Aircraft & Normal Procedures Flashcards
(160 cards)
1
Q
What is the aircraft wing span?
A
93’ 3”
2
Q
What is the minimum pavement width to make a 180° turn?
A
100ft
3
Q
What are indications of an elevator trim runaway?
A
If the FCECU detects that a manual pitch trim command persists for longer than three seconds( i.e. switch is manually held or sticks), an aural clicking sound will be heard over the flightdeck speakers and the ELEVATOR TRIM SHUTOFF switchlights, located on the left and right sides of the glareshield panel, illuminate.
4
Q
When is it permissible to not comply with a TCAS RA?
A
Compliance with a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA) is required, unless the pilot considers it unsafe to do so. (GPWS Alert)
FOM 2.2.4
5
Q
When receiving an aircraft directly from another crew, must an originating checklist be completed?
A
When a Terminating checklist has been accomplished or the aircraft has been unattended for more than 1hr or mx has been performed. New aircraft/captain combo.
6
Q
What are the minimum hydraulic quantities for dispatch?
A
40%
7
Q
If the hydraulic quantity appears to be below minimums how would you determine quantity?
A
If HYD QTY appears to be below 50%, use MFD reversion selector to determine if quantity is below 40%.
FSM 3.3.10
8
Q
When is an engine start abort required?
A
CAUTION: An Engine Start Abort shall be accomplished if:
• Engine ITT approaches or exceeds 920°C,
• NH is not in the green arc within 70 seconds of selecting Condition Lever to START & FEATHER, or
• Engine Oil Pressure fails to reach 44 psi by Start SELECT switch reset.
FSM 3.5.3
9
Q
When can the F/O select STBY HYD PRESS on during After Start flow?
A
After both AC GEN caution lights have extinguished
10
Q
What is the minimum two-engine climb speed with flaps up?
A
After the flaps are retracted to 0°, the minimum climb speed, is:
Icing……………………………………..Solid Bug [VSE(ICE)] Non Icing Conditions ……………………Open Bug (VSE)
FSM 3.3.10
11
Q
What is the Type I climb profile?
A
240 kts until 10,0000 then 5° pitch.
12
Q
What is the Type II climb profile?
A
The Type II climb profile is 185 KIAS to FL250, or until no longer required. The Type II climb is used when specified on the Dispatch Release, or when a steeper than normal climb rate is required by the SID/DP, moderate or greater turbulence, traffic, etc. If using a Type II climb, always advise ATC of the reduced speed. As soon as the the Type II climb is no longer required, transition to a Type 1 climb.
FSM 3.12.1
13
Q
What is the normal holding speed in all conditions?
A
The configuration for holding in all conditions is Gear UP, Flaps 0° and 200 KIAS.
FSM 3.14.2
14
Q
By what speed on takeoff do the power levers need to be set in the Rating detent?
A
advance the Power Levers smoothly to obtain the RATING POWER detent just prior to 50 KIAS.
FSM 3.10.1
15
Q
When is a crew required to accomplish the Preflight Checklist?
A
The flight crew shall accomplish the preflight procedures whenever:
- It is the initial aircraft flight of the day (IAFD), or
- The Captain receives a new aircraft, or
- Maintenance has been performed and not observed by the flight crew.
FSM 3.2.1
16
Q
When do the emergency systems and equipment on the flight deck have to be visually checked?
A
Whenever the aircraft has been left unattended by a flight crew for any period of time, a visual check of the flightdeck emergency equipment and systems shall be accomplished to ensure they have not been tampered with.
FSM 3.2.1
17
Q
What is required to be checked during a review of the MTX Log? (Use this as a discussion item, FOM 11.3.5)
A
Conducting the Review
1. Verify the correct Log is onboard (tail # matches). 2. Verify number of pink pages in Log meets requirement (five).
3. General review of all pages to understand the recent mechanical history of the aircraft.
4. Determine whether the Daily System Check has been completed per FSM section 3, Normal Procedures.
5. If there is an entry in the LOG ENTRY section, verify the following four fields are completed in the CORRECTIVE ACTION section:
• CORRECTIVE ACTION text
• SIGNATURE (Corrective Action)
• EMP # or CERT # (NON-QX)
• DATE
NOTE: A Log entry without a corresponding corrective action and signature on any page suspends the airworthiness of the aircraft and shall be resolved prior to blocking out.
- Verify all fields in the LOG ENTRY and CORRECTIVE ACTION sections are completed and boxes are marked. If there are any incomplete fields/boxes or there is a question about a field in these two sections, the Captain shall contact Maintenance Control for resolution prior to departure.
NOTE: • The PHASE OF FLIGHT and EVENT CATEGORY sections are not regulatory and are for Horizon Air reliability data collection; therefore; resolution for unmarked boxes in these two sections is not required prior to departure. • The MAINTENANCE ONLY section is exempt from this review and resolution process.
- Confirm MEL/CDL items on the Dispatch Release matches the MEL/CDL items and effective dates in the Log. 8. Comply with any MELs/CDLs operational restrictions or conditions.
FSM 11.3.6
18
Q
What is maximum pitch on takeoff until all wheels lift off?
