switched off although carburettor icing might be expected? (1,00 P.)
During climb
During cruise
During taxi
During take-off
During take-off
57
In which outside air temperature is icing most likely? (1,00 P.)
Between -5° C and +20° C
Between -10° C and +10° C
Between -20° C and +5° C
Between -15° C and 0° C
Between -5° C and +20° C
58
What is the task of cooling fins on air-cooled engine cylinders? (1,00 P.)
Quick heat transfer to the surrounding air flow by expanding the surface
Cooling of the cylinder surrounding airflow and forwarding to hotter engine parts
Leading the airflow to parts designated to be cooled
Increasing the airflow thus improving cooling of cylinder parts
Quick heat transfer to the surrounding air flow by expanding the surface
59
Cylinder head temperature indication relates to... (1,00 P.)
all Cylinders.
a random cylinder.
the critical cylinder.
the average of all cylinders.
the critical cylinder.
60
What happens during oil filter clocking? (1,00 P.)
A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will be filtered by an alternate filter
The oil circulation will end after 15 minutes so that a proper engine run will not be guaranteed
A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will not be filtered
The oil circulation will end after 30 minutes so that a proper engine run will not be guaranteed
A bypass valve opens thus enabling the circulation to continue, debris will not be filtered
61
How should an Otto engine be shut down? (1,00 P.)
By completely leaning the mixture
By moving the propeller to the feathered position
By closing the throttle lever completely
By shutting down the generator
By completely leaning the mixture
62
Piston engines of helicopters have... (1,00 P.)
one magneto ignition system.
one electrical ignition system.
two coupled ignition systems.
two independent ignition systems.
two independent ignition systems.
63
How do you call fuel mixtures with a high amount of fuel? (1,00 P.)
Lean
Full
Empty
Rich
Rich
64
The angle indicated by arrow number 1 shows the propeller's...
See figure (AGK-011)
D: Direction of air flow
C: Chord line
R: Direction of rotation (1,00 P.)
angle of incidence.
angle of attack.
geometric wing twist.
aerodynamic wing twist.
angle of incidence.
65
How should a power increase be executed on a constant-speed propeller, provided that no other procedure is described in the flight manual? (1,00 P.)
1) Decrease manifold pressure
2) Increase RPM
1) Decrease RPM
2) Increase manifold pressure
1) Increase manifold pressure
2) Increase RPM
1) Increase RPM
2) Increase manifold pressure
1) Increase RPM
2) Increase manifold pressure
66
How should a power decrease be executed on a constant-speed propeller, provided that no other procedure is described in the flight manual?
(1,00 P.)
1) Decrease RPM
2) Decrease manifold pressure
1) Decrease manifold pressure
2) Increase RPM
1) Decrease RPM
2) Increase manifold pressure
1) Decrease manifold pressure
2) Decrease RPM
1) Decrease manifold pressure
2) Decrease RPM
67
With increasing altitude and unchanged mixture setting, the air/fuel mixture... (1,00 P.)
becomes more lean.
stays constant.
becomes liquid.
becomes richer.
becomes richer.
68
With increasing altitude, the power of a carburettor engine... (1,00 P.)
remains constant.
first decreases, from 5000 ft on increases.
increases.
decreases.
decreases.
69
During ignition check the ignition is switched to OFF for a short moment and subsequently back to BOTH.
What happens to the RPM if the ignition system is properly grounded? (1,00 P.)
The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one when switched back to BOTH
The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH
The RPM increases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH
The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes a value below the previous one when switched back to BOTH
The RPM decreases once switched to OFF and resumes the previous value when switched back to BOTH
70
Which gauges involve a measurement of temperature? (1,00 P.)
Engine lubricant, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air, directional gyro
Engine lubricant, cylinder head, exhaust gas, suction, outside air, cabin air
Engine lubricant, engine cooling fluid, cylinder head, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air
Engine oil, cylinder head, exhaust gas, altimeter, airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator
Engine lubricant, engine cooling fluid, cylinder head, exhaust gas, outside air, cabin air
71
Fuel quantity in small aircraft is most commonly measured through a level sensor. The European Certification Specifications CS 23 require that... (1,00 P.)
at least one fuel quantity indicator must be available to indicate the total amount of fuel abord an aircraft. This Indicator must be calibrated adequately to indicate the correct amount of fuel during all phases of flight.
if the fuel indicator fails, the pilot must land at the next available airport.
if no fuel quantity indicator is available to the pilot in flight, the pilot must check the fuel quantity before commencing the flight and recalculate the remaining fuel on board in regular intervals during the flight.
a fuel quantity indicator must be available for each tank and the indicator must be calibrated to read "zero" during level flight when the quantity of fuel remaining in the tank is equal to the unusable fuel supply.
a fuel quantity indicator must be available for each tank and the indicator must be calibrated to read "zero" during level flight when the quantity of fuel remaining in the tank is equal to the unusable fuel supply.
