Airplane Systems Flashcards
(126 cards)
1
Q
How are the various flight controls operated?
A
Rod or cable system
2
Q
What type of trim system is installed in this airplane?
A
Elevator thru trim wheel
3
Q
What are flaps, and what is their function?
A
Moveable panels on the inboard trailing edge of the wing; permit a lower airspeed and steeper angle of descent
4
Q
Describe a typical wing flap system
A
Single-slot, electronically controlled, 15 amp circuit breaker
5
Q
State some examples of leading edge lift devices
A
Slots - A slot on the leading edge directs air from under the wing to flow above the wing; delays airflow separation at higher AOA
Slats - Same function as slots but moveable either by pilot control or automatically by low air pressure
6
Q
What are spoilers?
A
Devices located on the upper wing which spoil the airflow to reduce lift thereby typically used as air brakes
7
Q
What instruments operate from the pitot/static system?
A
Altimeter, VSI, airspeed
8
Q
Does this aircraft have an alternate static air system?
A
Yes; used when external static port block; manually activated
9
Q
How does an altimeter work?
A
Seal aneroid wafers calibrated at sea level acting against the housing pressure via static air; wafer expands or contracts when pressure decreases or increases respectively which is used to indicate altitude; Kollsman window used to adjust for pressure altitude
10
Q
A pressure altimeter is subject to what limitations?
A
Nonstandard pressure and temperatures
Warm day - indicates lower than actual; higher pressure level than standard day
Cold day - indicates higher than actual; lower pressure level than standard
Higher than standard pressure - indicates lower than actual
Lower than standard pressure - indicates higher than actual
Note: High to low/hot to cold, look out below
11
Q
Define and state how you would determine the following altitudes
A
Indicated altitude - What is shown on the altimeter set to the current altimeter setting
Pressure altitude - Altitude when altimeter adjusted to 29.92 “Hg
True altitude - Vertical distance above seal level (MSL)
Density altitude - Pressure altitude adjusted for nonstandard temperature
Absolute altitude - Vertical distance above the terrain (AGL)
12
Q
How does the airspeed indicator operate?
A
Measures the difference between static and ram air
13
Q
What are the limitations of the airspeed indicator?
A
Subject to proper airflow into the pitot or static ports
14
Q
The airspeed indicator is subject to what errors?
A
Positions error - Sensing erroneous static pressure due to slipstream; varies with flight configuration, airspeed, altitude
Density error - Changes in altitude and temperature not compensated
Compressibility error - Packing of air in the pitot tube at high speeds results in higher than normal indication
15
Q
What are the different types of aircraft speeds?
A
IAS - Read of the airspeed indicator; no corrections applied
Calibrated airspeed (CAS) - airspeed corrected for position and instrument errors; CAS = TAS at sea level
Equivalent airspeed (EAS) - CAS corrected for adiabatic compressible flow for a particular altitude; EAS = CAS at sea level
True airspeed (TAS) - CAS corrected for altitude and nonstandard temperature; speed in relation to the air mass being flown thru
16
Q
What airspeed limitations apply to the color-coded marking system of the airspeed indicator?
A
White arc - flap operating range
Bottom of the white arc - VS0
Top of the white arc - VFE
Green arc - normal operating range
Bottom green arc - VS1
Top of the green arc - VNO
Yellow arc - caution range (ops in smooth air only)
Red arc - VNE
17
Q
What are some examples of important airspeed limitations that are not marked on the face of the airspeed indicator, but are found on placards and in the AFM/POH?
A
VA
VLO
VLE
Vx
Vy
18
Q
How does the vertical speed indicator work?
A
Compares the difference in pressure of the housing chamber with a calibrated orifice and aneroid wafer via static air; expanding wafer indicates positive pressure aka climb while depressed wafer indicates negative pressure aka descend
19
Q
What are the limitations of the vertical speed indicator?
A
Not accurate until aircraft stabilized; sudden or abrupt movements cause erroneous readings
20
Q
Which instruments contain gyroscopes?
A
Turn coordinator, heading indicator, attitude indicator
21
Q
What are two fundamental properties of a gyroscope?
A
Rigidity in space - Remains in a fixed position on the plane it is spinning
Precession - Any force applied to the gyro occurs 90 degrees beyond the direction of rotation
22
Q
What are the various sources that may be used to power the gyroscopic instruments in an airplane?
A
Vacuum or electrically operated
23
Q
How does the vacuum system operate?
A
Air drawn by an engine-driven vacuum pump thru a filter then moves thru the various instruments causing the gyros within to spin then expelled or used in other systems, relief value prevent system from exceeding limits
24
Q
How does the attitude indicator work?
