An. Tech II Flashcards

1
Q

Define pneumo peritoneum and the potential complications.

A
Presence of gas in abdominal cavity. 
Vasovagal
Hypercarbia - acidosis
Emphysema
Capnothorax (gas goes into chest)
CVS depression 
High airway pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is carbon dioxide the gas of choice?

A

Colourless - view
Non-flammable
Non-toxic
Highly soluble - cleared from body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can high PaCO2 be managed?

A
Increase MV to expel more
PCV to manage high P
Consider AL to better manage
Can ask for pneumo release
Recruit more alveoli with PEEP
Increase I:E
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is subcutaneous emphysema and pneumo-mediastinum?

A

Emphysema: gas trapped in skin layer
Mediastinum: gas in central area of chest cavity

Causes: misplaced insufflation needle, anatomical defect, high pressure gas dissects tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How is the airway and ventilation managed during laparoscopic surgery?

A
ET tube 
IPPV - PCV
Avoid gastric distension during bag mask
Treat hypercarbia 
Consider PEEP
Don't use nitrous
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the criteria for LMA use in laparoscopic procedures?

A
Not overweight
No reflux
Not long surgery 
Experienced surgeon and anaesthetic 
Second generation should be used to allow gastric drainage. Also have higher pressure seal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Why is shoulder tip pain experienced?

A

Caused by diaphragm irritation
Small amount of gas may remain and irritate nerves on the diaphragm
Pain will pass as gas clears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is an anterior resection?

A

Removal of rectum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is a Hartmans procedure?

A

Removal of sigmoid colon with a colostomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is third spacing and the impact on fluid management?

A

Fluid shift into epithelial lined spaces - cannot participate in exchange, oedema
Dissected tissue increases permeability during laparotomy
Don’t fluid overload - encourage fluid to stay intravascular, fluid regime for optimal SV, give albumin if low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the mechanisms of heat loss during laparotomy?

A
No behavioural response
Impaired thermoregulation system 
GA vasodilation
Open exposure - evaporation 
Unwarned fluid/irrigation
Dehydration reduces heat distribution
Limited access for external warming
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Methods to minimise heat loss.

A
Pre op warming
Temp probe
Theatre temp
Only anaesthetic if >36
Use fluid warming
Forced air warmers - wrap head
Warm/humid airway gases
Warmed irrigation 
Wound packing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is an anastomosis?

A

A cross connection between adjacent tubular structures like bowels
Formed so bowels still function
If cannot form then stoma made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Indications for a NG tube

A

Reduce gastric distension to lower regurgitate risk
Prolonged procedures to drain excess
Evaluation of contents
Post-op drugs or feeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Risks of NG tube

A
Lung insertion - pneumothorax, spasm
Coiled tube
Infection
Tube entry to brain
Perforated oesophagus or abscess 
Aspiration
Epistaxis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Equipment for NG insertion

A
Correct sized NG
Lube
Laryngoscope
Magills?
Catheter tip syringe and bag
NG securing tape
Suction at hand
Checking equipment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How can correct placement of NG be checked?

A

Aspirating and pH test (<6)
Appearance of content
X-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is bone cement implantation syndrome?

A

Methyl methacrylate
Causes hypoxia and CVS collapse
Likely from fat/air embolus or cement toxin itself
Cement causes high intramedullary pressure which can force fat into circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How are cementing risks minimised?

A
Introduce prosthesis slowly
Use suction to drain fat and air
Avoid cement where possible 
Thoroughly lovage the shaft 
Use a venting hole 
Use cement restrictors to reduce pressure
Work cement well to remove vasodilator compounds
Use low viscosity cement
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is reaming and the complications?

A

Enlarges the size of the hole leaving smooth sides for ease of prosthesis insertion
Fat embolism syndrome: respiratory, neurological and petechial rash
ARDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Maximum tourniquet time and risks of time extending?

A

Arm: 90min
Leg: 120min

Pain wind up
Ischemia
Toxic build up
Emboli formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What can happen on tourniquet release?

A

Sudden bradycardia and hypotension

Washout of metabolic waste causes this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is tourniquet inflation based on BP?

A

Helps to ensure adequate prevention of blood flow and reduce injury

Arm: systolic + 50
Leg: 2x systolic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What’s the diagnosis of compartment syndrome?