72
Which of the instruments listed below obtain their readings through pressure measurement? (1,00 P.)
Oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge, manifold pressure gauge, altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator, suction gauge
Oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge, fuel quantity gauge, manifold pressure gauge, differential pressure gauge, altimeter
Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter, directional gyro, turn and bank coordinator, oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge
Airspeed indicator, vertical speed indicator, altimeter, magnetic compass, oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge
Oil pressure gauge, fuel pressure gauge, manifold pressure gauge, altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator, suction gauge
73
The Pitot / static system is required to... (1,00 P.)
prevent potential static buildup on the aircraft.
correct the reading of the airspeed indicator to zero when the aircraft is static on the ground.
measure total and static air pressure.
prevent icing of the Pitot tube.
measure total and static air pressure.
74
Which pressure is sensed by the Pitot tube? (1,00 P.)
Cabin air pressure
Total air pressure
Dynamic air pressure
Static air pressure
Total air pressure
75
QFE is the... (1,00 P.)
barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield.
barometric pressure adjusted to sea level, using the international standard atmosphere (ISA).
magnetic bearing to a station.
altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa.
barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield.
76
QNE is the... (1,00 P.)
barometric pressure at a reference datum, typically the runway threshold of an airfield.
magnetic bearing to a station.
barometric pressure adjusted to sea level, using the international standard atmosphere (ISA).
altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa.
altitude above the reference pressure level 1013.25 hPa.
77
Which is the purpose of the altimeter subscale? (1,00 P.)
To set the reference level for the altitude decoder of the transponder
To adjust the altimeter reading for non-standard temperature
To reference the altimeter reading to a predetermined level such as mean sea level, aerodrome level or pressure level 1013.25 hPa
To correct the altimeter reading for system errors
To reference the altimeter reading to a predetermined level such as mean sea level, aerodrome level or pressure level 1013.25 hPa
78
In which way may an altimeter subscale which is set to an incorrect QNH lead to an incorrect altimeter reading? (1,00 P.)
If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended
If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended
If the subscale is set to a lower than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended
If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too low. This may lead to much greater heights above the ground than intended
If the subscale is set to a higher than actual pressure, the indication is too high. This may lead to much closer proximity to the ground than intended
79
Lower-than-standard temperature may lead to... (1,00 P.)
a blockage of the Pitot tube by ice, freezing the altimeter indication to its present value.
an altitude indication which is too low.
an altitude indication which is too high.
a correct altitude indication as long as the altimeter subscale is set to correct for non-standard
temperature.
an altitude indication which is too high.
80
A flight level is a... (1,00 P.)
pressure altitude.
density altitude.
altitude above ground.
true altitude.
pressure altitude.
81
A true altitude is... (1,00 P.)
a height above ground level corrected for non-standard pressure.
a height above ground level corrected for non-standard temperature.
a pressure altitude corrected for non-standard temperature.
an altitude above mean sea level corrected for non-standard temperature.
an altitude above mean sea level corrected for non-standard temperature.
82
During a flight in colder-than-ISA air the indicated altitude is... (1,00 P.)
higher than the true altitude.
lower than the true altitude.
eqal to the true altitude.
equal to the standard altitude.
higher than the true altitude.
83
During a flight in an air mass with a temperature equal to ISA and the QNH set correctly,
the indicated altitude is... (1,00 P.)
lower than the true altitude.
equal to the true altitude.
equal to the standard atmosphere.
higher than the true altitude.
equal to the true altitude.
84
Which instrument can be affected by the hysteresis error? (1,00 P.)
Vertical speed indicator
Altimeter
Direct reading compass
Tachometer
Altimeter
85
The measurement of altitude is based on the change of the... (1,00 P.)
dynamic pressure.
differential pressure.
static pressure.
total pressure.
static pressure.
86
Which of the following options states the working principle of a vertical speed indicator? (1,00 P.)
Measuring the present static air pressure and comparing it to the static air pressure inside a reservoir
Total air pressure is measured and compared to static pressure
Measuring the vertical acceleration through the displacement of a gimbal-mounted mass
Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum
Measuring the present static air pressure and comparing it to the static air pressure inside a reservoir
87
The vertical speed indicator measures the difference of pressure between... (1,00 P.)
the present total pressure and the total pressure of a previous moment.
the present dynamic pressure and the dynamic pressure of a previous moment.
the present dynamic pressure and the static pressure of a previous moment.
the present static pressure and the static pressure of a previous moment.
the present static pressure and the static pressure of a previous moment.
88
Calibrated airspeed (CAS) equals... (1,00 P.)
equivalent airspeed (EAS) corrected for altitude.
indicated airspeed (IAS) corrected for instrument and position error.
ground speed (GS) corrected for instrument and position error.
true airspeed (TAS) corrected for wind.
indicated airspeed (IAS) corrected for instrument and position error.
