all google forms quizzes

Question 1

What are cell junctions?

Answer 1

intercellular bridges made up of structural proteins that allow cells to communicate

Question 2

Gap junctions are gated channels which can change in permeability, TRUE OR FALSE

Answer 2

TRUE

Question 3

Which of these are mainly found in tight junctions?
1- CONNEXONS
2- CLAUDINS AND OCCLUDINS
3- CADHERINS
4- ACTIN

Answer 3

claudins and occludins

Question 4

Which of these are mainly found in gap junctions?
1- CONNEXONS
2- CLAUDINS AND OCCLUDINS
3- CADHERINS
4- ACTIN

Answer 4

connexons

Question 5

which of these are mainly found in desmosomes?
1- CONNEXONS
2- CLAUDINS AND OCCLUDINS
3- CADHERINS
4- ACTIN

Answer 5

cadherens

Question 6

plasmodesmata are found in all animal cells? TRUE OR FALSE

Answer 6

FALSE

Question 7

what does the extra cellular matrix of an animal include?

Answer 7

collagen and fibronectin

Question 8

which IS NOT a function of the extra cellular matrix?
1 - Space filler
2 - Prevent homeostasis
3 - Influence tissue development
4 - Regulate molecular movement

Answer 8

prevent homeostasis

Question 9

X-linked Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease is linked to what type of junction?

Answer 9

gap junctions

Question 10

Hyperkeratosis and onychodystrophy are linked to what type of junction?

Answer 10

desmosomes

Question 11

Low magnesium and high calcium in the blood is linked to what type of junction?

Answer 11

tight junctions

Question 12

If the immune system is triggered without ever reacting to an antigen, is it ACTIVE OR PASSIVE IMMUNITY

Answer 12

passive immunity

Question 13

Does active or passive immunity work in an immunodeficient host

Answer 13

passive

Question 14

is adoptive transfer active or passive immunity

Answer 14

passive immunity, as they’re being injected with another persons antibodies

Question 15

what type of immunisation is mother to infant immunoglobulin transfer an example of

Answer 15

natural passive immunity

Question 16

which immunoglobulin protects the foetus during development

Answer 16

IgG

Question 17

do T cells increase or decrease in pregnancy

Answer 17

decreases

Question 18

does the Th2 response increase or decrease in pregnancy

Answer 18

increases

Question 19

what vaccination type(s) contain dead or inactive component of a pathogen

Answer 19

TIIV

Question 20

In escape mechanisms, which of the below mutations leads to a different presentation at one specific site?
1 - Antigenic drift
2 - Antigenic shift
3 - Antigenic lift

Answer 20

antigenic drift

Question 21

In escape mechanisms, which of the below mutations leads to a different presentation at multiple different sites?
1 - Antigenic drift
2 - Antigenic shift
3 - Antigenic lift

Answer 21

antigenic shift

Question 22

Which of the below is an example of a toxoid vaccination
1 - Hepatitis A
2 - Tetanus
3 - Thyphoid
4 - Sars-COV-2

Answer 22

tetanus

Question 23

what does LAIV stand for

Answer 23

live attenuated influenza virus

Question 24

what does ADCC stand for in monoclonal antibody therapy

Answer 24

Antibody dependant cellular cytotoxicity

Question 25

what monoclonal antibody mechanism results in phagocytosis

Answer 25

CDCP

Question 26

what is a eukaryote

Answer 26

a cell or organism with a clearly defined membrane bound nucleus

Question 27

what is a prokaryote

Answer 27

a cell or an organism without a clearly defined membrane bound nucleus

Question 28

define species

Answer 28

a group of similar organisms that can interbreed to produce fertile offspring

Question 29

Microbes which live and thrive on the human body could be an example of what?

Answer 29

mesophiles

Question 30

a mid halophile is an example of a microbe which prefers what type of condition

Answer 30

salt

Question 31

what is a microbiome

Answer 31

The genetic material of all of the microorganisims in one specific environment or location at one time

Question 32

Which of the below is NOT a function of commensal bacteria in the lungs? 1 - Trigger the immune response 2 - Recognise external invaders 3 - Allow colonisation of pathogenic bacteria 4 - Produce antimicrobial products and signals

Answer 32

allow colonisation of pathogenic bacteria

Question 33

How are spermatozoa adapted to carry out its function?

Answer 33

They have enzymes to break down external layers of the ovum

Question 34

How are the ovum adapted to carry out their functions?

Answer 34

they have protective external layers for species specific recognition

Question 35

Which of the below is a strength of cell culture? 1 - Have a limited lifeline 2 - Have reduced hetrogeneity 3 - Continual maintenance required 4 - Can control the micro-environment

Answer 35

can control the micro environment

Question 36

Which of the below is a limitation of cell culture? 1 - Have a limited lifeline 2 - Have been used to reduce animal testing 3 - Can be stored long term 4 - Can control the micro-environment

Answer 36

they have a limited lifeline

Question 37

What is primary endosymbiosis?

Answer 37

where a eukaryotic cell engulfs a prokaryotic cell

Question 38

what is secondary endosymbiosis

Answer 38

Where a eukaryotic cell engulfs a eukaryotic cell

Question 39

what is the main organelle discussed in relation to serial endosymbiosis

Answer 39

mitochondria

Question 40

what is bacterial redundancy

Answer 40

When multiple bacteria fill the same role

Question 41

what is dysbiosis

Answer 41

a change in microbiome from healthy to diseased

Question 42

what does CD in cell mediated immunity stand for

Answer 42

cluster of differentiation

Question 43

Major Histocompatibility Complexes are a large group of genes which code for proteins that play an essential role in which of the below? 1 - Phagocytosis in macrophages 2 - Phagocytosis in neutrophils 3 - Antigen presentation in T lymphocytes 4 - Antigen presentation in B lymphocytes

Answer 43

antigen presentation in b lymphocytes

Question 44

Allergies and tumour progression are liked to which type of Th cytokine?