A
Gyro mounted on the horizontal plane while aircraft moves about its axis
25
Discuss the limits of an attitude indicator
Instrument tumbles when limitations exceed until reset
Bank - 100 to 110 degrees
Pitch - 60 to 70 degrees
Note: See POH for actual limits
26
The attitude indicator is subject to what errors?
Pitch up or nose down during rapid accelerated or deceleration
Bank angle or pitch error after 180 degree turn
All errors will self correct after some time in straight and level flight
27
How does the heading indicator operate?
Mounted on the vertical plane while aircraft moves about its axis
28
What are the limitations of the heading indicator?
Same as the attitude indicator
Bank - 100 to 110
Pitch - 60 to 70
Tumbles when limitations exceeded until reset
29
What error is the heading indicator subject to?
Will drift due to precession caused mainly by friction, will need to rematch with the magnetic compass manually every so often
30
How does the turn coordinator operate?
Uses precession to indicate turn direction and approximate rate of turn
Liquid fill tube with ball reacts to centrifugal force and gravity to show slip/skid
31
What information does the turn coordinator provide?
Shows the yaw and roll
Miniature airplane indicates the direction of turn as well as the rate of turn, aligned with the index indicates standard rate of turn (3 degrees per second)
Inclinometer indicates the coordination of aileron and rudder
32
What will the turn indicator indicate when the aircraft is in a skidding or slipping turn?
Skid - ball on the outside of turn
Slip - ball on the inside of the turn
33
How does the magnetic compass work?
Magnetized needle in a float assembly
34
What limitations does the magnetic compass have?
Erratic and unpredictable at steep bank angles (>18 degrees)
35
What are the various compass erorrs?
Oscillation error - Erratic movement caused by turbulence or rough control
Deviation error - Electrical and magnetic disturbances in aircraft
Variation error - Angular difference between true and magnetic north; reference magenta lines
Dip error
Acceleration error - East/West heading accelerating shows a turn to the North while decelerating shows a turn to the South (ANDS)
Northerly turning error - Compass leads in the south half of a turn and lags in the north half (UNOS)
36
What equipment would be considered hydraulic on this aircraft?
Brakes
37
What provides hydraulic power to the landing gear system?
Electrically driven hydraulic power pack
38
Describe hydraulic power pack operation
Controlled by landing gear lever, activates power pack and selector valve mechanically rotates to the corresponding configuration, hydraulic pressure is applied to the actuator cylinders to move the landing gear; if down the power pack will continue to cycle the system to until 1,000 to 1,500 psi
39
Describe the landing gear system on this airplane
Tricycle, steerable nose wheel; tubular spring steel main gear strut and air/oil shock strut for the nose gear
40
How is the landing gear extended and retracted?
Hydraulic actuator powered by electronic power pack; pressure switch starts or stops operation
41
How is the gear locked in the down position?
Mechanical locks
42
How is the gear locked in the up position?
Up pressure is maintained by the hydraulic power pack; system cycles to maintain a psi of 1,000 to 1,500
43
How is accidental gear retraction prevented on the ground?
Squat switch electronically prevents system from operating
44
How is the landing gear position indicated in the cockpit?
Amber and green indicator lights
Note: System is designed to swap bulbs between other positions in flight in case of burnt bulb
45
What is the normal length of time necessary for landing gear retraction or extension?
5 to 7 seconds
46
What type of landing gear warning system is used?
If configured for landing without gear locked down a warning tone will be heard; see POH for specific condition
47
Can the landing gear be retracted with the hand operated pump?
No
48
Describe the braking system on this aircraft?
Hydraulically actuated disc type brakes for each main wheel; hydraulic line connects each brake to a master cylinder located on each pilot's rudder pedal
49
How is steering accomplished on the ground?
Nosewheel steering thru mechanical linkages connected to the rudder pedals
50
What are the landing gear tire pressures?
Nose - 43 psi
Main - 45 psi
51
What type of engine does this aircraft have?
Lycoming IO-360-L2A; 180 hp at 2700 rpm (L HAND)
Normally aspirated
Direct drive
Air cooled
Horizontally opposed
Fuel injected
4 cylinder
360 cu inch displacement
52
Describe how each of the following engine gauges work
Oil temp - Sensor installed on engine oil filter adapter
Oil pressure - Transducer located the engine forward pressure oil port; low pressure switch is seperate
CHT - Thermocouple installed in each cylinder head
Tach - Speed sensor mounted on engine drive accessory pad
Manifold pressure - Direct reading of induction air manifold pressure in inches of mercury
Fuel pressure - Transducer located between fuel/air control unit (servo) and fuel distribution manifold
53
What four strokes must occur in each cylinder of a typical four stroke engine in order for it to produce full power?