89
At higher altitudes, true airspeed (TAS) tends to be higher than calibrated airspeed (CAS).
A rough estimate of the TAS can be obtained by... (1,00 P.)
subtracting 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.
adding 10 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.
subtracting 10 % of the CAS for every 1000 m altitude.
adding 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.
adding 2 % of the CAS for every 1000 ft altitude.
90
An aircraft cruises on a heading of 180° with a true airspeed of 100 kt. The wind comes from 180° with 30 kt.
Neglecting instrument and position errors, which will be the approximate reading of the airspeed indicator? (1,00 P.)
100 kt
130 kt
30kt
70kt
100 kt
91
Which of the following factors could cause an erroneous airspeed indication? (1,00 P.)
A circuit breaker was pulled
The earth wire is still attached
The boost pressure line is defective
The aircraft is covered with adhesive foils
The aircraft is covered with adhesive foils
92
Which of the following states the working principle of an airspeed indicator? (1,00 P.)
Total air pressure is measured and compared against static air pressure.
Total air pressure is measured by the static ports and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator
Dynamic air pressure is measured by the Pitot tube and converted into a speed indication by the airspeed indicator
Static air pressure is measured and compared against a vacuum.
Total air pressure is measured and compared against static air pressure.
93
What values are usually marked with a red line on instrument displays? (1,00 P.)
Operational limits
Caution areas
Recommended areas
Operational areas
Operational limits
94
What is necessary for the determination of speed (IAS) by the airspeed indicator? (1,00 P.)
The difference between the total pressure and the dynamic pressure
The difference between the standard pressure and the total pressure
The difference betweeen the total pressure and the static presssure
The difference between the dynamic pressure and the static pressure
The difference betweeen the total pressure and the static presssure
95
What is the meaning of the white arc on the airspeed indicator? (1,00 P.)
Speed range in bumpy air
Speed range in smooth air
Speed range for extended flaps
Speed range not to exceed
Speed range for extended flaps
96
What is the meaning of the red range on the airspeed indicator? (1,00 P.)
Speed which must not be exceeded within bumpy air
Speed which must not be exceeded with flaps extended
Speed which must not be exceeded regardless of circumstances
Speed which must not be exceeded in turns with more than 45° bank
Speed which must not be exceeded regardless of circumstances
97
The compass error caused by the aircraft's magnetic field is called... (1,00 P.)
variation.
declination.
inclination.
deviation.
deviation
98
The indication of a magnetic compass deviates from magnetic north direction due to what errors? (1,00 P.)
Deviation, turning and acceleration errors
Gravity and magnetism
Inclination and declination of the earth's magnetic field
Variation, turning and acceleration errors
Deviation, turning and acceleration errors
99
Which of the mentioned cockpit instruments is connected to the pitot tube? (1,00 P.)
Vertical speed indicator
Direct-reading compass
Altimeter
Airspeed indicator
Airspeed indicator
100
Which cockpit instruments are connected to the static port? (1,00 P.)
Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator
Airspeed indicator, direct-reading compass, slip indicator
Altimeter, slip indicator, navigational computer
Airspeed indicator, altimeter, direct-reading compass
Altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator
101
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 270° to a heading of 360°.
At approximately which indication of the magnetic compass should the turn be terminated? (1,00 P.)
330°
360°
270°
030°
330°
102
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 360° to a heading of 270°.
At approximately which indication of the magnetic compass should the turn be terminated? (1,00 P.)
300°
360°
240°
270°
270°
103
The term "static pressure" is defined as pressure... (1,00 P.)
inside the airplane cabin.
of undisturbed airflow.
resulting from orderly flow of air particles.
sensed by the pitot tube.
of undisturbed airflow.
104
An aircraft in the northern hemisphere intends to turn on the shortest way from a heading of 030° to a heading of 180°.
At approximately which indicated magnetic heading should the turn be terminated? (1,00 P.)
360°.
150°.
210°.
180°.
210°.
105
What does the dynamic pressure depend directly on? (1,00 P.)
Air pressure and air temperature
Air density and airflow speed squared
Air density and lift coefficient
Lift- and drag coefficient
Air density and airflow speed squared
106
What is a cause for the dip error on the direct-reading compass? (1,00 P.)
Deviation in the cockpit
Acceleration of the airplane
Inclination of earth's magnetic field lines
Temperature variations
Inclination of earth's magnetic field lines
107
What behaviour is shown by a rotating gyro in space? (1,00 P.)