Answer 44

Th2

Question 45

Which enzyme is involved in caspase activation to cause apoptosis

Answer 45

granzyme B

Question 46

Organ specific autoimmune disorders can be linked to which Th cytokine?

Answer 46

Th1

Question 47

Which type of T cell mainly expresses CD16?

Answer 47

natural killer cell

Question 47

Which type of T cell ensures self tolerance by CD25+ activation

Answer 47

regulatory T cell

Question 48

Which CD combinations are found on early T cells?

Answer 48

CD4-CD8-

Question 49

What does the 'H' in MHC stand for?

Answer 49

histocompatability

Question 50

What does the 'A' in HLA stand for?

Answer 50

antigen

Question 51

If T cells interactive with MCH class II, which types are they?

Answer 51

helper T cells

Question 52

Which T cell is found in the highest percentage in the blood, lymph nodes and spleen?

Answer 52

helper T cell

Question 53

Which type of antigen is presented as a class I MHC?

Answer 53

endogenous antigen

Question 54

Exogenous antigens such as bacterium are presented as

Answer 54

MC class II

Question 55

What is the name of molecules found on APCs which function with antigens to activate T cells

Answer 55

costimulators

Question 56

If T cells interactive with MCH class I, which type are they?

Answer 56

cytotoxic T cells

Question 57

which is the shortest phase of the cell cycle

Answer 57

M

Question 58

cyclins are only active when they are bound to cyclin dependant kinases. TRUE OR FALSE

Answer 58

TRUE

Question 59

is retinoblastoma a tumour suppressor

Answer 59

true

Question 60

do protein kinases phosphorylate or dephosphorylate proteins

Answer 60

phosphorylate them - which leads to their activation

Question 61

what is a key feature of cyclins

Answer 61

they're cyclical

Question 62

what is the role of p35

Answer 62

to stop the cell at G1S and G2M phases for spindle repair to take place

Question 63

what molecule does retinoblastoma release that allows cells to transition into G1/S

Answer 63

E2F

Question 64

What is p35 known as

Answer 64

the guardian of the genome

Question 65

which cyclin allows the cell to enter mitosis when activated

Answer 65

cyclin B

Question 66

what is CREB activated by

Answer 66

phosphorylation by protein kinase A in the cytoplasm

Question 67

what molecule is activated in G-protein receptor signalling

Answer 67

adenylyl cyclase

Question 68

what is protein kinase A activated by

Answer 68

binding of cAMP to its regulatory subunits

Question 69

Which of the following are examples of second messengers? 1 - cAMP 2 - cGMP 3 - Ca2+ 4 - Phospholipids 5 - all of the above

Answer 69

all of the above

Question 70

what are G proteins

Answer 70

molecular switches that use GDP to control their signalling cycle

Question 71

what is paracrine signalling

Answer 71

signal is sent from a nearby cell to induce a change

Question 72

The GTP on the G protein that is linked to adenylyl cyclase is split to GDP and Pi.... 1 - in the inactive state 2 - in the process of subunit separation 3 - upon activation by the receptor 4 - by the active alpha subunit

Answer 72

by the active alpha sub unit

Question 73

what is the effect of acetylcholine on heart muscles

Answer 73

decreases the rate of beating

Question 74

during the phagocyte practical what was carmine red used for

Answer 74

to dye the sample to view the change in

Question 75

during the phagocyte practical what was glutaraldehyde used for

Answer 75

to fix the sample

Question 76

during the phagocyte practical what was ethanol used for

Answer 76

as a negative control

Question 77

during the phagocyte practical what did the change in red vesical number show us

Answer 77

the measurement of phagocytosis occurring

Question 78

during the phagocyte practical what was the change in black vesical a measurement of

Answer 78

egestion

Question 79

In the Tetrahymena lab, which cellular structure does Colchicine inhibit the formation of?

Answer 79

microtubules

Question 80

which type of cell junction is involved in neurulation

Answer 80

adherens

Question 81

Which stage in serial endosymbiosis involves a prokaryotic cell being engulfed by a eukaryote?

Answer 81

primary endosymbiosis

Question 82

If T cells interactive with MCH class I, which of the below cell types are they?

Answer 82

cytotoxic T cells

Question 83

which organelle is affected by Parkinson's disease

Answer 83

mitochondria

Question 84

what is the normal role of an organelle which if defective may cause EBS

Answer 84

structural support

Question 85

is an inverted microscope used o view cell cultures

Answer 85

YES

Question 86

what is pRB and what's its role

Answer 86

its a tumour suppressor and it inhibits the growth of tumours by inhibiting cell division

Question 87

which organelle packages proteins

Answer 87

golgi

Question 88

Which of the below monoclonal antibody mechanisms result in phagocytosis ?

Answer 88

ADCP

Question 89

What is the name of molecules found on APCs which function with antigens to activate T cells

Answer 89

co-stimulators

Question 90

Are Lipid bilayers are typically asymmetrical

Answer 90

no

Question 91

Which phase of the cell cycle is the most metabolically active?

Answer 91

G1

Question 92

Which statement is NOT true about microtubules 1 - They help organise cells during division 2 - They are important for cilia 3 - They polymerise and depolymerise constantly 4 - They strengthen cell junctions

Answer 92

they don't strengthen cell junctions

Question 93

In G-protein coupled receptor signalling, what are RGS?

Answer 93

regulators

Question 94

what is the role of acetylcholine in the heart

Answer 94

decreases the rate of beating

Question 95

what is p53

Answer 95

the guardian of the genome