Anaesthetics Flashcards

(35 cards)

1
Q

When is a jaw thrust the preferred airway manoeuvre

A

cervical spine injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

oropharyngeal airway indications & pros

A

in an acute airway problem

as a bridging measure, before definitive airway

For v short procedures

pros: easy to insert & use. No paralysis required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

laryngeal mask airway indications, pros & cons

A

Commonly used, esp for day surgery

not suitable for high-pressure ventilation

(sits in pharynx and aligns to cover airway)

pros: easy to insert
cons: poor control over gastric reflux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Tracheostomy indications

A

Slow weaning from ETT

reduces work of breathing & dead space

percutaneous tracheostomy commonly used in ITU

cons: dries secretions, humidified air usually used in ITU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Endotracheal tube indications

A

optimal control of airway once cuff inflated

used for long/ short-term ventilation

higher ventilation pressures can be used

Cons: errors may lead to oesophageal intubation - detected with capnography

Paralysis required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ASA grades

A
  1. (healthy)
    non-smoker, minimal alcohol
  2. (mild systemic disease - i.e. no functional limitations)
    current smoker, social drinker, pregnancy, BMI 30-40, DM, HTN, mild lung disease
  3. (severe systemic disease- functional limitations)
    poorly controlled DM, HTN, COPD, BMI>40, end stage renal disease & regular dialysis, MI or CVA hx, alcohol dependence , etc.
  4. (severe disease constant threat to life)
    - recent (<3mo) MI or CVA, cardic ischemia, valve dysfunction, severely reduced EF, sepsis, ARD, ESRD w/out dialysis
  5. (not suspected to survive without operation)
    - AAA, massive trauma, intra-cranial bleed w mass effect, multi organ failure
  6. brain dead pt for organ harvest
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Propofol indication, MoA, features

A

IV

Indication & pros - commonly used for sedation induction & maintenance, in ITU for ventilated pts, high risk vomiting pts - some anti emetic properties, rapid metabolism

MoA- potentiates GABA

cons - moderate myocardial depression, pain on injection, hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sodium thiopentone MoA, indication, cons

A

MoA- barbiturate, potentiates GABA

Indication- rapid sequence induction (v rapid onset) due to high lipid solubility

cons - laryngospasm, marked myocardial depression, metabolites build up, not for maintenance infusion, no analgesic effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

ketamine indication, moa,

A

moa - NMDA receptor antagonist,

indication - induction of anaesthesia, strong analgesic properties, little myocardial depression (good for those who are haemodynamically unstable- i.e. trauma )

cons - may induce state of dissociative anaethesia resulting in nightmares

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Etomidate MoA, indication, cons

A

MoA - potentiates GABA

Indication - induction of anaesthesia, favourable cardiac safety profile w little haemodynamic instability

Cons - adrenal suppression (so not for Maintainance infusion!), post op vomiting is common, no analgesic properties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Volatile liquid anaesthetic examples, indication, MoA, cons

A

isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane

indication - indication & Maintainance

MoA- unknown but combination of GABA, glycine & NDMA

cons- myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, (halothane = hepatotoxic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Nitrous oxide: examples, indication, cons

A

indication: Maintainance of anaesthesia and analgesia (e.g. labour)

adverse effects: may diffuse into gas filled area. Avoid in pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cannula colour/ size order

A

biggest - Orange 14G (lava)
Grey 16G (rock)
Green 18G (grass)
Pink 20G (flower)
Blue 22G (sky)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Local anesthetic toxicity can be treated with…

A

IV 20% lipid emulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Malignant hypothermia causes

A

halothane
suxamethonium
other drugs: antipsychotics (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)

susceptibility inherited in autosomal dominant fashion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

malignant hyperthermia Ix and mx

A

(hyperpyrexia and muscle rigidity)

Investigations
CK raised
contracture tests with halothane and caffeine

Management
dantrolene - prevents Ca2+ release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum

17
Q

Deporalising neuromuscular blocker adverse effects & CI

A

(suxamethonium a.k.a succinylcholine)

hyperkalaemia, malignant hyperthermia, fasciculation and lack of acetylcholinesterase

increases IOP so CI in pts w penetrating eye injuries or acute narrow angle glaucoma

18
Q

nasopharyngeal airway indication & contraindication

A

ideal for seizure pts as you may not be able to put in OPA

CI - base of skull fractures

19
Q

causes of post op pyrexia

A

‘the 4 W’s’ (wind, water, wound, what did we do? (iatrogenic).

Early causes of post-op pyrexia (0-5 days) include:
- Physiological systemic inflammation (day1-2)
- - Pulmonary atelectasis (1-2)
- Urinary tract infection (d 3-5)
- Blood transfusion
- Cellulitis

Late causes (>5 days) include:
- Venous thromboembolism
- Pneumonia
- Wound infection
- Anastomotic leak
- iatrogenic (Abx or anaesthetic agents)

20
Q

Mx of postoperative ileus

A

check deranged potassium, magnesium and phosphate are not the cause

  • nil-by-mouth initially, may progress to small sips of clear fluids
  • nasogastric tube if vomiting
  • IV fludis to maintain normovolaemia
    & additives to correct any electrolyte disturbances
  • total parenteral nutrition
    occasionally for prolonged/severe cases
21
Q

Summary of diabetic control during surgery?

  • metformin
  • sulfonylurea
  • DPP IV inhibitors
  • GLP-1 analogues
  • SGLT-2 inhibitors
  • Once daily insulin (Lantus, Levemir)
  • twice daily biphasic or ultra-long acting insulins
A

If long fasting period w more than 1 missed meal/ poor diabetic control = variable rate IV insulin infusion

Otherwise, just change normal regime:

metformin- if taken TDS, omit lunchtime dose. otherwise normal.

sulfonylurea - omit on day of surgery. unless taking BD w morning surgery - only omit morning dose.

DPP IV inhibitors , GLP-1 analogues , SGLT-2 inhibitors -> take as normal

Once daily insulins (e.g. Lantus, Levemir) - reduce doses by 20% on the day before & day of surgery

Twice daily Biphasic or ultra-long acting insulins (e.g. Novomix 30, Humulin M3) - half morning dose, evening dose unchanged

22
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in posterior triangle lymph node biopsy

23
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in Posterior approach to hip

24
Q

which nerve is most likely to be injured in

25
which nerve is most likely to be injured when Legs in Lloyd Davies position
common perineal
26
which nerve is most likely to be injured in Axillary node clearance
Long thoracic
27
which nerve is most likely to be injured in Pelvic cancer surgery
Pelvic autonomic nerves
28
which nerve is most likely to be injured in thyroid surgery
Recurrent laryngeal nerves
29
which nerve is most likely to be injured in carotid endarterectomy
Hypoglossal nerve
30
which nerve is most likely to be injured during upper limb fracture repair
Ulnar and median nerves
31
WHO checklist 3 phases of an operation
1) Before the induction of anaesthesia (sign in) 2) Before the incision of the skin (time out) 3) Before the patient leaves the operating room (sign out)
32
Before the induction of anaesthesia, the following must have been checked:
- Patient has confirmed: Site, identity, procedure, consent - Site is marked - Anaesthesia safety check completed - Pulse oximeter on & functioning - known allergy? - difficult airway/aspiration risk? - risk of > 500ml blood loss (7ml/kg in children)?
33
COCP changes before surgery?
Advise women to stop taking their combined oral contraceptive pill/hormone replacement therapy 4 weeks before surgery
34
35