A
8°
19
Q
After conducting a Bleeds Off Takeoff, when do you select Bleeds On?
A
400’
20
Q
When do we fly solid bug on an approach below 1,000 AGL?
A
Icing conditions
21
Q
When are the flaps retracted on a two-engine Missed Approach?
A
At Acceleration Height,4 call “Flaps up, climb power, After Takeoff Checklist.”
FSM 3.16.4
22
Q
At what pitch attitude on landing may a tail strike occur?
A
6°
23
Q
If the pitch attitude reaches 6° nose up or if an excessive sink rate develops on short final, the PF shall correct how?
A
Adding Power
24
Q
When may you start the APU after landing?
A
Do not start APU until Park Brake is Set and MAIN BUS TIE is selected.
FSM 3.19.5
25
When must a Terminating Checklist be accomplished?
The Terminating Checklist shall be accomplished whenever any of the following conditions apply:
• Flight crew is leaving the aircraft:
- On a RON,
- Unattended for more than one hour, or
- When the next assigned flight crew has not arrived at the aircraft.
• Any other time deemed appropriate by the Captain.
FSM 3.20.1
26
What is the minimum parking brake pressure to start the #2 engine first?
500psi
27
What is the minimum parking brake pressure to start the #1 engine first?
1000psi
28
With the nose gear doors open, should you connect to the tug?
No
29
The aircraft must be configured for landing prior to what point?
5. Flaps 15° (165 KIAS or below).
• Prior to the FAF for all approaches requiring Flaps 15°.
6. Flaps 35° ( 155 KIAS or below) shall be selected no later than:
• The FAF for instrument approaches without vertical guidance.
• 1,000' AFE for all other approaches (instrument or visual).
FSM 3.15.8
30
The aircraft must be stabilized at final approach airspeed prior to what point?
500’ unless W/S is reporten then 1000’ AFE
31
What is our definition of a stabilized approach?
• Instrument approach with vertical guidance (ILS or FMS VNAV):
- Course deviation of one dot or less.
- Glidepath deviation up to one dot above or ½ dot below.
• Instrument approach without vertical guidance:
- Course deviation of one dot or less.
- At MDA, altitude deviation within -0 +50 feet.
• Visual Approach:
- If electronic course or glidepath information is available, no more than one dot deviation from course or glidepath.
• 1,000 feet AFE and below:
- Configured for landing as defined in the FSM
- Rate of descent as necessary to maintain published glidepath, or if none available, not in excess of 1,000 fpm.
• Below 500 feet AFE:
- Bank angle 15° or less.
- The airplane on profile speed within -5/+10 knots of target speed.
FOM 10.10.1
32
When the EMER switch light illuminates in the cockpit, what does this mean?
Flight Attendant depresses EMER switchlight on control panel.
FSM 3.1.6
33
When is a Captain Monitored Approach required?
When the weather is within 300 feet of the DA, or the visibility is less than twice that required for the approach, a Captain-flown HGS approach should be conducted. For aircraft with an inoperative HGS, a Captain monitored approach shall be conducted.
FOM 17.1.4
34
What callout is required of the PM when pitch attitude reaches 5 degrees during the landing flare?
“five degrees”
35
What callout is required of the PM when pitch attitude reaches 6 degrees during landing flare?
“six degrees”
36
What is the PF callout in the above situation?
“Correcting"
37
What NP setting is required for landing at solid bug?
1020 RPM
38
When is a takeoff alternate required?
If reported departure weather is below landing minimums or if any other operational conditions exist at the departure airport that would preclude a return back to that airport, a takeoff alternate is required.
FOM 6.6.1
39
Are first officers with less than 100 hours in type in company aircraft prohibited from making takeoffs and landings at special airports?
Unless the Captain is a Check Airman, the Captain shall make all takeoffs and landings when:
• Flying to special airports.
FOM5.1.6
40
no
* Water, snow, slush, or other contaminants which affect aircraft performance are on the runway.
* The braking action is reported less than “Good.”
* The crosswind component is greater than 15 knots. • Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
* The visibility is less than RVR 4000 or ¾ sm.
* Any other condition in which the Captain determines it to be prudent to exercise his prerogative.
FOM 5.6.1
41
What regular airports are designated as special?
• KBUR, KLMT, KMSO, KONT, KPSP, KRNO, KSAN, KSFO, KSUN.
42
If airports not known: Where can a list of these be found?
FOM 2.5.16
43
What alternate airports are designated as Special?
KBUR KLMT KONT
44
What does the term “lockdown” mean in association with the Threat Levels listed in the Ops Manual?
Lockdown means closure of the flightdeck door and suspension of all entry and exit through it.
FOM 15.2.29
45
If a liquid is found on board the aircraft that is considered suspicious where is the threat level guidance found?
FOM Section 15
46
If a FRA is not specified, at what altitude AFE should flaps be retracted?
1000'
Acceleration Height (AH) for all takeoffs is 1,000′ AFE unless a Special Turn Procedure prescribes otherwise. Acceleration Height is presented on Dispatch Takeoff Reports as “FRA” (Flap Retraction Altitude), and on paper Takeoff Charts as “FLAP RETRACT.”