Intake
Compression
Power
Exhaust
54
Explain the operation of a carburetor
Outside air flows thru an air filter
That air flows into the carb and thru a venturi
Low pressure area created by the air flowing thru venturi that foces fuel to flow thru the throat as well and mixes with the air
The fuel/air mixture is then drawn thru the intake manifold and into the combustion chamber to be ignited
55
Explain the function of the float in a float type carburetor system
Float is used to control the amount of fuel within the float chamber of the carb by opening or closing a needle attached to the float
Note: Think toilet float
56
How does the carburetor heat system work?
Unfiltered heated air from exhaust shroud is fed into the induction air manifold prior to the carburetor via a manual heat valve
57
What is fuel injection?
Fuel in injected directly or just ahead of the cylinder. Typically incorporates an engine driven fuel pump, fuel/air control unit, fuel manifold valve, discharge nozzles, aux fuel pump, and pressure/flow indicators
58
What are some advantages of fuel injection?
Reduction in evaporative icing
Better fuel flow
Faster throttle response
Precise control of mixture
Better fuel disturbtion
Easier cold weather starts
59
Are there any disadvantages associated with fuel injected engines?
Difficulty in starting a hot engine
Vapor lock during hot days
Problems associated with restarting an engine that quits because of fuel starvation
60
What is an alternate induction air system and when is it used?
Device that opens to allow induction airflow to continue if the primary becomes blocked, either manually or automatically activated
61
What is the condition known as vapor lock?
Gas vaporizes in the fuel line or other component within the fuel system which blocks the flow of fuel to the engine, typically on very hot days while fuel system is unpressurized (not running)
62
What does the throttle do?
Manually control the amount of fuel/air entering the cylinders in turn regulating the engine manifold pressure
63
What does the mixture control do?
Regulates the fuel to air ratio via fuel flow
64
What are turbochargers?
Device that forces extra air into the engine via compress blade of which is powered by exhaust gas
65
What are cowl flaps?
Device that helps control the operating temperature of the engine either manually or electronically activated door
66
When are cowl flaps used?
During group operations
Takeoff and high-power climb operations
67
What type of propeller does this aircraft have?
Metal, two-blade, fixed pitch, 76 inch
68
Discuss fixed pitch propellers
Pitch is fixed by the manufacturer and cannot be changed by the pilot, usually two types
Climb propeller - low pitch thus lower drag, results in higher rpm and more hp at the cost of crase performance
Cruise propeller - high pitch thus more drag, results in lower rpm and less hp but increases efficiency during cruise
69
Discuss variable pitch propellers
Propeller is capable of constantly adjusting the blade angle to maintain a constant speed
70
What does the propeller control do?
Adjusts the tension within the prop governer which in turn changes the blade angle to maintain engine speed
71
What would the desired propeller setting be for maximum performance situations such as takeoff?
Fine pitch/low blade angle, high rpm to produce that maximum power and thrust
72
What is a propeller governor?
System that controls the blade angle
73
When operating an airplane with a constant speed propeller, which conditions induces the most stress on the engine?
High manifold pressure and low rpm
74
For variable pitch (constant speed), where does the fluid used to control the propeller condition come from?
Directly from the engine
75
What type fuel system does this aircraft have?
Two vented integral fuel tanks
Fuel selector valve
Fuel shutoff valve
Fuel strainer
Aux fuel pump
Engine driven fuel pump
Fuel/air control unit
Fuel manifold
76
When is the auxiliary fuel boost pump used?
When the fuel pressure is low i.e when the engine driven fuel pump is off
77
Why is it necessary to include a left and right position on the fuel selector valve?
Uneven flow may occur and pilot would want to maintain equal balance between the tanks
78
Where are the fuel vents located for each tank?
Left tank thru an outboard vent line with check valve, right tank via the filler cap, both vented via an interconnecting line
79
What purpose do fuel tank vents have?
To replace the lost volume of fuel being consumed other a vacuum condition would exist and hinder fuel flow
80
What type fuel does the aircraft require (minimum octane rating and color)?
100LL (blue)
81
Can other types of fuel be used if the specified grade is not available?
Next higher grade, consult POH for specific instructions
82
What color of dye is added to the following fuel grades: 80, 100, 100LL, Jet A
80 (obsolete) - red
100 (obsolete) - green
100LL - blue
Jet A - colorless or straw
83
Wha is the function of the manual primer, and how does it operate?