It moves in accordance with the body surrounding it
It tends to maintain its position in space
It swings from east to west like a pendulum
It moves in circles with a stadily decreasing radius
It tends to maintain its position in space
108
A gyro which is rotating in space responds to forces being applied to it by an evasive movement... (1,00 P.)
at an angle of 45° to the force being applied.
in a northern direction.
at an angle of 90° to the force being applied.
at an angle of 180° to the force being applied.
at an angle of 90° to the force being applied.
109
The bank angle of a 2-minutes circle depends on the... (1,00 P.)
CAS.
IAS.
Ground speed.
TAS.
TAS.
110
A turn and bank (or turn and slip) coordinator provides information regarding... (1,00 P.)
the coordination of the turn and slip angle.
the rate of turn and coordination, i.e. slip or skid, of the turn.
the pitch and bank angle of the aircraft.
the rate of turn and bank angle of the aircraft.
the rate of turn and coordination, i.e. slip or skid, of the turn.
111
The airspeed indicator is unservicable.
The airplane may only be operated... (1,00 P.)
when the airspeed indicator is fully functional again.
when a GPS with speed indication is used during flight.
if no maintenance organisation is around.
if only airfield patterns are flown.
when the airspeed indicator is fully functional again.
112
Which light colour advises the pilot to the condition "corrective action may be required in the future"? (1,00 P.)
Amber (orange)
Red
Blue
Green
Amber (orange)
113
The Caution Area is marked on an airspeed indicator by what color? (1,00 P.)
Green
Red
Yellow
White
Yellow
114
An attitude director indicator (ADI) combines the information provided by... (1,00 P.)
the attitude indicator and the flight director.
the directional gyro and the rate gyro.
the attitude indicator and the relative bearing indicator.
the attitude indicator and the radio magnetic indicator.
the attitude indicator and the flight director.
115
What does the abbreviation HSI stand for? (1,00 P.)
Horizontal Situation Indicator
Hybernating System Indication
Horizontal Slip Indicator
Horrifying Steep Inclination
Horizontal Situation Indicator
116
A horizontal situation indicator (HSI) combines the information provided by... (1,00 P.)
the directional gyro and the flight director.
the rate gyro and the slip indicator.
the directional gyro and the VHF navigation receiver.
the attitude indicator and the flight director.
the directional gyro and the VHF navigation receiver.
117
What difference in altitude is shown by an altimeter, if the reference pressure scale setting is changed from 1000 hPa to 1010 hPa? (1,00 P.)
80 m less than before
Values depending on QNH
Zero
80 m more than before
80 m more than before
118
When is it necessary to adjust the pressure in the reference scale of an alitimeter? (1,00 P.)
Before every flight and during cross country flights
Every day before the first flight
Once a month before flight operation
After maintance has been finished
Before every flight and during cross country flights
119
The altimeter's reference scale is set to airfield pressure (QFE).
What indication is shown during the flight? (1,00 P.)
Pressure altitude
Height above airfield
Airfield elevation
Altitude above MSL
Height above airfield
120
A vertical speed indicator connected to a too big equalizing tank results in... (1,00 P.)
no indication
mechanical overload
indication too low
indication too high
indication too high
121
A vertical speed indicator measures the difference between... (1,00 P.)
instantaneous total pressure and previous total pressure.
total pressure and static pressure.
instantaneous static pressure and previous static pressure.
dynamic pressure and total pressure.
instantaneous static pressure and previous static pressure.
122
The term "inclination" is defined as... (1,00 P.)
deviation induced by electrical fields.
angle between airplane's longitudinal axis and true north.
angle between earth's magnetic field lines and horizontal plane.
angle between magnetic and true north.
angle between earth's magnetic field lines and horizontal plane.
123
What does the slip indicator show? (1,00 P.)
Apparent vertical
Rate of turn
Vertical to horizon
Airplane's bank
Apparent vertical
124
The slip indicator's ball (apparent vertical) has moved to the right during a right turn. By what actions may the ball led back to middle position? (1,00 P.)
Reduce bank, increase rate of turn
Increase bank, increase rate of turn
Reduce speed, increase bank
Reduce rate of turn, reduce bank
Reduce bank, increase rate of turn
125
What is the purpose of winglets? (1,00 P.)
Increase gliging performance at high speed.
Increase of lift and turning manoeuvering capabilities.
To increase efficiency of aspect ratio.
Reduction of induced drag.
Reduction of induced drag.
126
What engines are commonly used with Touring Motor Gliders (TMG)? (1,00 P.)
4 Cylinder; 4 stroke
4 Cylinder 2 stroke
2 Cylinder Diesel
2 plate Wankel
4 Cylinder; 4 stroke
127
What is the purpose of engine oil in piston engine? (1,00 P.)
Cooling, lubrication of the engine and disposal of fine abrasion.
Cooling of the engine and lubrication of propeller shaft.
For nose reduction and bearing of the propeller shaft.
Cooling, lubrication and increasing engine performance.
Cooling, lubrication of the engine and disposal of fine abrasion.