FSM 4.2.2
47
Under what weather conditions are Complex-Special turn procedures mandatory in the case of an engine failure on takeoff?
procedures are mandatory under IMC and VMC to protect the flight path in the event of an engine failure.
FSM4.2.6
48
What is the definition of a wet runway?
Wet Runway A runway that has a shiny appearance due to a thin layer of water less than 1/8″ or 3 mm covering 100% of the runway surface.
FSM4.3.9
49
Where can you find runway contamination levels defined?
FSM 4.3.9 and QRH
50
Pilot Job Description PIC FO
Pilot in Command
The Pilot in Command has full control and authority in the operations of the aircraft and over the crewmembers and their duties during the flight. In addition, the Pilot in Command:
• In concert with other Operational Control personnel, is responsible for the safety of passengers, crewmembers, cargo, and aircraft during all aspects of the flight, including its planning, initiation, and termination.
• Contact the Duty Officer in the event a flightdeck or a cabin crew member is unable to perform his/her duties to the level required for the safe conduct of flight operations, for any reason.
• With the Dispatcher, is responsible for preflight planning and dispatch release.
• Verifies the aircraft is in a safe condition for flight and that it has a valid airworthiness release.
• Ensures they have the appropriate qualification(s) for destination airports. • Ensures they meet all applicable flight time and duty limitations.
• Ensures any applicable operating limitations are applied (high minimum PIC, crew pairing, etc.).
• With the Dispatcher, is responsible for initiation, continuation or diversion, and termination of the flight.
• May unilaterally exercise emergency authority.
• Reports mechanical discrepancies in accordance with procedures outlined in the FOM.
• Reports any discrepancies that may affect the flight to the Dispatcher.
• Maintains currency and training requirements for all phases of flight.
FOM 1.2.3
Second in Command CEME: H8B
The Second in Command (SIC) operates the aircraft under the authority of the PIC. As related to operational control, the SIC:
• Shares pertinent operational information with the PIC in a timely fashion.
• Shares opinions and recommendations in the resolution process.
• Ensures they have the appropriate qualification(s) for destination airports.
• Ensures they meet all applicable flight time and duty limitations.
• Maintains currency and training requirements for all phases of flight.
FOM 1.2.4
51
What is the Horizon Air “Use of Alcohol” policy?
Not consume alcohol during the 10-hour period immediately before they are scheduled to fly, stand reserve, or perform Company-related duties.
FOM Bulletin 12-15
52
What should you do if a fellow crew member is too fatigued to fly but does not remove themselves from the trip?
If a pilot is concerned that a fellow pilot is too fatigued to fly who does not remove himself from duty, contact the Flight Operations Duty Officer before proceeding.
FOM 2.1.8
53
What do you do if you lose your Airman Certificate or Medical while on a trip?
* Contact Crew Scheduling Services and provide employee number, current location, fax number, and reason for loss of certificate(s).
* Receive a fax of a photocopy of Airman and/or Medical Certificate from Crew Scheduling Services stamped with “Issued under the authority of Exemption 5487, as amended.”
* Have this faxed copy of the certificate(s) in his possession whenever operating any Company aircraft.
NOTE: This exemption is not valid for international operations
FOM 2.1.10
54
What is our policy regarding Scuba diving before a trip?
Pilots shall not participate in scuba diving within 24 hours of reporting for duty.
FOM 2.1.13
55
What is our policy regarding Blood donation?
72 Hrs
56
Is it ok to read publications not related to the proper conduct of the flight on the flightdeck?
No
57
What is the appropriate response to a TCAS TA?
Pilots are expected to respond to a Traffic Advisory (TA) by attempting to visually acquire a TA intruder.
FOM 2.2.5
58
What if any communication is required when changing nav sources?
Whenever a NAV is changed, the pilot making the change shall advise the other pilot. Example: “Number one NAV on Battleground” or “Number one NAV on FMS.”
FOM 2.2.6
59
Must you ID an ILS before flying it?
Yes
60
Define Critical Phase of Flight
* Takeoff – Beginning with brake release and ending when the aircraft is brought to a full stop during a rejected takeoff, or when the aircraft is at acceleration height and clearance of all obstacles in the takeoff flight path is assured, landing gear and flaps have been retracted, and airspeed is at least VSE.
* Landing – Beginning when the landing gear is extended for landing and ending when the aircraft lands and is brought to a full stop, or taxied clear of the landing runway.
FOM 2.2.7
61
What is the signal for “sterile” status of the flight deck?
Chime
62
What is the maximum difference between the two primary altimeters crossing the FAF on an approach?
If the altitude crosscheck between the two primary altimeters exceeds 100 feet, a missed approach shall be executed unless visual reference to the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in a position to allow the safe continuation to a landing.
FOM BULLETIN 12-16
63
What is required if the difference between the two primary altimeters exceeds 100’ crossing the FAF?
missed approach shall be executed unless visual reference to the runway environment has been established and the aircraft is in a position to allow the safe continuation to a landing.