A

Occurs when circulation and tissue in a closed space is compromised by increased pressure resulting in ischemia and necrosis
Needle and transducer into compartment
If within 30mmHg of diastolic pressure it’s confirmed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Cause, risk and treatment of compartment syndrome.
Limb injury, limb surgery, tourniquet, crush, mal positioning, hypotension, haemorrhage, oedema, drugs Test pressure, keep limb at heart level, fasciotomy and splint limb, ensure hydration and oxygen
26
What is a serious bone infection and ways to minimise?
Osteomyelitis ``` Sterile AB prophylaxis Pre op wash Remove any FB Stringent wash out Frequent change dressings Minimal OT movement, masks ```
27
How does Lloyd Davis differ from lithotomy?
``` Lloyd Davis (trendelenberg with legs apart) is supine with legs flexed and head down 30 degrees. Legs in stirrups Lithotomy is supine, legs apart, flexed in stirrups but no head down. ```
28
Why move patients legs simultaneously with Lloyd Davis and lithotomy?
To prevent torsion of the spine and large vessels. Also reduce incidence of muscle, nerve and soft tissue injury. Nerve is lumbosacral plexus
29
What equipment should be available for a pregnant patient?
``` DI equipment RSI Care with moving and positioning - tilt? Care with drugs!! Consider thiopentone and antacids ```
30
Why might hypotensive anaesthesia be requested during ear surgery?
``` Allows bloodless operative field Improves view Potent opioid cover, head tilt up, hypotensive drugs Aim MAP 50-60 Consider art line ```
31
How can hypotensive anaesthesia be achieved?
``` Remifentanyl infusion Beta blockers Vasodilators Labetalol increments Alpha adrenergic agonist High dose inhalation agent ```
32
Why is nitrous oxide contraindicated in ear surgery?
Causes raised middle ear pressure which can damage compromised structures and lift grafts. It can also cause pain, hearing loss and bleeding. This is due to rapid diffusion of nitrous into air contained spaces. Nitrous also has high PONV which could cause post op damage from raising pressures
33
Why is PONV common after ear surgery and how can it be managed?
Ear contains vestibular system which communicates to brain regarding dizziness, balance, nausea and vomiting. Any disturbance can trigger the system. Prophylactic antiemetic should be given during op and charted for post op. Raised middle ear pressure also contributes as does hypotension.
34
Why are nasal mucosa preps used prior to surgery?
Vasoconstrict vessels to prevent bleeding and therefore enhance the surgical view
35
What are common Nadal mucosal agents?
``` Cocaine paste Adrenaline Xylometazoline Co-phenylcaine Moffet's solution (cocaine, adrenaline and sodium bicarbonate) ```
36
Justify the use of throat packs.
Absorb blood, irrigation and secretions Stop airway irritation Prevents pooling Ensure removed!!
37
Strategies to prevent throat pack retention
Stickers Verbal communication Nurses count Accept only when seen
38
Why is reverse trendelenberg used for nasal surgery?
Allows blood and secretions to run out of the space and be collected in throat pack
39
Why is nasal packing used?
Reduce bleeding and stops it from going down throat Keeps altered structure open and prevents their collapse Remind patients to mouth breathe
40
How can increased laryngospam risk be managed in nasal patients?
Due to irritation from blood running down throat Anaesthetist should use suction/catheter under laryngoscope to remove majority Extubate deep or well awake PACU should monitor closely, provide continued low suction and keep patients on their side, head down
41
What are the airway options for laser surgery of the cords?
Jet ventilation with low oxygen percent and TIVA Intermittent bursts to maintain saturation Laser tube if airway needs securing 30% O2 best choice SV patient using high pressure oxygen eg opti flow
42
What are the causes of airway fires?
Plastic/rubber ignite under heat Antiseptic solutions are flammable Ignition due to oxygen in high conc Laser heat
43
Immediate treatment of airway fire
``` Flood with saline Reduce/stop oxygen Remove tube Ventilate with 100% oxygen Perform laryngoscope to remove debri Reintubate or perform tracheostomy ```
44
Strategies to minimise fire risk
``` Correct equipment eg laser tube Low oxygen Laser small bursts only Jug of water Soaked swabs on surrounded tissue No skin prep or ensure dried Adequate smoke evacuator Pre test laser Ensure no leak around cuff If >30% o2 then metal suction and wait 1 min ```
45
Describe jet ventilator
Device with cannula which connects to the airway Can select oxygen % and pressure Trigger allows gas flow High flow oxygen creates Venturi effect entraining air Expiration is passive
