Altered Mental Status - Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Define AMS

A

a change in the clinical state of emotional and intellectual functioning of an individual

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2
Q

______ behavior deemed unusual for the individual or deviates from societal norms. How would someone describe them?

A

confusion

often uncooperative or combative

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3
Q

_____ an acute change in attention and mental functioning

A

delirium

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4
Q

_____ a slow onset of cognitive dysfunction that is chronic in nature

A

dementia

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5
Q

** _______ The patient’s eyes open, looks at you and when spoken to in a normal tone of voice and responds fully and appropriately to stimuli.

A

alertness

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6
Q

**______ The patient appears drowsy but opens eyes when spoken to in a loud voice and looks at you, response to questions, and then falls asleep.

A

lethargy

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7
Q

**______ The patient opens the eyes when tactile stimulus is applied and looks at you but responds slowly and is somewhat confused

A

obtundation

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8
Q

**______ The patient arouses only after painful stimuli. Verbal responses are slow or even absent. The patient lapses into an unresponsive state when the stimulus ceases

A

stupor

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9
Q

**_____ The patient remains unarousable with eyes closed. There is no evident response to inner need or external stimuli

A

coma

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10
Q

If patient awake, alert without neuro deficit, perform ____ to differentiate confusion and delirium from a psychiatric disorders

A

mini mental status exam

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11
Q

How many liters can you give of oxygen in a normal NC?

A

1-4 LPM NC

liters per minute

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12
Q

How many liters per minutes can you give in a high flow NC?

A

up to 10 liters per minute

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13
Q

How many liters per minute can you give in a simple mask? non-rebreather?

A

6-10 LPM simple mask

10-15 LPM non-rebreather

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14
Q

What are the steps for initial evaluation in a pt with AMS?

A

take vitals: including O2 and POC glucose

Assess for shock: s/s of hypoperfusion

if hypoxic -> ABG

obtain 2 large bore IV catheters

obtain hx once the pt is stable: “What is the pt’s last known normal?”

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15
Q

What 3 treatments are fairly safe to administer without a diagnosis in patients with abnormal LOC?

A

dextrose

thiamine (B1) -> any s/s of malnutrition, should be thinking of thiamine deficiency

nalaxone

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16
Q

What is one super important questions to know when working a pt up for AMS?

A

when the last known normal was!!

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17
Q

What is considered abrupt, rapid vs gradual with regards to onset of symptoms?

A

abrupt: seconds to minutes

rapid: worse over days

gradual: days to weeks

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18
Q

What are some ddx that would present with abrupt timing?

A

ischemia, subarachnoid hemorrhage, seizure

seconds to minutes

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19
Q

What are some ddx that would present with rapid timing?

A

delirium

rapid: worse over days

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20
Q

What are some ddx that would present with a gradual timing?

A

space occupying lesion, dementia, psychiatric disorders

days to weeks

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21
Q

What are some ddx that would present with a fluctuating timing?

A

seizures, subdural hematoma, metabolic disorders, delirium

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22
Q

What is in the ddx if the pt reports history of similar symptoms of AMS?

A

seizures, TIA’s, delirium

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23
Q

What is Wernicke’s encephalopathy? What is the presentation?

A

thiamine B1 deficiency due to chronic alcohol use/chronic malnutrition

confusion
eye muscle weakness
ataxia

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24
Q

What are things you want to assess during your PE of a pt with AMS?

