Airports, Air Traffic Control, and Airspace Flashcards

(94 cards)

1
Q

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately

A

090 degrees and 270 degrees magnetic

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2
Q

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is orientated approximately

A

080 degrees and 260 degrees magnetic

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3
Q

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with the continuous lines, the pilot

A

should not cross the lines without ATC clearance

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4
Q

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

A

denotes intersecting runways

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5
Q

What does the outbound destination sign identify?

A

identifies direction to take off runways

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6
Q

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

A

indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection

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7
Q

What purpose does the taxiway location sign serve?

A

Identifies taxiway on which an aircraft is located

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8
Q

An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates

A

that weather at the airport located in Class D airspace in below basic VFR weather minimums

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9
Q

A lighted heliport may be identified by a

A

green, yellow, and white rotating beacon

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10
Q

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits

A

two quick, white flashes between green flashes

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11
Q

How can a military airport be identified at night?

A

dual peaked (two-quick) white flashes between green flashed

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12
Q

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by

A

blue ominidirectional lights

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13
Q

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it

A

5 times within 23 seconds

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14
Q

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

A

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport

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15
Q

The recommended entry position to an airport traffice patter is

A

to enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude

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16
Q

An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is

A

a green light signal

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17
Q

An above glide slope indication fro a tri-color VASI is

A

an amber light signal

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18
Q

A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is a

A

red light signal

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19
Q

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is a

A

pulsating red light

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20
Q

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shal

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

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21
Q

While operating in class D airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approachi g to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing

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22
Q

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is

A

three white lights and one red light

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23
Q

Each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI) shall

A

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope

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24
Q

Wintip vortices are created only when an aircraft is

A

developing lift

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25
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to
sink below the aircraft generating turbelence
26
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
outward, upward, and around each tip
27
When taking off or landing at an airport where heave aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to
sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft genertating the turbelence
28
The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is
heavy, clean, and slow
29
The wind condition that requires maximum caution when avoiding wake turbulence on landing is
light, quartering tailwind
30
When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the aircraft
above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
31
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying
above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircrafts touchdown point
32
When landing behind a large aircraft, which procedure should be follwoed for vortex avoidance?
stay above its final approach flight pathe all the way to touch down
33
During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
The other aircraft is crossing to the left
34
During a night flight you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
the other aircraft is flying away from you
35
During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?
The other aircraft is approaching head on.
36
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours to use
a series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10 degree sector
37
The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nightime hours is to use
peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilzing offcenter viewing
38
How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with your aircraft?
There will be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft
39
Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should
visually scan the entire area for collision
40
What procedure is recommended when climbing or descending VFR on an airway?
Execute gentle banks left and right for continuous visiual scanning of the airspace
41
Responsibility for collision avoidance inan alert area rests with
all pilots
42
Most midair collision accidents occur during
clear days
43
Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet day or night and especially when operating
in conditions of reduced visibility
44
After landing at a tower controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?
when advised by the tower to do so
45
If instructed by ground control to taxi to Runway 9, the pilot may proceed
to the next intersecting runway where further clearance is required
46
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) is the continuous broadcast of recorded information concerning
noncontrol information in sselected hight activity terminal areas
47
Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS broadcast indicates that
the ceiling is at least 5,000 feet and visibility is 5 miiles or more
48
A blue segmented circle on a sectional chart depicts which class airspace?
Class D
49
Airspace at an airport with a part time control tower is classified as Class D airspace only
when the associated control tower is in operation
50
When a control tower located on an airport within Class D airspace ceases operation for the day, what happens to the airspace designation?
The airspace reverts to Class E or a combination of Class E and G airspace during the hours the tower is not in operation
51
A non tower satellite airport within the same Class D airspace as that designated for teh primary airport, requires radio communications be established and maintained with the
primary airport's control tower
52
Unless otherwise authorized, two way radio communications with air traffic control are required for landings or takeoffs
at all tower controlled airports regardless of weather conditions
53
The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are based on
the insturment procedures for which teh controlled airspace is established
54
If a control tower and an FSS are located on the same airport, which function si provided by the FSS during those periods when the tower is closed?
Airport Advisory Service
55
Prior to entering an Airport Advisory Area, a pilot shoudl
contact the local FSS for airport and traffice advisories
56
When should pilots state their position on the airport when calling the tower for takeoff?
When departing from a runway intersectin
57
The normal ridus of the outer area of Class C airspace is
20 nautical miles
58
All operations within Class C airspace must be
in communications with the responsible ATC facility
59
The vertical limit of Class C airspace above the primary airport normally
4,000 feet AGL
60
Under what condition may an aircraft operate from a satellite airport within Class C airspace?
The pilot must contact ATC as soon as practicable after takeoff
61
Which initial action should a pilot take prior to entering Class C airspace?
Contact approach control on the appropriate frequency
62
TRSA Service in the terminal radar program provides
sequencing and separation for participating VFR aircraft
63
From whom should a departing VFR aircraft request radar traffic information during ground operations?
ground control, on initial contact
64
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as
safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft
65
If Air traffic Control advises that radar service is terminated when the pilot is departing Class C airspace, the transponder should be set to code
1200
66
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?
7500, 7600, 7700
67
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which code?
7600
68
When operating under VFR below 18,000 feet MSL, unless otherwise authorized, what transponder code should be selected?
1200
69
At an altitude below 18,000 feet MSL, which altimeter code should be selected?
Mode 3/A, Code 1200
70
Which of the following codes should be set for VFR flight in Class E airspace?
1200, Mode 3/A
71
When flying HAWK N666CB, the proper phraseology for initial contact with McAlester AFSS is
MC ALESTER RADIO, HAWK SIX SIX SIX CHARLIE BRAVO, RECEIVING ARDMORE VORAC, OVER
72
The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is
FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED
73
The correct method of stating 10,5000 feet MSL to ATC is
ONE ZERO THOUSAND, FIVE HUNDRED
74
When an air traffic controller issues radar traffic information in relation to the 12-hour clock, the reference the controller uses is the aircraft's
ground clock
75
An ATC radar facility issuew the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090. "TRAFFIC 3 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND" Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
South
76
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360 degrees. "TRAFFIC 10 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES SOUTHBOUND," Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
Northwest
77
AN ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: " TRAFFIC 2 O'CLOCK, 5 MILES, NORTHBOUND.." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?
between directly ahead and 90 degrees to the right
78
At ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND" Where should the pilot l9ok for this traffic?
West
79
While on final approach for landing, an alternating green and red light is received from the control tower. Under these circumstances, the pilot should...
abandon the approach, circle the airport and expect a flashing white light when the airport is safe for landing
80
A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal that the pilot
is cleared to land
81
A flashing whit light signal from the control tower to a taxing aircraft is an indication to
return to the starting point on the airport
82
If the control tower uses a light signal to direct a pilot to give way to other aircraft and continue circling the light will be
steady red
83
Which light signal from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
flashing green
84
An alternating red and green light signal directed from teh control tower to an aircraft in flight is a signal to
exercise extreme caution
85
If the aircraft's radio fails what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower
86
When activated, an emergency locator transmitter (ETL) transmits on
121.5 and 243.0 Mhz
87
Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ETL) has not been activated?
Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown
88
The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that
the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station
89
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in location an aircraft's position the aircraft must have a
VHF transmitter an dreceiver
90
Who should not participate in the land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO) program?
Student pilots
91
Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
Pilot in command
92
When should pilots decline a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
When it will compromise safety
93
Where is the Available Landing Distance (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO)?
Special Notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory (AIFD)
94
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?
3 statue miles