46
What are the pre use checks of a jet ventilator
``` Check oxygen/air contents Check pressure adjustable and on correct setting Check trigger function Check connection to cannula Test cannula with gas flow Check for any leaks ```
47
Why is a tonsil post op bleed potentially lethal?
Large amount of blood loss - hypovalaemia Aspiration risk from blood in stomach Laryngoscope and intubation becomes exceptionally difficult - blood and oedema Residual anaesthetic effects?
48
What are the anaesthetic considerations for a bleeding tonsil?
``` Get help - senior RSI DI trolley, video scope, f/o Gastric tube remove stomach blood once secure Consider residual anaesthetic Lots of suction - consider catheter Hb check Consider intubation in left lateral/head down ```
49
What is the surgical tonsil position?
``` (Rose position) Supine with bolster under shoulders to extend head and neck Optimal view Allows boyles Davis gag Reduced secretions down airway ```
50
What is the post tonsillectomy position?
(Side lying position) Left lateral and head down Facilitate drainage and allows visual cue of bleeding Reduces airway irritation
51
What's a coroners clot?
Retained clot in nasopharynx which can be aspirates and close off the airway. Potential from any ENT procedure. Must be checked via laryngoscope and deemed clear
52
What are the anaesthetic consideration for FB in lungs?
``` Rigid bronchoscope Inhalation induction 100% O2 Topicalise cords Jet vent or intubate Consider drying agent Allow SV where possible IPPV only if obstruction in lower airway ```
53
Why are trauma patients considered unfasted?
Sympathetic stimulation from high stress causes a halt in the parasympathetic ie digestion Opioids delay gastric emptying
54
How should patient belongings be handled if police involved?
Remove with gloves Separate sealed, labelled bags Details regarding where each item located Ensure not further damaged
55
Why must care be taken inserting nasal devices in a head injury?
In case of a base of skull fracture Could allow device to intrude into brain tissue Any other injuries which may have disrupted the normal nasal path
56
Why must BP and IV be kept away from previous breast surgery side?
``` Always if have had node clearance Puts patient at risk of lymphoedema BP will change fluid placement and compromise drainage IV fluid will collect in limb Keep away - consider feet/legs ```
57
What must be considered when arms are out on boards?
No more than 90 degrees Brachial plexus injury Strain/tear shoulder structures
58
What are the risks of long surgeries?
``` Normothermia Pressure injury DVT Cuff pressure Eye care Fluid management Rotate monitoring ```
59
Why might papaverine be used in plastics?
Can be applied directly to vessels to prevent then spasming thereby allowing careful and precise surgery. Ensures perfusion at site so improving tissue survival
60
What is the TURP solution and why?
Glycine 1.5% in water | Dis tends bladder and irrigates dissected tissue away
61
What is the treatment of TURP syndrome?
``` Stop surgery Stop fluids Secure airway if needed Treat seizures Give furosemide Check Na and Hb Give hypertonic saline and diuretic Admit to ICU/HDU ```
62
What is the common urology AB?
Gentamicin slow IV It's an aminoglycoside gram negative Often followed by cefuroxine 8 hourly
63
What is artheroscleroma?
Plaques or lesions on arterial walls causing narrow and hard wall Usually from injury which gets infected Plaques may grow and impede flow Risk: MI, IHD, sudden death, stroke,
64
Why is arterial clamping times?
Prevents blood flow so prolonged time could cause ischemia and tissue death. Timer helps to prevent Usually up to 1 hour
65
What are the anaesthetic considerations during clamping?
Ensure cardiac output monitoring Don't heat lower body May get proximal hypertension Metabolic acidosis may develop - ABG and MV inc Begin fluid to increase CVP to prep for de-clamp Monitor urine as renal failure possible
66
What are the anaesthetic considerations at de-clamping?
``` Reverse heparin Prepare for cvs instability Watch for sudden hypotension- adrenaline Manage effects of metabolic wastes Potential for bleeding ```
67
How is perfusion still maintained during aortic clamping?
Prescribed time Bypass and cannulation flow back into femoral vessels Hypothermia preserves by slowing down metabolism
68
What are the anaesthetic options for a carotid?
Cervical plexus block with sedation GA with ET - perfusion monitor Art line
69
Why is warming reduced during clamping?
Can increase metabolism thereby increasing ischemia | Non-moving circulation increases burns risk
70
What's an AV fistula and what care must be taken with monitoring?