FOM BULLETIN 12-16
64
Track Deviation Monitoring Lateral? Vertical?
* Lateral deviation for normal operations should be limited to ±one dot. Momentary lateral deviations during and immediately after turns, up to a maximum of ±two dots deviation are allowable.
* Vertical deviation for normal operations should be limited to ±½ dot during the final approach segment (FAF to MAP). Momentary vertical deviations up to 75 feet above or below glidepath (¾ dot) are allowable.
FOM 2.2.19
65
Who is the PM on the ground?
First Officer
66
How does proper transfer of aircraft control take place?
Notification – “My airplane.” Acknowledgment – “Your airplane.”
FOM 2.2.23
67
When must shoulder harnesses be worn?
fasten the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing.
FOM 2.2.23
68
What is the minimum altitude for commencing a turn after takeoff?
The minimum altitude for commencing a turn after takeoff is 400 feet AFE except when a lower altitude is required by a single engine turn procedure or departure procedure.
FOM2.2.26
69
What is the suggested operation of Pilot Controlled lighting?
Suggested use is to always key the mike seven times (within five seconds); this assures that all controlled lights are turned on to the maximum available intensity. Adjustment can then be made, where the capability is provided, to a lower intensity (or the REIL turned off) by keying five and/or three times.
FOM 2.2.29
70
With regard to pilot controlled lighting, how many minutes of lighting is available from last keying event?
Fifteen minutes of lighting is available from the last keying event.
FOM 2.2.29
71
What is the Runway Verification Procedure for takeoff?
Prior to crossing ANY runway hold short line, the Captain and First Officer shall verbally verify:
• The aircraft is cleared onto the runway
• The runway is correct by reference to runway signage and markings. (runway intersections shall also be verified if part of the clearance)
• The runway is clear of traffic conflicts
FOM 2.2.30
72
What is the Runway Verification Procedure for landing?
Prior to landing:
• The PF shall restate the landing clearance and runway after the PM acknowledges clearance from ATC.
• Both pilots observe the runway environment and verify (silently):
- The runway is correct by reference to runway markings, navigational aids, HSI headings, etc.
- The runway is clear of traffic.
Either pilot shall immediately state any discrepancy in ATC clearance, intended runway, or traffic threat.
FOM 2.2.31
73
Describe the three levels of automation?
Level One: Hand-flying (Raw Data)
Level Two: Basic Flight Director Command (With or Without Autopilot)
Level Three: Flight Management System Command (With or Without Autopilot)
FOM 2.2.2-2.2.3
74
How close must lightning be to suspend refueling? Stop all ramp operations?
Stop fueling when lightning is within five miles
All ramp operations will be stopped when lightning is within three nautical miles of the airport.
FOM 8.2.3
75
How far shall thunderstorms be avoided in flight?
Above 23,000 feet, pilots shall:
• Avoid all echoes by 20 nautical miles.
At or below 23,000 feet, pilots shall:
• Avoid steep rainfall gradients by at least 5 nm or more when the static air temperature is 0°C or warmer.
• Avoid steep rainfall gradients by at least 10 nm or more when the static air temperature is less than 0°C.
• Increase the distances indicated above by 50% or more for echoes that are rapidly increasing in size or intensity; changing shape rapidly; exhibiting hooks, fingers, or scalloped edges; or displaying a well-defined red area.
When “in the clear” on top, cloud tops should be cleared by 5,000 feet. If clearing the cloud tops by less than 5,000 feet, use avoidance distances established above.
FOM 12.1.3
76
What is the maximum ground wind speed for operations?
Flight operations will be suspended when local reports indicate steady state velocities are in excess of 50 kts or gusts are in excess of 65 kts.
FOM 12.1.3
77
When shall intersection departures not be used?
Intersection departures are not authorized when the approach end of the runway being used is not visible to the flight crew.
Windshear
FOM 17.1.5
78
When is a takeoff alternate required?
One takeoff alternate is required when the weather at the departure airport is below the lowest available published landing minimums including CAT II/III minimums.
79
To maintain FMS approach currency, how often should pilots fly an FMS approach?
At least one FMS-based approach with vertical guidance should be conducted each month. At a minimum, a FMS-based approach shall be conducted every 90 days.
FOM 2.3.10
80
What is the minimum clearance from objects while taxiing?
Aircraft shall be taxied no closer than ten feet to any object.
FOM 2.4.1
81
How does a pilot meet the Special Airport Qualification?
* Within the preceding 12 calendar months, have made an entry to that airport including a landing and a takeoff, or
* Be accompanied by a First Officer who has made an entry including a landing and takeoff within the preceding 12 calendar months, or
* Review the FAA-approved Special Airport Chart presentation, or
* Make a takeoff or landing at that airport when the ceiling is at least 1,000' above the lowest MEA or MOCA, or initial approach altitude prescribed for the lowest instrument approach for that airport and the visibility is at least three miles.
FOM bulletin 14-06
82
What are the iPad preflight requirements?
Prior to each flight day, each pilot shall determine their Company-issued iPad is operable.
The iPad should be sufficiently charged to properly meet the needs of the scheduled flight duty day. The minimum iPad battery charge status required to begin a flight segment is 50%.
