ALL THE DRUGS Flashcards
(138 cards)
1
Q
furosemide
mi
A
diuretic
blocks reabsorption of chloride in the loop of Henle
CHF, pulm edema, pleural effusion, ascites, renal failure
2
Q
spironolactone
mi
A
diuretic
aldosterone antagonist (aldosterone acts on kidney to retain water)
2nd line CHF
3
Q
hydrochlorothiazide
i
A
weak diuretic (thiazide diuretics)
mgmt of ascites & edema, used w/ spironolactone
4
Q
rank diuretics from most to least powerful
A
furosemide > spironolactone > thiazide diuretics
5
Q
ACE inhibitors
mi
A
vasodilator
blocks ACE (angiotensin)
CHF, hypertension
6
Q
amlodipine
i
A
vasodilator
hypertension
7
Q
nitrogylcerin
i
A
vasodilator
CHF
8
Q
hydralazine
indications
A
vasodilator
CHF, hypertension
9
Q
prazosin
i
A
vasodilator
CHF, refractory hypertension
10
Q
mech of action of class 1 antiarrhtythmics?
A
- inhibit fast sodium channels, inhibit rate of spontaneous depolarization
11
Q
lidocaine
i
A
class 1 antiarrhythmic
druge of choice to treat life threatening ventricular arrhtyhmias
12
Q
procainamide
i
A
class 1 antiarrhythmic
used IV for lidocaine-refractory ventricular arrythmias
13
Q
mexiletine
oral analoge of what?
i
A
class 1 antiarrhythmic
lidocaine
oral drug of choice for ventricular arrhtythmias in dogs
14
Q
quinidine
i
A
class 1 antiarrhythmic
atrial fibrillation
15
Q
beta blockers (class II antiarrhythmic)
mech of action
A
adrenergic receptor antagonists
(decrease sinus heart rate, ^ refractory period of the AV node, decrease myocardial oxygen demand)
16
Q
propanolol
i
A
class II antiarrhythmic
supraventricular arrhythmias
17
Q
atenolol, metoprolol, esmolol
i
A
class II antiarrhythmic
supraventricular arrythmias
18
Q
class III antiarrhythmic
mech of action
A
block K channels -> prolong refractory period, ^ duration of AP
19
Q
solatol
i
A
combo class II and III antirythmic
refractory ventricular arrythmias
20
Q
amiodarone
structural analoge of what
i
A
class III antiarrhythmic
thyroid hormone
reserved for refractory ventricular tachycardia
21
Q
calcium channel blockers (class IV antiarrhythmics)
mech
A
slows AV conduction velocity and prolongs refractory period
22
Q
diltizaem
i
A
Ca channel blockers (class IV antiarrhythmic)
supraventicular tachyarrhythmias (Atrial fib), HCM (cats)
23
Q
verapamil
i
A
Ca channel blockers (class IV antiarrhythmic)
supraventricular tachyarrythmias
24
Q
adrenergic agonists - what do they do?
A
sympathomimietic -> ^ sympathetic response
25
dobutamine
i
adrenergic agonist
cardiogenic shock (for short term use)
26
dopamine
i
adrenergic agonist
hypotension, acute renal failure
27
digoxin
adrenergic agonist (mild positive inotrope)
CHF (decreased contractility), supraventricular tachycardia
28
what do phosphodiesterase inhibitors do?
positive inotropes or vasodilators
29
pimobendan
i
phosphodiesterase inhibitor
CHF, DCM or valve dz
30
Amrinone, milrinone
i
phosphodiesterase inhibitor
CHF: DCM or valvular dz
31
theophylline
mi
methylxanthine
smooth muscle relaxation of bronchi and pulm vasc
bronchospasm
32
beta-2 adrenergic agonists (for pulm)
what do they do?
1. relax bronchial smooth muscle
2. stimulate mucus secretion
3. enhance mucociliary clearance
33
terbutaline, albuterol
i
beta-2 adrenergic agonist
bronchospasm
34
epinephrine (pulm)
i
beta-2 adrenergic agonist
allergic reactions, bronchspasm
35
butorphanol
opiod cough suppressant
36
hydrocodone
opiod cough suppressant
37
fluticasone
i
inhaled glucocorticoids
allergic airway dz and feline asthma
38
cimentidine, ranitidine, famotidine
i
H2 blockers (block HCl secretion)
reflux esophagitis, gastric ulcers, etc
39
omeprazole
i
PPI
reflux esophagitis, ulcers, etc.