Arteriovenous fistula Connection between artery and vein for haemodialysis BP away as could cause clot to form or rupture Cannulate away to prevent damage
71
What are the conditions of a cardio version?
Must have a TOE or on anticoagulant for certain time. NIBP and sats. Sedate AF, atrial flutter
72
Three reasons for elective Caesarian
Placenta pre via Pre eclampsia Genital herpes
73
What may cause an emergency Caesar?
``` Irregular fetal HR Prolapsed cord Amniotic fluid embolus PPH Poor contractions won't open cervix Baby position Sick mother ```
74
What's the positioning for a pregnant patient and why?
Left lateral tilt Baby weight compresses inferior vena cava and aorta causing CVS compromise Reduces onset of early hypotension following spinal
75
Why are pregnant women high risk airways?
Pressure on organs creates reflux High progesterone delays gastric emptying Higher oxygen demand due to baby metabolism also Reduced compliance from baby Reduced oesophageal sphincter time Total body water increases causing oedema Overweight and large breasts
76
What are the laryngoscopes for obstetrics?
Kessel: 110 manipulate around chest Polio: 135 as above Video laryngoscope
77
What is Mendelson syndrome?
Peptic-aspiration pneumonia | Chemical pneumonitis caused by aspiration during anaesthesia particularly in pregnancy
78
What is the recommended ranitidine dose for obstetrics patients?
150mg oral 12 and 2 hour pre op
79
How does syntocin work?
Stimulates uterine smooth muscle to contract by triggering calcium release Rhythmic contractions of upper uterus Stimulates cells surrounding mammary alveoli facilitating breast feeding
80
Differentiate neonate, infant and child.
Neonate less than 4 weeks Infant less than 1 year Child 1-12 year
81
How is temperature regulated and maintained in infants?
Achieve heat by metabolism of brown fat. This is found on back, shoulders legs and thoracic vessels. High amount of energy used in process. Prem babies don't have brown fat
82
Why is fluid balance so important in paeds?
Have small total volume so overload easily | High water turnover meaning daily losses are high. A small loss can become dehydration
83
What is the paed fasting guidelines?
Clear fluid including electrolyte drink: 2hr Breast milk: 4hr Food and formula: 6hr
84
Why is dead space important in paeds?
Volume that doesn't participate in gas exchange Small TV so dead space makes big difference Can cause inc PaCO2 and if too large the CO2 won't be able to clear at all Minimal dead space needed
85
What are the formulas for tube size, tube depth and body weights?
Age/4+4 Lip: age/2+12 Nostril: age/2+15 Agex2+9
86
Why extubate paediatrics deep?
High rate of laryngospam due to irritation | Remove tube deep but breathing prevents this from happening
87
What is a peribulbar block?
Needle through skin near inferior orbital rim Needle advanced parallel to globe and injected Pressure device helps spread local
88
What is a subtenon block?
Conjunctiva is lifted and incised and dissected between sclera and capsule Needle advanced following globe shape and injected
89
What are complications of eye blocks?
``` Perforated globe Trauma Nerve damage Bleeding Iv injection Chemosis Central retinal artery occlusion Infection ```
90
What is IOP important in open eye injury?
A raise in IOP may cause extrusion of humerus, bleeding or lens prolapse. Normal activities may cause a rise May cause a reflex where bradycardia results
91
What is an occulocardiac reflex?
Relates to parasympathetic activation from traction or compression on the eye and causes bradycardia
92
How are burn severity classified?
By which skin layer is affected and the appearance | 1-4
93
What is the rule of mines?
``` Method to assess surface area of burn for a second and third degree burn 4.5% each side head 18% front trunk (9 top/9 bottom) 18% back trunk (9top/9 bottom) 9% each arm 18% each leg 1% genitals ```
94
What are the anaesthetic consideration for burns patient who inhaled smoke?
``` Assume carbon monoxide poisoning High flows O2 Low TV and high PEEP Don't overdo fluid Watch for bronchospasm Prepare for DI manage temp ```
95
What are options for tube tie and monitoring with burns?
Don't monitor over burns alternatives: ear probe, art line Tube: tie with suture to incisors, maxillary screws, bandage face first, orthodontic bracket
96
Why aren't depolarising relaxants used in burns?
Cause skeletal muscle to release potassium Burns cause skin release of potassium resulting in hyperkalaemic state already Can cause arrest
97
What are common problems with burns patients?
Dehydration, hyperkalaemic, oedema, hypotension, hypovalaemia, hypothermia, infection, contractures, systemic inflammatory response syndrome and multiple organ dysfunction syndrome