FOM BULLETIN 14-05
83
When must you charge your IPAD with EFB?
never
84
When flying into an uncontrolled airport, what position reports should be made on CTAF?
10 miles out. Entering downwind, base, and final. Clearing the runway.
FOM 4.1.27
85
If unable to establish contact with remote when arriving at PUW or RDM, can you land at that city?
No
86
With a properly functioning EFB, is there any time when you must call operations after departure?
Aircraft equipped with operable SkyTab4201 EFB, only a delay code, if applicable, is required to be called in.
FOM 4.2.2
87
When must FO update departure status to operations when flight departure is delayed?
If a flight is not anticipated to be airborne within 15 minutes of the OUT TIME, the First Officer shall contact the station and give a best estimate OFF TIME. Update this estimate every 15 minutes if experiencing long ground delays.
FOM 4.2.2
88
What are the Crew Pairing requirements?
For all operations, either the Captain or the First Officer shall have a minimum 75 hours line operating flight time at Horizon Air, including IOE, in type (e.g., DHC8), model (e.g., Q400), and crew position (seat). For example, regardless of the amount of flight time acquired as an SIC in the Q400, a new Q400 Captain with fewer than 75 hours as Q400 PIC may not be paired with an SIC with fewer than 75 hours in the Q400.
FOM BULLETIN 12-13
89
What restrictions are placed on an FO with less than 100 hours?
First Officers with less than 100 hours in type in Company aircraft shall notify the Captain. Unless the Captain is a Check Airman, the Captain shall make all takeoffs and landings when:
• Flying to special airports.
• Water, snow, slush, or other contaminants which affect aircraft performance are on the runway.
• The braking action is reported less than “Good.”
• The crosswind component is greater than 15 knots.
• Windshear is reported in the vicinity of the airport. • The visibility is less than RVR 4000 or ¾ sm.
• Any other condition in which the Captain determines it to be prudent to exercise his prerogative.
FOM 5.1.6
90
What is a preplanned amendment?
If the originally scheduled destination does not meet regulatory dispatch weather requirements (e.g., weather reports or forecasts are below required landing minimums), a flight may be dispatched to another destination with the intent that the flight will be routed via or near the scheduled destination and if conditions improve to at or above landing minimums, the Release may be amended to the scheduled destination.
FOM 6.2.4
91
What is the minimum runway width?
100’
92
How much fuel reserve is required if no alternate is listed on release?
With no alternate, fly for 55 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
FOM 6.3.1
93
How many pounds is standard contingency fuel (CT)?
200#
94
“Terrain Clearance” provides what clearance from terrain?
1000’
95
“Mountain Drift down” provides what amount of terrain clearance?
2000’
96
When does a dispatch release expire?
Air Turnback
If a flight returns to the departure airport after takeoff, a new release is required for the flight before a second departure is made.
Intermediate Airport
Flight crews are encouraged to request a re-release if they are approaching the 60-minute FAR limitation and they have not blocked out of the gate. The Captain shall ensure a flight does not remain on the ground more than one hour at an intermediate stop without a receiving a re-release or a new release.
FOM 6.5.2
97
When is a takeoff alternate required?
If reported departure weather is below landing minimums or if any other operational conditions exist at the departure airport that would preclude a return back to that airport, a takeoff alternate is required.
FOM 6.6.1
98
When is a destination alternate required?
For at least one hour before and one hour after the ETA at the destination airport, the appropriate weather reports or forecasts, or any combination of them, indicate that:
- The ceiling will be at least 2,000 feet above the airport elevation, and
- The visibility will be at least three statute miles.
FOM 6.6.3
99
How do you know if a pilot has less than 75 hours?
J – Junior Pilot Less than 75 hours in aircraft type or 75 hours in left seat following upgrade.
FOM 7.1.2
100
Minimum crew onboard for a though flight?
The number of Flight Attendants on board is at least half the number required for 14 CFR Part 121.391 but never less than one.
FOM 7.2.3
101
When must pilots be at the aircraft?
Pilots shall arrive at the aircraft 30 minutes before scheduled departure time to accomplish preflight duties and shall be on the flightdeck 20 minutes prior to scheduled departure time.
FOM 7.2.6
102
When must pilots be on the flightdeck?
on the flightdeck 20 minutes prior to scheduled departure time.
FOM 7.2.6
103
What is the Standard Takeoff Briefing?
Call out eighty, V1, and rotate.” “Call any malfunctions. If before V1, it will be your decision to abort. After V1, I will continue the takeoff.”
FOM 7.2.11
104
What is the “block out” definition in regards to an on time departure?
If a flight blocks out on or before the scheduled departure time, it is considered to have departed on time. Block-out time is the time when the aircraft first moves for the purpose of flight, including pushback.
FOM 8.2.1
105
When may a flight depart more than 10 minutes before scheduled departure time?
When weather, anticipated extended traffic delays, or other aircraft operational problems would cause the aircraft to block out more than ten minutes after scheduled departure time.
FOM 8.2.2
106
Can a flight depart VFR?
