ALL CHAPTERS Flashcards
(112 cards)
1
Q
What is a band cell?
A
Horse shoe shaped nucleus with parallel sides, immature neutrophil
2
Q
When do growing granulocytes differentiate?
A
At the myelocyte stage
3
Q
Heparin is used for what kind of testing?
A
Chemistry
4
Q
EDTA is used for what kind of testing?
A
Hemotology
5
Q
Sodium Citrate (BTT) is used for what kind of testing?
A
Hemostasis
6
Q
A rocker shouldn’t be used for which tube?
A
Blue top
7
Q
Which portion of blood contains fibrinogen?
A
Plasma
8
Q
What is proper order of draw?
A
BTT, RTT, Green, Lavender, Gray
or BTGLG
9
Q
Relative polycythemia can be caused by what?
A
Splenic contraction or dehydration
10
Q
Primary polycythemia can be caused by what?
A
myeloproliferative disorders
11
Q
Secondary polycythemia can be caused by what?
A
renal and lung disorders
12
Q
Exotic animal blood cells counts require what?
A
Leukopet system
13
Q
CBC includes:
A
Automated RBC/WBC/PLT count, manual PCV/TP, Hgb, RBC indices, morphologies
14
Q
What do erythrocyte indices help do?
A
Classify anemia
15
Q
MCV measures what?
A
average size of RBC.
16
Q
MCH measures what?
A
average weight of hgb
17
Q
MCHC measures what?
A
concentration of hgb.
18
Q
What’s the difference between Diff Quik (Romanowsky variant) and New Methylene blue stain?
A
New Methylene blue is for reticulocytes and Heinz bodies, Diff Quik is for morphology ID and blood disease ID
19
Q
What does not indicate regenerative anemia?
A
Target cells
20
Q
What are 3 things involved in a differential blood smear?
A
Count 100 WBCs, Estimate platelet count, morphology
21
Q
A leukocyte that has a round or closely knit or clumpy nucleus and the cytoplasm is usually light blue
A
Lymphocyte
22
Q
A leukocyte that has a segmented nucleus and small light brown or clear granules in the cytoplasm
A
Neutrophil
23
Q
A leukocyte that has a lacey appearing nucleus that is usually sprawling all over the cell and commonly contains vacuoles
A
Monocyte
24
Q
A leukocyte that has a segmented nucleus and large orange or red granules in the cytoplasm
A
Eosinophil
25
A leukocyte that has a segmented nucleus and large purplish granules in the cytoplasm
Basophil
26
What is the difference between poikilocytosis and anisocytosis?
Poikilocytosis is different shapes, anisocytosis is different sizes
27
How much of the total protein does albumin make up?
35-50%
28
What does albumin do?
Maintains osmotic pressure. Not even and contents of vessels will start to leak out.
29
What is the term for not having enough albumin?
Hypoproteinemia
30
What makes fibrinogen and albumin?
Hepatocytes
31
Fibrinogen is the precursor to what?
Fibrin
32
What are 3 protein assays? What do they not necessarily test?
Albumin, Fibrinogen, Globulins
| Liver
33
What are 2 hepatobiliary assays?
ALT and AST
34
What are 2 Hepatocyte function tests?
Bilirubin and bile acid
35
What is bilirubin?
insoluble molecule from the breakdown of Hgb by macrophages in the spleen
36
Increased conjugated bilirubin indicates what?
Bile duct obstruction
37
Increased unconjugated bilirubin indicates what?
hepatic damage, problem with bile uptake
38
How is bilirubin conjugated (made water soluble)?
hepatocytes conjugate and metabolize the bilirubin
39
What are the 3 kidney assays?
BUN, creatinine, SDMA
40
What is BUN?
main end product of AA breakdown, based on ability of kidney to remove N waste from blood
41
What is azotemia?
Increased retention of urea in the blood
42
What is creatinine? How is it used in tests?
Formed by creatine found in skeletal muscle. Evaluated based on ability of glomeruli to filter creatinine from blood and eliminate into the urine
43
What is hemostasis?
The ability of the body to maintain the integrity of the blood and vessels
44
What does hemostasis involve?
Complex pathways, platelets and coagulation factors
45
What are the 3 phases of coagulation?
Mechanical or primary, chemical or secondary, final or tertiary
46
What happens during primary hemostasis?
Initiated when blood vessels are torn, requires von Willebrand factor to stabilize platelet plug. Adhesions trigger chemical phase.
47
What does secondary hemostasis involve?
13 factors, intrinsic/extrinsic pathways, and results in a fibrin mesh (clot)
48
What does tertiary hemostasis involve?
Fibrinolysis caused by the breakdown of fibrin into fibrin degeneration products by tPA
49
What are 2 tests to be done for the final coagulation stage?
D-Dimers and FDP's, to test how well fibrin is collecting in the clot
50
Which test can we do in the primary coagulation stage?
Platelet ct, bucco mucosal bleeding time (BMBT)
51
Which test can we do in the secondary coagulation stage?
Blue top tube, test PT/PTT (tests extrinsic)
52
What are 3 things you should minimize when collecting a blood sample for platelet testing?
Minimize tissue damage, minimize venous stasis (pooling), minimize excitation of patients
53
What are the blood sample tools you should use for platelet testing, and which shouldn't you use?