98
What is the purpose of bypass?
Replaces function of heart and lungs while heart is arrested to allow optimal surgical field
99
Why is heparin used on bypass?
Ensure clots cannot form when blood is in contact with the surfaces of the bypass machine and tubing
100
What test can measure heparin and the desired levels?
Act: activated clotting time >480secs for bypass Assess baseline prior to bypass, ensure correct amount for bypass and tested again to ensure returned to normal
101
What is the antagonist of heparin and how does it work?
Protamine | Binds to heparin resulting in harmless salt so cannot block the clotting cascade anymore
102
What are the purposes of cardioplegia?
High in potassium Arrests the heart Myocardial cooling which preserves the tissue Added sodium bicarbonate Reduces ionic disturbances and acidosis which occurs from ischemia
103
What are the risks of a sternotomy?
``` Infection Arrhythmia - stimulus Stern all instability - move when cough etc Brachial plexus injury from retraction Blood pressure surge - stimulus Lung or heart trauma ```
104
How can sternotomy risks be reduced?
Deep anaesthesia Potent opioid cover Deflate lungs (vent off)
105
Why are patients cooled during bypass and what temperature?
Reduces myocardial metabolism to preserve tissue health during ischemia Also other body parts 28-34 degrees
106
Why are cardiac patients kept intubated and ventilated post op?
High risk complications | Ventilator assists venous return and reduces work of the heart and strain from stress
107
What is tamponade and the treatment?
Fluid or gas accumulates in pericardium compressing the heart thereby reducing its ability to fill and contract Ultrasound guided needle aspiration Surgical thoracotomy
108
What are four inotropes used in cardiac surgery?
Dobutamine: increase CO and treat shock Noradrenaline: treat severe hypotension Digoxin: treat arrhythmia Calcium: improve contractility
109
Describe swan ganz including position and methods of measurement.
``` Pulmonary artery catheter Floats in PA Can detect heart failure, sepsis, drug effects, mixed venous oximetry, CO, RA P, RV P and filling P of LA. Can be transduced to show waveform Thermodilution ```
110
What is quiet lung surgery?
Collapse of operative lung using DLT | Optimal surgical field and reduces complications
111
What equipment is needed to place a DLT?
F/O with accessories - guide and confirm placement Clamp - shut each tube to check placement with auscultation and chest rise Syringes - 3ml bronchial Stethoscope - listen
112
What is the purpose of a chest drain in cardio-thoracic surgery?
Allows blood, fluid and gas to escape Keeps clear field Prevents post op TP or tamponade Helps reinflate collapsed lung
113
What is the problem with a cheat drain disconnect?
Air may enter pleural space causing pneumothorax and contamination Keep clamped and take an X-ray if disconnected
114
What is the significance of raised ICP in head injury?
May indicate internal bleed and pressure on the brain Emergency surgery
115
What is coughing avoided in neurosurgery?
Increases venous pressure which increase ICP which could cause injury or undo surgery
116
What's a first degree heart block?
Delay in conduction between atria and ventricles | Prolonged PR
117
What is a second degree mobitz type one ECG?
The PR interval increases until a QRS complex randomly is missed
118
What is a second degree mobitz type two block?
PR interval remains consistent but some QRS are blocked
119
What is a third degree heart block?
No conduction between atria and ventricles Regular P and regular QRS but no relationship Random complexes
120
What are ventricular ectopics?
Wide, bizarre QRS complex
121
What are premature atrial ectopics?
Ectopic P wave before next sinus beat | P looks different
122
What is a junctional rhythm?
P wave either not seen, inverted or hidden by QRS | Comes from junctional area and not normal SA node
123
What is a supraventricular tachycardia?
Normal QRS with a rate above 160bpm
124
What is an atrial flutter and atrial fibrillation?
Flutter: atrial rate around 300bpm with saw toothed appearance, regular QRS Fib: 400bpm with wavy line, irregular QRS
125
What is VT and VF?
VT: wide QRS, P not seen, may be pulse less VF: no obvious complexes, wavy line
126
What rhythms are shockable?
VF and VT
127
What is precordial thump?
Useful in pulse less VT if defibrillator not available | Single sharp blow to mid sternum
128
Why use a swan ganz in cardiac?
Diagnose heart failure, sepsis, shock, tamponade Drug therapy analysis Analysis of each section of the heart
129
What is dobutamine used for in cardiac?
Treatment of acute heart failure brought on from surgery Beta1 agonist