A flight may depart using Visual Flight Rules if:
• The airport does not have an operating ATC facility. • The pilots are unable to obtain an IFR clearance using the telephone or remote radio facility.
• The visibility is at least three sm (Horizon Air limitation).
• The ceiling is at least 1,000 feet.
• VFR cloud clearance for airspace class (see section 2, Policy, Flight, Minimum Flight Visibility and VFR Cloud Clearance Criteria) is maintained.
• Visual reference with the ground or visual contact with a landmark when referenced in a published procedure is maintained.
• For day departures, the minimum altitude after takeoff is 1,000 feet AGL or 1,000 feet above any obstruction.
• For night departures, the minimum altitude after takeoff is:
- 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within five miles from the center of the intended course, or
- In designated mountainous terrain, 2,000 feet above the highest obstacle within five miles from the center of the intended course.
• The flight obtains an IFR clearance as soon as practical after takeoff but no farther than 50 nm from the departure airport.
FOM9.1.3-4
107
Must the Flight Director be used on an RNAV-1 SID?
RNAV-1 SIDs require the use of the Flight Director. LNAV path guidance may begin as low as 500′ above airport elevation.
FOM 9.2.4
108
What is the max rate of descent from 2000’ AGL to 1000’ AGL?
The maximum rate of descent between 2,000 feet AGL/RA* and 1,000 feet AFE/RA*:
• 2000 fpm
FOM BULLETIN 12-20
109
What is max bank angle below 500’ on approach?
Bank angle 15° or less.
FOM 10.1.1
110
Established on the final approach segment, you receive a report that the weather is now below landing minimums, can you continue?
Yes
If, after beginning the final approach segment of an instrument approach, a weather report is received indicating the weather is below published minimums, the approach may be continued to the authorized DH or MDA.
FOM 10.1.3
111
Can you continue below DH?
The flight visibility (i.e., what is actually observed outside) is not less than the published visibility in the instrument approach procedure being used.
• AT LEAST ONE of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot:
- The threshold, threshold markings, or threshold lights
- The runway end identifier lights
- The visual approach slope indicator
- The touchdown zone, touchdown zone markings, or touchdown zone lights
- The runway, runway markings, or runway lights
- The approach light system
FOM 10.1.3 FAR 91.175
112
Can we do a Contact Approach?
Contact approaches are authorized under the following provisions:
• Turboprop aircraft only.
• Runway of intended landing has an approved instrument approach procedure.
- Reported visibility/RVR is equal to or above the authorized IFR minimum for the non-precision approach established for that runway or 1 sm (RVR 5000), whichever is greater.
• The flight operates under IFR.
• ATC authorizes the contact approach.
• The flight operates clear of clouds during the entire approach.
• Flight visibility is sufficient to see and avoid all obstacles and safely maneuver the aircraft to the runway of intended landing using external visual references.
• The flight does not descend below the MEA/MSA, MVA, or the FAF altitude, as appropriate, until:
- The flight is established on the instrument approach procedure, operating below the reported ceiling, and the pilot has identified sufficient prominent landmarks to safely navigate the aircraft to the airport, or
- The flight is operating below any cloud base which constitutes a ceiling, the airport is in sight, and the pilot can maintain visual contact with the airport throughout the maneuver.
• The flight does not descend below the highest circling MDA (1,000 feet AGL minimum for Q400) prescribed for the runway of intended landing until the aircraft is in a position from which a descent to touch down, within the touchdown zone, can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers.
FOM 10.1.4-5
113
Can we conduct circle-to-land approaches?
Q400 pilots and aircraft are authorized to conduct circle-to-land maneuvers using an MDA of 1,000 feet or the published MDA, whichever is higher, and a visibility of 3 sm or the published visibility, whichever is higher.
FOM 10.1.5
114
If planning a straight in visual approach at an uncontrolled airport, what distance out shall the aircraft be established on final by?
5 miles
A straight-in approach to the runway of intended landing is authorized provided the aircraft is established on final no closer than five miles from the airport and continues to give way to other traffic operating in the standard pattern (Horizon Air limitation).
FOM 10.1.5
115
What is TPA at an uncontrolled airport?
Class D airspace – The pilot shall fly a traffic pattern altitude at least 1,500 feet above the airport elevation unless otherwise required by applicable distance from cloud criteria.
Uncontrolled airport – The pilot shall fly a traffic pattern altitude 1,500 feet above the airport elevation unless otherwise required by applicable distance from cloud criteria.
FOM 10.1.6
116
Can a visual approach be accepted 40nm out?
No
The flight operates in Class B, C, or D airspace; within 35 miles of the destination airport in Class E airspace; or the airspace beneath the designated transition area.
FOM 10.1.7
117
When should the Approach Briefing take place?
When possible, the approach briefing shall be accomplished before beginning the descent from cruise altitude.
FOM 10.1.8
118
When flying an approach to an unfamiliar airport, what must you do?
When an approach is flown into an unfamiliar airport or in an unfamiliar area, fly the entire approach. Use all of the navigational aids, including radar.
FOM 10.1.10
119
Can you accept a LAHSO clearance?