A

Assess alertness/orientation: ask A&O x3

Fundoscopic exam

Neurologic assessment: see next card

GCS

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25
What are the components of the neurologic assessment in an unconscious pt?
https://docs.google.com/presentation/d/1icC-bUOBXcV9Ny5Rrk5S7GGy-1A34EdYWoVF1Kcs1Kk/edit#slide=id.g27ce96e0db_0_259 do it!!!
26
Draw the glascow coma scale
27
What does the six-item screener assess for? When it is used?
3 item memory recall year, month, day of week assess for confusion in adults
28
What does attention span help you differentiate? What are the 3 components?
differentiates between confused states and mental illness digit span, serial 7s, spell backwards
29
If your pt is awake, alert and has normal vitals and the mental status exam reveals disorientation and memory problems, what does it indicate?
indicate medical or neurologic illness
30
If your pt is awake, alert and has normal vitals and the mental status exam reveals disorders of thought content/attention, what does it indicate?
psych causes of AMS: psych illness
31
If concerned for DKA should order _______. What value is it testing?
Serum β-hydroxybutyrate (serum ketones) Ammonia
32
What is the lab test for carbon monoxide poisoning?
Carboxyhemoglobin
33
What is the lab test for alcohol?
Blood alcohol concentration (BAC) interchangable with EtOH level same test depending on the facility
34
**When should you order a head CT in AMS? What type?
if focal neurologic signs, papilledema or fever **head CT w/o contrast
35
**What are the indications for a LP? **What are the relative CIs?
**CNS infection, SAH not seen on CT **relative CI: cerebral edema and increased ICP
36
**What are the recommendations with regards to a CT scan BEFORE LP?
Immunocompromised state History of CNS disease : mass lesion, stroke, or focal infection New onset seizure (within one week of presentation) Papilledema Abnormal level of consciousness Focal neurologic deficit
37
What level is a spinal tap performed? Watch the video (it is a learning objective)
A spinal tap, or lumbar puncture, is typically performed in the lower back, between the L3-L4 or L4-L5 interspace to access the subarachnoid space and collect cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=O_RjwNMZws8
38
______ an acute alteration in level of consciousness with change in cognition or perceptual disturbance
delirium
39
What are the 4 key features of delirium?
Disturbance in attention (ability to direct, focus, sustain or shift attn) and awareness (orientation) that develops over HOURS-DAYS Fluctuation in symptoms over a 24 hour period Disturbance in cognition: memory, orientation, language, perception, visuospatial Sleep-wake cycles disrupted
40
______ a slow decline in cognition involving one or more cognitive domains. What does it commonly affect?
dementia learning and memory, language, executive function, complex attention, perceptual-motor, social cognition
41
What are the pharm options that help to tx acute delirium? What is the dosing for elderly pts?
haloperidol (Haldol) 5-10 mg PO or IM lorazepam (Ativan) 0.5 - 2 mg PO, IM, IV start with lower doses for elderly pts
42
**What are the 2 SEs that need to be monitored for when using haloperidol? Can give _____ to help
Monitor frequently for extrapyramidal symptom and QT prolongation can give Benadryl to help with extrapyramidial symptoms
43
What SE do you need to monitor for when using lorazepam?
Monitor for respiratory depression
44
In both delirium and dementia, can use ______ to control psychosis, agitation or severely disruptive or dangerous behaviors. What is the disposition for both?
antipsychotic delirium: Admit patient unless cause is identified, treatment initiated, and improvement seen in ED dementia: Admit unless patient has long-standing stable symptoms, consistent caregivers and reliable follow up for outpatient evaluation
45
After administration of narcan, what should you do next? Can this pt sign out AMA?
the patient should be observed for 1-1.5 hours prior to discharge YES!!! but the pt needs to be competent
46
What is considered hypoglycemia is children? _____ have transient hypoglycemia for the first week of life
Diagnosis with glucose of < 45-50 mg/dL but needs to be consistently below that level!!! Neonates
47
What is the tx for hypoglycemia in a neonates?