Assist in starting the engine by injecting atomized fuel directly into the cylinder intake ports
84
Where are the drain valves located?
Each main wing, under the fuel selector valve, and fuel strainer
85
How is fuel quantity measured?
Two float type transmitter (one per tank)
86
Are the fuel quantity indicators accurate?
They are only required to be accurate when they read empty
87
Briefly describe the engine oil system
Supplied by sump with a capacity of 8 qts
88
What are the minimum and maximum oil capacities?
5 to 8 qts
89
What are the minimum and maximum il temperatures and pressures?
Oil - 100 to 245
Pressure - Above 20 psi (minimum for idling), 50 to 90 psi (green arc), 115 psi (red arc)
90
What are two types of oil available for use in your airplane?
Mineral oil - aka non detergent oil; contains no additives, normally used for engine break in purposes
Ashless dispersant - Mineral oil with additives, comes in different viscousisties
91
What type of oil is recommended for this engine (for summer and winter operations)?
15W-50
92
Describe the electrical system on this aircraft
28 volt DC system powered by an engine driven 60 amp alternator and 24 volt battery
93
Where is the battery located?
Inside engine cowling on the left firewall
94
How are the circuits for the various electrical accessories within the aircraft protected?
Circuit breakers
95
What is a bus bar?
A terminal to connect the main electrical system to the various electrical components
96
The electrical system provides power for what equipment in an airplane
Everything in a G1000 minus the engine
97
What does the ammeter indicate?
Shows if the alternator/generator is producing enough power to charge the battery or not
98
What function does the voltage regulator have?
Controls the rate of charge to the battery, should be slight higher than the battery voltage (28 volts to 24 volt battery)
99
Does the aircraft have an external power source receptacle, and if so where is it located?
Yes; left side of the cowl near firewall
100
What type of ignition system does your airplane have?
Two engine driven magnetos, two spark plugs per cylinder
101
What are the two main advantages of a dual ignition system?
Increased safety - redundant backup in case one fails
More complete and even combustion of the mixture therefore improved engine performance
102
How does the aircraft cabin heat work?
Fresh air heated by an exhaust shroud is directed to the cabin by a series of ducts
103
How does the pilot control the temperature in the cabin?
Use of the cabin air and cabin heat controls
104
What are the three main components of aircraft oxygen system?
Storage system
Delivery system
Mask or nasal cannula
105
What are several types of oxygen systems in use?
Diluter demand
Pressure demand
Continuous flow
Electrical pulse demand
106
Can any kind of oxygen be used for aviator's breathing oxygen?
No; need to be 99.5% pure with not more than 2 mm of water per liter of oxygen otherwise excess water may freeze oxygen lines
107
How does a continuous flow oxygen system operate?
Oxygen is continuously released into a collector bag and then breathed in
108
How does a pressure demand oxygen system operate?
Oxygen that is pressureized is feed as the user breathes in; because the system and therefore lungs are pressurized it is necessary to physically breathe out to exhale; safe to use above 40,000 ft
109
Explain how a diluter demand oxygen system operates
Oxygen is only supplied when the user inhales thru a mask; automix lever allows the regulator to mix with cabin air or supply pure oxygen; safe to use up to 40,000 ft
110
Explain the operation of an electric pulse demand oxygen system
Oxygen is supplied by detecting the user's inhalation effort and flowing during the initial portion of the inhalation; an internal barometer is normally incorporated to dispense the right amount of oxygen as altitude changes automatically
111
What is a pressurized aircraft?
Cabin, flight compartment, and baggage compartment are incorporated into a sealed unit which contains air pressure higher than outside atmospheric pressure; only turbine engines using bleed air or piston engine with turbochargers may pressurize a cabin
112
What operational advantages are there in flying pressurized aircraft?
Allows aircraft to fly higher which can result in better fuel economy, higher speeds, and avoid water
Typically maintain a cabin pressure altitude of 8,000 ft
Prevents rapid changes of cabin altitude which may be uncomfortable or injurious
Permit a reasonably fast exchange of air from inside to outside the cabin to eliminate odors and remove stale air
113
Describe a typical cabin pressure control system
Cabin pressure regulator, pressure relief, vacuum relief, and the means for selecting the desired cabin altitude; additionally cabin pressure dump via outflow valve and safety valve
114
What are the components of a cabin pressure control system?