Currently prohibited for operations to U.S. airports
LAHSO (formerly known as SIRO) are approved at certain airports in Canada for all aircraft types.
FOM10.2.1
FOM16.6.1
120
Can you pickup passengers or bags at an alternate airport?
No!!!!!
Loads may be discharged at an alternate airport but shall not be picked up.
FOM 10.3.1
121
Single engine ground operations are approved when?
- An APU or GPU is not available to supply electrical power. For turboprop aircraft, this is the only case when passengers may deplane with an engine running. For Q400 aircraft, the aft passenger door shall not be used for passenger deplaning.
- An APU or ground air conditioning unit is not available to supply cooling or heating. For turboprop aircraft, both engines shall be shut down for passenger deplaning. The No. 2 engine may be started before passenger boarding to establish or maintain a comfortable cabin temperature.
FOM 11.1.1
122
What are the requirements for Single engine turn?
Approved turn spot
1 pilot at their position
Safety observer positioned at the front of the aircraft
* At least one pilot shall remain at their station whenever an engine is operating on the ground. The pilot(s) on the flightdeck shall remain cognizant of ramp activity and ground-safety-observer hand signals and be prepared to shut down the No. 2 engine if a person approaches the engine. All sunscreens shall be removed from the windows during single-engine ground operations.
* For turboprop aircraft, a safety observer is positioned at the nose of the aircraft in full view of the pilots to ensure no person approaches the No. 2 engine and to signal the pilots to shut down the engine if required.
FOM 11.1.2
123
Where can you find a list of approved spots for Single engine operations?
FOM 11.1.4
124
After landing flows may be started when?
The After Landing Flow patterns are accomplished after the aircraft has cleared the landing runway. After Landing Flow patterns shall not be accomplished while the aircraft is crossing a runway.
FOM 11.1.6
125
After Landing checklist may be accomplished when?
• The After Landing Checklist is accomplished after clearing all runways.
NOTE: The After Landing Checklist may be accomplished holding short of a runway, provided the Park Brake is set.
FOM 11.1.6
126
How does Captain determine the airworthiness of the aircraft?
* Reviewing the Aircraft Maintenance Log.
* Ensuring a preflight inspection is accomplished.
FOM 11.3.4
127
On preflight, how can a pilot determine if an abnormality has been previously identified?
* Reviewing the Aircraft Maintenance Log.
* Ensuring a preflight inspection is accomplished.
FOM 11.3.4
128
Define Block Out for maintenance purposes?
For the purpose of this section, the term “block(ing) out” is defined as movement of the aircraft under its own power for the purpose of flight. The term “block(ing) in” is defined as parking the aircraft at the completion of flight or upon return to the gate.
FOM 11.3.9
129
Does the Captain need to talk with maintenance before entering a discrepancy in the logbook?
Yes, the Captain shall confer with Maintenance Control for assistance in evaluating the discrepancy and the potential applicability of an MEL.
FOM 11.3.9
130
Can you takeoff or land if the braking action is reported as NIL?
No
Takeoff or landings not authorized with braking action of NIL.
FOM 12.2.6
131
When landing on a slippery runway, should you pump the brakes?
Apply the brakes smoothly and symmetrically with moderate-to-firm pedal pressure and hold until a safe taxi speed is assured. Do not pump the brakes; maintain steady brake pressure.
FOM 12.2.8
132
Temperature compensation is required for all instrument approaches when?
For temperatures of 0°C or less, pilots shall apply temperature compensation to published Instrument Approach Procedures to ensure adequate obstacle clearance.
FOM12.2.9
133
Must you inform ATC when compensating for low temps?
When altitude corrections are applied to an Instrument Approach Procedure, pilots shall advise ATC of those corrections
FOM 12.2.9
134
What is one step deicing?
The one-step procedure involves deicing and anti-icing the aircraft in one step using Type I fluid. This is the method normally used in active frost conditions.
FOM 13.4.7
135
What is two step deicing?
In the first step, the aircraft is deiced with Type I fluid. In the second step, the aircraft is anti-iced with either Type I or Type IV fluid.
FOM 13.4.7
136
When does the holdover time start?
One Step
The holdover time begins at the start of deicing and anti-icing the first critical surface.
Two Step
The holdover time begins at the start of the second step.
FOM 13.4.7
137
How do you configure the aircraft for deicing?
The Configuration Checklists are printed on the Captain's Deicing and Anti-icing Worksheet and for Q400 two-engine running procedures, the Q400 QRH airport information charts.
FOM 13.4.9
138
What do you do if the holdover time expires before takeoff?
If the holdover time expires, the aircraft shall return for additional deicing and anti-icing as required.
FOM 13.4.12
139
What does the following PA statement signal to the FAs? “Ladies and Gentlemen, this is the Captain speaking, may I have your attention?”
Indicates to the Flight Attendant(s) that the PA is of an urgent nature
FOM 15.1.3
140
What does “land immediately at nearest suitable airport” mean?
Land without delay at the nearest suitable airport with the sufficient runway length and, if required, emergency services to support the emergency or abnormality.
FOM 15.1.4
141
What does “land as soon as practical” mean?