Use vacutainer or monovette, don't use an indwelling catheter
54
What is the ratio of citrate to plasma?
1:9
55
What should I consider if a patient is anemic while pulling blood for a platelet test?
Anemic patients have more plasma, therefore more citrate may need to be added to keep the 1:9 ratio
56
If unable to perform a platelet test within 2 hours of getting the blood, what do you do?
Separate plasma, then freeze it until it can be shipped on dry ice
57
Coag DX Analyzer does what 2 tests?
Prothrombin time (PT) and Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
58
When doing platelet estimation/evaluation, which tube is used?
LTT
59
When doing platelet clotting tests, which color tube is used?
BTT
60
What are the 3 platelet indices?
MPV, plateletcrit (PCT), and platelet distribution width
61
What is the mean platelet volume?
Average size of platelets
62
What is the plateletcrit?
Measures percentage of total blood volume comprised of platelets
63
What is the platelet distribution width (PDW)?
Assesses variation in platelet size
64
What are reticulated platelets?
Newly released platelets with high levels of RNA
65
Prolonged bleeding in a BMBT test indicates what?
Deficiencies in von Willebrand factor or thrombocytopenia
66
Activated clotting time can evaluate every significant clotting factor except what?
Factor 7
67
aPTT test evaluates what?
Intrinsic and common coagulation pathways
68
PT test evaluates what?
Extrinsic and common coagulation pathways
69
D-Dimer and FDP are useful in IDing what?
DIC, liver failure, trauma, hemangiosarcoma
70
D-Dimer and FDP evaluate what?
Tertiary hemostasis or fibrinolysis
71
PIVKA proteins are induced by the absence of which vitamin? What does it test for?
Vitamin K
| rodenticide poisoning
72
How long is PIVKA prolonged after rodenticide ingestion?
6 hours
73
How long is the PT prolonged after rodenticide ingestion? What about aPTT?
24 hours
| 48 hours
74
Von Willebrand factor is important for what?
To continue to the second phase of coagulation cascade, and required for platelet adhesion to collagen.
75
What is the most common hereditary coagulation disease? How can it be acquired?
Von Willebrands Dz
| Liver disease and rodenticide poisoning
76
What is the most commonly inherited factor deficiency in dogs? Which factor is gone>
Hemophilia A
| Factor 8
77
Hemophilia B, aka Christmas disease, is deficient in which factor?
Factor 9
78
Which types of von Willebrands disease are the most severe?
Type 2 & 3
79
What is the most common acquired coagulation disorder seen in practice?
Thrombocytopenia
80
Vitamin K is required for synthesis and activation of which factors? What can cause deficiency?
Factors 2,7,9,10
| Rodenticide or moldy sweet clover ingestion
81
DIC is secondary to many conditions such as:
Trauma, heat stroke, septicemia, pancreatitis, GDV, toxins, parasites, viruses
82
What is the primary site for production and maturation of all blood cells and PLT?
Red bone marrow
83
All cells arise from which cell?
Pluripotent Hematopoietic Stem Cell
84
Thrombopoietin is produced primarily in what organ?
Liver
85
T lymphocytes are made where?
Thymus
86
B lymphocytes are made where and make what?
Bone marrow, make antibodies
87
What is a left shift?
Increased numbers of immature neutrophils
88
Which color tube is used for chemistry testing?
GTT
89
Which color tube is used for hematology testing?
PTT
90
Which color tube is used for hemostasis testing?
BTT
91
What is the order of draw of blood tubes?
BTT, RTT, TT, GTT, LTT, Gray
92
What does MCV measure?
Average size of RBC
93
What does MCH measure?
weight of hemoglobin contained in the average RBC
94
What does MCHC measure?
concentration of hemoglobin
95
What is the formula for MCV, MCH and MCHC? Units?
MCV: PCV/TRBC*10=fL
MCH: Hgb/TRBC*10=pg
MCHC: Hgb/PCV*100=g/dL
96
What does a differential include?
WBC differential count (100), WBC/RBC/Platelet morphology, Platelet estimation
97
What does a CBC include?
Automated Hematology report, PCV/TP, Hgb, erythrocyte indices, differential
98
What do high amounts of neutrophils indicate?
Inflammation or infection
99
What do high amounts of eosinophils indicate? How long do they live?
Allergies, parasitic infections/infestations, lives 30 min
100
What do high amounts of basophils indicate?
Inflammation or infectious conditions
101
What do high amounts of lymphocytes indicate? What's their major function?
Viral infection
| Production of antibodies
102
What do high amounts of monocytes indicate? What's their major function?
Chronic infection
| Phagocytosis
103
Eosinate stain, stains what?
Basic components of the cell like hemoglobin and eosinophilic granules
104
Polychromed Methylene Blue stains what?
Acidic components of the cell
105
Under a Wright's stain, reticulocytes like like:
Polychromatophils and macrocytes
106
You can see reticulocytes clearly under which stain?
New Methylene Blue
107
What are the 2 forms of reticulocytes in cats?
Punctate and aggregate
108
Which large animal doesn't produce reticulocytes?
Horses
109
What is the predominance of blast cells in the bone marrow, disease called?
Leukemia
110
What cells make thrombocytes?
Megakaryocytes
111
Where in the body does extravascular hemolysis occur?
Spleen
112
Increased intravascular hemolysis leads to what?
Jaundice