Cabin pressure regulator - Controls cabin pressure to a selected value to an isobaric range and limit the cabin differential range
Cabin air pressure safety valve - Combo of pressure relief, vacuum relief, and dump valve
Pressure relief valve - prevents cabin pressure from exceeding a predetermined pressure above ambient pressure
Vacuum relief valve - prevents ambient pressure from exceeding cabin pressure by allowing external air to enter the cabin when ambient pressure is greater than cabin pressure
Dump valve - actuated by cockpit controls to dump cabin air into the atmosphere
Instrumentation
Cabin differential pressure gauge - indicates difference between inside and outside pressure; monitored to not exceed limitations
Cabin altimeter - check on system performance; may be combined with the differential pressure gauge
Cabin rate of climb - indicates cabin rate or climb or descent
115
What is the difference between a deice system and an anti-ice system?
Deice is used to eliminate ice that has already formed while a anti-ice system is used to prevent ice from forming
116
What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of airframe ice?
Pneumatic - deice system consists of inflatable boots attached to the leading edge of wings and tail surface, compressed air from the pressure side of the engine vacuum pump is cycled thru ducts or tubes to the boots to inflate
Hot air - anti-ice system where hot air directed from the engine compressor to the leading edge of wings; typically turbine aircraft
117
What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of propeller ice?
Electrically heated boots - Consists of heating elements incorporated into the boots that are bonded to the propeller; ice is heated up and centrifugal forces throw the ice off
Fluid system - consists of electronically driven pump which supplies fluid, such as alcohol, to a device in the spinner which distributes the fluid along the propeller assisted by centrifugal force
118
What types of systems are used in the prevention and elimination of windshield ice?
Fluid system - consists of an electronically driven pump to spray a fluid, such as alcohol, onto the windshield to prevent ice buildup
Electrical system - heating elements are embedded in the windshield or in a device attached to the windshield to prevent the formation of ice
119
What function does the avionics power switch have?
Controls power from the primary bus to the avionics bus; system protected by power switch/circuit breaker
120
What are static dischargers?
Installed to reduce radio receiver interference caused by corona discharge, which is emitted from the aircraft as a result of precipitation static
121
Within what frequency band does the following type of navigational and communication equipment installed on board most aircraft operate?
VOR (VHF)- 108.0 to 117.95 MHz
Communication transceivers (VHF) - 118.0 to 136.975 MHz
DME receiver (UHF) - 960 to 1215 MHz
ADF receiver (LF to MF) - 190 to 530 MHz
ILS Localizer - 108.1 to 111.95 MHz
122
Describe the function of the following avionics equipment acronyms: AHRS, ADC, PFD, MFD, FD, FMS, TAWS
AHRS - attitude and heading reference system; composed of 3-axis sensors that provide heading, attitude, and yaw info; replace gyroscopic instruments
ADC - air data computer; computer that receives and processes pitot pressure, static pressure, and temperature to calculate altitude, IAS, TAS, vertical speed, and air temperature
PFD - primary flight display; display that provides increased situational awareness to the pilot by replacing the 6 pack with an easy to scan display
MFD - multi-function display; display capable of presenting information to the pilot in configurable ways
FD - flight director; electronic flight computer that analyzes the navigational selections, signals, and aircraft parameters and presents steering instruction on the PFD as command bars or crossbars for the pilot to follow
FMS - flight management system; computer system containing a database for programming of routes, approaches, and departures that can supply navigation data to the FD/autopilot from various sources and can calculate flight data such as navlog related info
TAWS - terrain awareness and warning system; uses the aircraft's GPS navigation signal and altimetry systems to compare the position and trajectory of the aircraft against a more detailed terrain and obstacle database that could pose a threat to the aircraft
123
What is the function of a magnetometer?
Device that measures the strength of the earth's magnetic field to determine aircraft heading to the AHRS which is displayed on the PFD
124
If a failure of one of the displays (PFD or MFD) occurs in an aircraft with an electronic flight display, what will happen to the remaining operative display?
Reversionary capability allows for the PFD to be displayed on the functional display
125
Describe the ADS-B system
Automatic Dependent Surveillance-Broadcast is composed of aircraft avionics and ground-based system to determine aircraft position relative to other aircraft; transmitted about once per second
Automatic - system automatically broadcasts aircraft position without an external interrogation
Dependent - system depends on GPS for position information
Surveillance - system provides surveillance info to ATC
Broadcast - system is always broadcasting
126
What are the two types of ADS-B equipment?
ADS-B Out - automatically broadcast aircraft's GPS position to ATC ground facilities and other aircraft; required where transponders are required
ADS-B In - receipt, processing, and display of ADS-B transmissions