* Proceed to the most appropriate Air Group-served airport at the discretion of the Captain
* Considerations should be given to weather conditions, Maintenance services, and operational impact.
* Should be coordinated with Dispatch.
FOM 15.1.4
142
What does NTSB-Report mean relative to the Emergency Briefing?
In an emergency, the Captain shall brief the crew on the course of action, using the acronym NTSB-Report for briefing the Flight Attendant(s).
Nature-Time-Special Considerations-Brace Positions (if necessary)
FOM 15.1.5
143
What do you do if your fellow pilot becomes incapacitated?
If one of the pilots becomes incapacitated, the other pilot shall land as soon as possible. Whenever possible, continue the flight in visual meteorological conditions. The first priority of the remaining pilot shall be to fly the aircraft and assume control.
FOM 15.2.1
144
Where can you find a list of mandatory HA148 reportable items?
FOM 15.2.3
145
When would you make a “Min fuel” declaration?
If the flight is expected to land with less than 45 minutes reserve fuel
FOM 15.2.7
146
When would you declare a low fuel emergency?
The Captain shall declare an emergency due to low fuel when the estimated fuel upon landing at the nearest suitable airport is expected to be less than 30 minutes.
FOM 15.2.7
147
In the case of a medical diversion, are you required to declare an emergency?
When a medical diversion is required, the Captain shall declare an emergency.
FOM 15.2.8
148
If a pilot receives a Bomb threat, who should the pilot notify?
When a threat is received, the pilot shall immediately notify ATC and the Dispatcher.
FOM 15.2.11
149
What steps should be taken if an unexplained substance is found in the cabin during flight?
the Captain shall secure the flightdeck. The Captain shall contact the Dispatcher who will alert airport emergency service and station management.
FOM 15.2.4
150
What is the Hijacking transponder code?
7500
151
What are the 4 threat levels?
Level 1 – Disruptive Behavior – Suspicious or Threatening
Level 2 – Physically Abusive Behavior
Level 3 – Imminent Threat of Death or Serious Bodily Injury
Level 4 – Attempted or Actual Breach of the Flightdeck
FOM 15.2.20-15.2.27
152
If the Emergency Response Guide book is missing can you continue flying?
If the guidebook is missing from an aircraft, contact Dispatch at a convenient time, and they will arrange to have it replaced at the next opportunity in PDX.
FOM 15.3.4
153
What is the speed limit in Canada within 10 miles of the airport below 3000’?
Within 10 nm of a controlled airport and below 3,000 feet AGL, the airspeed limit is 200 KIAS.
FOM 16.1.8
154
Can you taxi across illuminated stop bars if you have a clearance?
DO NOT TAXI ACROSS ILLUMINATED RED STOP BARS.
FOM 17.1.3
155
After taxiing across extinguished stop bars, if the lead on lights extinguish, what should you do?
If after crossing an extinguished stop bar, the lead-on lights also extinguish, stop the aircraft and contact ATC for instructions
FOM 17.1.3
156
What action is required if a call is not made below 500’ on a CAT III approach?
Missed approach
A standard approach callout is not made below 500 feet above DA(H) while in IMC conditions.
FOM 17.1.15
157
Explain the Primary Verification Process.
• The Captain or First Officer shall present their Company identification to station personnel to receive the Flight Release.
• The Captain shall then check the Company identification of each crewmember for that and all remaining flights of the day.
• If there is not a positive name match of a crewmember, the Captain shall call Crew Scheduling Services to verify crewmembers assigned to that flight. If there still is an unverified crewmember for that flight, the Captain shall notify the Ground Security Coordinator (GSC) and monitor the unverified crewmember's location.
FOM 18.1.2
158
What do you do if a prohibited item is discovered on the aircraft?
* The crewmember making the discovery shall notify the Captain.
* Ground personnel making the discovery shall notify the GSC, who notifies the Captain.
* The Captain and the GSC shall jointly determine if the item is prohibited.
* The Captain, the GSC, and ground personnel shall avoid disturbing the item, contaminating it with fingerprints, etc.
* If the item is prohibited, the Captain shall contact the Duty Officer through Dispatch. The Duty Officer and the Captain will decide on a course of action.
FOM 18.1.5
159
What must be checked on an Exterior Security Inspection?
A visual inspection inside of exterior access compartments easily accessible from ground level and are easily opened. For the Q400, these areas are:
• Wheel wells
• Nose compartment inspection doors (4)
• Cargo compartments (ground personnel inspection item)
FOM 18.18.2
160
What course of action will you take if the OAT on the ground is below 0 when rain, freezing rain, or snow is falling or if ice is adhering to the engine inlet, spinner, propeller, or wing leading edge?
If the OAT is below 0°C when rain, freezing rain or snow is falling or if ice is adhering to the engine inlet, spinner, propeller, or wing leading edge, a visual inspection of the engine intakes must be undertaken (flashlight and ladder, if necessary). Any frozen contamination or packed snow found anywhere inside the engine intake shall be removed prior to engine start. If frozen contamination is found or suspected, contact Maintenance Control to determine proper course of action.
FSM 3.2.14