initial dose of 5 mL/kg of 10% dextrose Maintenance: 6-8 mg/kg/minute of 10% dextrose (D10W) neonates is LESS than 28 days old
48
What is the tx for hypoglycemia in infants and older children?
initial dose of 1-2 mL/kg of 25% dextrose 6-8 mg/kg/minute of 10% dextrose (D10W)
49
What routes does dextrose come in? What should you do next if that if not an option?
IV, IO, enteral (PO or NG tube) Glucagon 0.5 mg (<25 kg) or 1 mg (>25 kg) IM, if unable to get IV, IO or NG
50
What is the disposition for a kiddo with hypoglycemia?
Admit all children requiring ED resuscitation
51
What is the tx for hypoglycemia in adults?
via IV
52
In hypoglycemia in adults, add on ______ if hypoglycemia is refractory and related to sulfonylurea use. Why does it work?
octreotide prevents the release of insulin from the pancreas
53
What is the tx for hypoglycemia in pts with a insulin pump?
resuscitate with dextrose DO NOT remove the pump consult endocrinology to lower pump basal rate
54
What is the disposition criteria for a pt with hypoglycemia?
admit: patients who have hypoglycemia related to long acting agents need admitted for serial glucose monitoring if discharging the pt -> educate to continue carbohydrate intake and monitor glucose
55
What are considered long acting agents in hypoglycemia?
sulfonylureas long-acting insulins meglitinides Sulfonylureas - glipizide, glyburide, glimepiride Meglitinides: Prandin (repaglinide) and Starlix (nateglinide)
56
What type of DM is DKA common in? **What are the 6 "I's" of DKA?
type I infection infarction insult (to the body) infant (pregnancy) indiscretion (lack of care) insulin (absence) basically sums up all the potential causes of DKA
57
What are the 5 main actions of insulin?
58
What is the pathophys behind DKA?
aka it has a huge snowball effect of too much glucose in the blood aka kidneys try to compensate and pee out the glucose
59
What will a pt in DKA present like? Which two are the first ones occur?
hyperglycemia: polydipsia** first polyuria: resulting in the osmotic diuresis and electrolyte imbalance ** first s/s of volume depletion: dry mucosal membranes, poor skin turgor, orthostatis, hypotension, shock, decreased GFR, altered LOC acidosis: tachypnea, Kussmaul respirations, fruity breath, abdominal pain, N/V
60
What labs should you order in DKA?
POC gluocse CBC: looking for signs on infection CMP Phosphate Magnesium ABG/VBG UA Serum ketones EKG: MI and signs of increased K
61
**What are the lab diagnostic criteria for DKA?
62
What is the difference between ABG/VBG?
can order just a VBG if all you need to pH hypoxic patients needs ABG
63
If UA is positive for ketones, what should you do next?
order serum ketones for confirmation
64
What does CO2 in a CMP reflect?
bicarb level
65
What are the risk factors for pts who are in DKA but have a glucose of less than 250?
66
What are the 5 goals of DKA management? What is the disposition?
- volume repletion - reverse insulin insufficiency - correct electrolyte and acid/base imbalance -identify and tx precipitating causes -avoid complications ALL DKA pts get admitted!!
67
What is step 1 expanded for DKA?
fluids within the first hour!! aka fluid replacement, then check Na and adjust accordingly
68
What is the expanded step 2 in tx of DKA?
correct K deficits
69
What should you do in DKA if the K is above 5.2?
start insulin
70
What should you do in DKA if the K is between 3.3-5.2?
Add 20-30 mEq of K+ to each liter of NS and start insulin
71
What should you do in DKA if the K is less than 3.3?
Hold insulin, administer K+ until K+ is > 3.3 recheck K every 2 hours until K is above 3.3
72
What is expanded step 3 in DKA tx? **What are the 2 dosing options?
Initiate regular insulin as soon as safely possible (based upon K+) **2 dosing options (one is not better than the other) 0.1 U/kg bolus, then 0.1 U/kg/hr 0.14 U/kg/hr without a bolus
73
What is expanded step 4 in the tx of DKA? What is the goal?
recheck glucose q hour reduce glucose by 75 mg/dL/hr
74
What should you do in DKA if the glucose does NOT decrease by 10% after 1 hour?
give a 0.14 U/kg bolus regular insulin then resume normal rate
75
What should you do in DKA if the gluocse decreases faster than 75md/dL/hr?
decrease insulin drip by half.
76
What should you do in DKA when the glucose approaches 200mg/dL? What additional thing also needs to be done?