40
sucralfate
i
gastroprotectant
ulcers
41
misopristol
i
gastroprotectant (PGE1 analogue)
prevention and tx of NSAID-induced gastric and duodenal ulcers
42
metoclopramide, cisapride
i
prokinetics
gastric atony, ileus, megaesophagus
43
phenothiazines (chlorpromazine)
mi
antiemetics
inhibit dopaminergic, cholinergic, and histaminergic receptors to reduce input to emetic center
refractory vomiting of defined cause
44
ondansetorn, dolasteron
mi
antiemetic: serotonergic antagonists
blocks inpute to emetic center
vomiting and nausea
45
diphenhydramine (for GI...)
m
antiemetic
H1 receptor antagonist; block input to emetic center
46
bismuth subsalicylate (pepto-bismol), kaolin and pectin
i
antidiarrheals (adsorbents)
acute diarrhea
47
loperamide
mi
opiod antidiarrheals
^ segmentation contractions of gut, but decrease downstream movement
acute diarrhea in dogs
48
salicylate derivatives (sulfasalazine)
i
antiinflammatories
chronic inflammatory colitis in dogs
49
prednisone/prenisolone/dexamethasone (GI)
i
glucocorticoids (anti-inflammatories)
histo evidence of GI inflammatory infiltrates of lymphangiectasia
50
azathioprine (imuran) (GI)
i
anti-inflammatory
lymphangiectasia, refractory or severe IBD
51
cyclosporine (GI)
MI
anti-inflammatory
inhibitor of T-cell fxn
lymphangiectasia, refractory or severe IBD
52
lactulose
osmotic laxative
53
Docusate sodium
surfactants (stool softener)
54
cisapride
prokinetic (GI)
55
ursodiol
mi
hepatoprotectat
^ bile flow
inflammatory/cholestatic liver dz
56
S-adenosylmethionine
mi
hepatoprotectant
glutathione precursor
hepatic inflammation and necrosis
57
silymarin (milk thistle extract)
mi
hepatoprotectant
antioxidant
hepatic inflam and necrosis
58
lactulose (liver)
mi
osmostic laxative
converted to osmotically active acids in colon; traps ammonia
hepatic encephalopathy
59
neomycin (drugs for hepatic encephalopathy)
mi
inhibits ammonia generation in colon
60
metronidazole (drugs for hepatic encephalopathy)
mi
kills ammonia-producing anaerobes in colon
61
D-penicillamine
liver decoppering agent
62
zinc (liver)
does what?
decreases copper absoprtion
63
methimazole
m
hyperthyroidism tx
inhibits thyroid peroxidase and thyroid hormone synth
64
radioiodine
m
hyperthyroid tx
destroys active thyroid tissue via local beta irradiation
65
L-thyroxine
m
hypothyroid tx
T4 replacement
66
mitotane
mi
cushings tx
toxic to zona fasciculata and zona reticularis layers of the adrenal glands
pituitary dependent cushing's treatment
67
trilostane
mi
cushing's tx
inhibits adrenal enzymes
pituitary dependent cushings
68
deoxycorticosterone pivalate (DOCP)
i
mineralocorticoid supplement
hypoadrenocorticism
69
fludrocortisone
i
short acting mineralocorticoid
hypoadrenocorticism
70
prednisone (for metabolic dz)
i
precursor of prednisolone with cortisol-like effects
physiologic replacement of cortisol in hypoadrenocorticism
71
dexamethasone (metabolic)
how poweful compared to prednisone
mineralocorticoid activity?
for hypoadrenocorticism
6-10 X more powerful
no
72
what do mineralocorticoids do?
what is the main one?
act on kidneys to resorb Na and therefore water
aldosterone
73
mannitol (renal disease)
i
osmotic diuretic
non-ostructive oliguric renal failure, promote diuresis in some toxicoses
74
dopamine (renal disease)
i
endogenous catecholamine (fight or flight)
oliguric renal failure
75
ACE inhibitors (enalapril, benazepril) (renal disease)
mi
vasodilator
inhibit ACE to decrease angiotensin II
hypertension, particularly that assoc w/ renal failure
76
EPO - what is it?