switch IV fluids to D5½ NS decrease insulin dose to 0.02-0.05 U/kg/hr q2hours CMP, check electrolytes, anion gap, VBG
77
Why is the IV fluid switched to D5½ NS once the glucose approaches 200?
to prevent hypoglycemia and cerebral edema
78
What are the 2 monitoring goals in a pt with DKA? What additional 2 things need to be monitored?
Goal: return all electrolytes to normal ranges and keep K+ between 3.3-5.2 mEq/dL Goal: Reduce AG and improve acid-base balance monitor: mental status and I&Os
79
What are the special circumstances in DKA if the pt has a pH less than 6.9?
pH < 6.9 - consider giving NaHCO3 in water with 20 mEq of K+ - repeat dosing every 2 hours until pH is > 7.0
80
What are the 2 types of CVA?
ischemic and hemorrhagic
81
What are the 2 types of hemorrhagic CVA?
Intracerebral Subarachnoid
82
_____ with ____ with intracranial hemorrhage. What is a rare presentation?
Severe headache N/V seizures and syncope
83
How will a CVA present? **What is the super important hx question?
an acute neurologic deficit Motor Sensory Coordination/balance/vertigo Mood/behaviors Altered mental status **When was their last known normal?"
84
________ must be performed in all pt with suspected CVA
NIHSS Score it is on MD calc
85
What is included in the dx work-up of a pt with a suspected stroke? Who do you need to consult? When? What is the disposition?
Consult neurology/tele-neurology preferably before giving tPA if time allows All patients will require admission preferably to a stroke unit or ICU
86
What is the goal timing for a brain CT WITHOUT contrast in a suspected CVA? What will the finding be in an ischemic stroke?
completed with in 25 minutes of arrival CT will be normal in an ischemic stroke
87
What is the timing window for an acute hemorrhage to show on the CT?
Highly sensitive within 6 hours of onset to rule out/in acute hemorrhage
88
What is the goal O2 stat for a stroke? How should the pt be positioned?
above 94% lie supine
89
in a CVA, want the pt to lie ______. What are the exceptions?
lie supine elevate head 30° if increased ICP, aspiration risk or chronic CV/Pulm disease
90
If the pt is on an anticoagulation and having a hemorrhagic stroke, what should you do next?
Anticoagulation reversal
91
If the pt is having an intracerebral hemorrhage and BP is 150-220, what should you do? What agents are used? What is the goal BP?
acute (within 1 hour) lowering of BP to an optimal SBP goal of 140 mmHg labetalol, nicardipine, clevidipine SBP goal between 140-160 mmHg
92
If the pt is having an intracerebral hemorrhage and BP higher than 220, what should you do? What is the goal BP? What BP agents should you use?
aggressive reduction with continuous IV infusion BP monitoring every 5 minutes SBP goal between 140-160 mmHg labetalol, nicardipine, clevidipine
93
What is the goal BP for a pt with a ischemic stroke getting tPA need to be? What agents?
BP goal of SBP ≤ 185 and DBP ≤ 110 before tPA can be administered labetalol, nicardipine, clevidipine
94
What is the goal BP for a pt with a ischemic stroke NOT getting tPA need to be? What agents?
Do not treat unless SBP >220 or DBP >120 or signs of end-organ damage labetalol, nicardipine, clevidipine
95
Are elevated trops a sign of end-organ damage?
YES!! elevated trops signifies heart is stressed
96
How do you determine if someone is eligible for tPA? **What are the inclusion criteria?
calculator on MD calc **Inclusion criteria: 1. Clinical diagnosis of ischemic stroke causing measurable neurologic deficit 2. Onset of symptoms within 4.5 hours of initiation of treatment 3. Age ≥18 years need to have all 3 to be eligible
97
Does tPA require informed consent? How is it administered? What are the monitoring requirements? What does the BP need to be?
YES!! Infuse tPA over 60 minutes Perform neuro checks q15m x 3 hours then q30 minutes x 6 hours Keep BP < 180/105 mmHg
98
When is an endovascular mechanical thrombectomy indicated? What is the associated timing?
Treatment must occur within 24 hours of symptom onset and performed at a stroke center with surgeons experienced in procedure needs to be in a LARGE vessel
99
When will TIA symptoms typically resolve? What is the work-up?
within 1-2 hours same as a stroke, tx is same as stroke
100
**What is the disposition of a TIA?
based on the presence of high risk features, admit if 1 or more are present **need to know high risk feature!!
101