mi
human recombinant erythropoietin
stims erythropoeisis
anemia of chronic renal failure
77
phenoxybenzamine
i
alpha adrenergic blocker
urethrospasm (relaxation of internal urethral sphincter)
78
bethanecol
mi
cholinergic agonist
increases bladder detrusor tone
urinary retention w/o obstruction
79
amitriptylline
i
tricyclic antidepressant
spraying in cats, interstitial cystitis in cats, separation anxiety
80
phenylpropanolamine (-)
mi
alpha-adrenergic agonist
incontinence from decreased internal urethral sphincter tone
81
DES (diethlstilbestrol)
i
synthetic estrogen
hormone-responsive (spay) incontinence in dogs
82
penicillins (penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin)
good against?
antibiotics
anaerobics, some g- and g+
83
cephalosporins (cephalexin, cefazolin)
mechanism?
good for?
antibacterials
inhibit bacterial cell-wall synthesis
g+, anaerobes, lesser g- (2nd and third generation get better with gram -)
84
fluoroquinolones (enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin)
mech?
coverage?
antibacterials
inhibit DNA gyrase -\> prevent bacterial DNA synthesis
g-, staph, mycoplasma, no anaerobes
85
tetracyclines (tetracycline, oxytetracycline, doxycycline)
mi
antibacterials
inhibit protein synth (bind to 30S and 50S ribosomal subunits)
ricketsiall, anaplams, mycopslams, brucella, chlamydia, spirochetes (leptospira, borrelia)
86
potentiated sulfonamindes (trimethoprim-sulfa)
mi
anti-bacterials
false folate analogues
some g-, nocardia, pneumocystis
87
aminoglycosides (gentamicin, amikacin)
mi
inhibit protein synth
serious g- infections, no anaerobes
88
metronidazole
i
antibacterials
anaerobics (also used in IBD)
89
macrolides (erythromycin, azithromycin, tylosin)
coverage?
antibacterials
first two: anaerobes and g+
last one: colitis
90
lincosamides (clindamycin)
i
antibacterials
toxoplasma, mycoplasma, chlamydia, anaerobes and g+
91
chloramphenicol and florfenicol
spectrum?
antibacterials
anaerobes
92
rifampin
spectrrum
antibacterial
mycobacteria
93
Azoles (ketoconazole, itraconazole, fluconazole)
mi
antifungals
block ergosterol synth
fight most fungi
94
amphotericin B
mi
antibiotic antifungal
binds ergosterol
systemic mycoses (aspergillus is resistant)
95
griseofulvin
mi
antibiotic antifungals
binds microtubules and disrupts mitosis
active against dermatophytes (none against yeast )
96
glucocorticoids
1. act how?
1. bind intracellular glucocorticoid receptor and modify expression profile of genes containing the glucocorticoid response element
97
glucocorticoids
effects on metabolism?
catabolic
^ gluconeogenesis, decrease protein synth, ^lipolysis or lipogenesis depending on tissue
98
(glucocorticoids)
1. effect on musculoskeletal system?
2. on CNS?
3. on GI?
1. enhanced bone resportion, muscle atrophy
2. change in behavior (hyperactivity or drowsiness)
3. ^ acid secretion and decreased mucosal cell turnover
99
(glucocorticoids)
1. renal effects?
2. on cardiovascular?
1. polyuria, ^ K and Ca excretion
2. ^ vasomotor tone
100
(glucocorticoids)
1. effect on hematopoeitc (lots ehre)
1. thrombocytosis
2. neutrophilia, monocytosis
3. eosinopenia, lymphopenia
4. decrease inflammatory mediators
5. decrease leukocytes phagocytosis, chemotaxis, and antigen processing
101
(glucocorticoids)
1-5. indications?
1. inflammatory diseases
2. immune-mediated diseases
3. atopy and allergic diseases
4. treatment of hypoadrenocorticism
5. hypercalcemia
102
(glucocorticoids - side fx)
103
(glucocorticoids)
104
(glucocorticoids)
1. short acting?
2. intermediate-acting?
3. long-acting?
1. hydrocortisone
2. prednisone or prednisolone, methylprednisolone
3. dexamethasone
105
NSAIDS
mech?
inhibition of cyclo-oxygenases 1 or 2 (COX-1, COX-2), leading to inhibition of prostaglandin synthesis from arachidonic acid
106
NSAIDS
four major effects?
1. anti-inflammatory
2. antipyretic
3. analgesic
4. inhibition of platelet aggregation (via COX-1 inhibition)
107
NSAIDs
1-3. 3 indications?
1. musculoskeletal pain
2. postop pain and inflammation
3. fever
108
NSAIDs
1-5. side fx?
1. vomiting, diarhea
2. gastric ulceration
3. impaired renal blood flow
4. hemorrhage due to impaired platelet function
5. idiosyncratic liver tox
109
NSAIDs
1-5. contraindications
1. GI ulcers
2. bleeding disorders
3. compromised renal fxn
4. dehydration
5. liver dysfx
110
(NSAIDS)
1. non-selective xamples?
2. COX-2 preferential
3. COX-2 selective
1. aspirin, phenylbutazone, flunixine, piroxicam
2. carprofen, meloxicam
3. deracoxib
111
opioid analgesics
what are the three kinds of receptors and where are they found?
mu, kappa, delta
mu in brainstem
mu, kappa, delta in spinal cord
112
(opioid analgesics)
1. rank receptors in order of analgesia provided
2. in order of sedation
3. which receptor causes most resp depression, heart rate depression, hypothermia?
4. which one has lots of GI side fx (nausea, vomiting, defecation)?
1. mu \> delta \> kappa
2. mu \> delta (little) \> kappa (none)
3. mu
4. mu
113
morphine
mi
full opioid agonist
interacts with all receptors (but mu provides most effects)
analgesia for moderate to severe pain
114
oxymorphone
i
full opioid agonist (morphine derivative)
analgesia for moderate to severe pain (specifically approved for dogs and cats)
115
fentanyl
i
full opioid agonist (highly selective for mu)
analgesia for moderate to severe pain (duration of action around 20 minutes) - transdermal patches available for prolonged use
116
hydromorphone
i
full opiod agonist
sedation and analgesia
117
buprenorphine
i
partial opioid agonists
analgesia (mild), little to no sedation
antitussive in dogs
118
naloxone
i
pure opioid antagonist
reverses CNS and resp depression
119
tramadol
i
opioid - weak agonist on mu receptor
analgesia (minimal effect on resp, cardio, GI systems)
120
heparin
m
anticoagulant
binds with antithrombin to inhibit thrombin formation
121
aspirin (effect on blood)
anticoagulant (at low dose)
122
phenobarbital
i
anticonvulsant
epileptic seizures
123
bromide
anticonvulsant
124
fenbendazole
i
anthelmintic
roundworms, hookworms, whipworms, giardia, lungworms
125
fenbantel
i
anthelmintic
same as fenbendazole (roundworms, hookworms, whipworms, giardia, lungworms)
126
pyrantel
i
anhtelmintic
roundworms and hookworms
127
praziquantel
i
tapeworms
128
ivermectin (heartguard and heartguard plus)
i
yeah...
infective stage of heartworm larvae
129
milbemycin oxime
same as heartguard
130
selamectin
same as heartguard (plus hookworms and roundworms in cats)
131
melarsomie (immiticide)
treatment of adult heartworms and L5 larvae in dogs
132
pyrethrins and pyrethroids
i
ectoparasiticide
effective against flies, fleas, lice, and ticks
133
carbamates
i
ectoparasiticide
insecticide (fleas, lice, and flies), acaricide (mites and ticks)
134
amitraz
i
ectoparasiticide
topical generalized canine demodicosis
135
imidacloprid (advantage)
i
topical adulticide (kills fleas but not ticks)
136
fipronil (frontline)
i
ectoparasiticides
active against fleas and ticks for 1 month
137
ivermectin
i
ectoparasiticides
sarcoptic mange and demodicosis in dogs
138
selamectin
i
ectoparasiticides
fleas and ear mites in dogs and cats
mange and ticks in dogs
