ANAESTHETICS Flashcards

(53 cards)

1
Q

PRE-OP ASSESSMENT
how can you remember the important medications for medication history in a pre-op assessment?

A

CASES
- contraception
- anticoagulation
- steroids
- ethanol
- smoking

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2
Q

PRE-OP ASSESSMENT
which elements of a medication history are often missed?

A
  • over the counter medications
  • non-oral medicines (e.g. eye drops, creams or inhalers)
  • oral contraceptives
  • complementary + alternative therapies
  • borderline substances (vitamins, food supplements)
  • illicit substances
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3
Q

NIL-BY-MOUTH
what are the rules for nil-by-mouth before elective surgery?

A
  • restrict oral solids 6hrs before srugery
  • allow water + clear fluids until 2hrs before surgery
  • allow routine medications with clear fluids until 2 hrs before operation
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4
Q

VRIII
which patients are most likely to benefit from VRIII insulin?

A
  • prolonged periods of starvation (more than one meal missed)
  • no or unknown postoperative enteral absorption
  • labile blood sugars or HbA1c >69
  • T1DM undergoing major surgery
  • T1DM who have not received background insulin
  • infection
  • most patients with DM requiring emergency surgery require VRIII
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5
Q

VRIII
when can a VRIII be withdrawn?

A

once a patient is eating and drinking normally without nausea and vomiting

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6
Q

VRIII
if VRIII is not used, what are the instructions for the following oral hypoglycaemic agents:
a. sulphonylureas (e.g. gliclazide)
b. pioglitazone
c. DPP4 inhibitors (e.g. sitagliptin)

A

sulphonylureas (gliclazide) = omitted on morning of surgery
pioglitazone = taken as normal on day of surgery
DPP4 inhibitors (sitagliptin) = taken as normal on day of surgery

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7
Q

MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA
what is it>

A

condition often seen after administration of anaesthetic agents
characterised by hyperpyrexia + muscle rigidity

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8
Q

MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA
what is it associated with?

A

gene defect on chromosome 19
it is autosomal dominant inherited

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9
Q

MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA
what are the causative agents?

A
  • halothane
  • suxamethonium
  • antipsychotics (neuroleptic malignant syndrome)
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10
Q

MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA
what are the investigations?

A

CK = raised
- contracture tests with halothane + caffeine

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11
Q

MALIGNANT HYPERTHERMIA
what is the management?

A

dantrolene

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12
Q

HYPOTHERMIA
what is it?

A

mild = 32-35 degrees
moderate/severe = <32 degrees

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13
Q

HYPOTHERMIA
what are the potential causes?

A
  • exposure to cold in environment
  • inadequate insulation in operating room
  • cardiopulmonary bypass
  • newborn babies
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14
Q

HYPOTHERMIA
what are the risk factors?

A
  • general anaesthetic
  • substance misuse
  • hypothyroidism
  • impaired mental status
  • homelessness
  • extremes of age
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15
Q

HYPOTHERMIA
what are the clinical features?

A
  • shivering
  • cold + pale skin
  • slurred speech
  • tachypnoea, tachycardia + HTN (if mild)
  • respiratory depression, bradycardia + hypotension (if moderate)
  • confusion/impaired mental state
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16
Q

HYPOTHERMIA
what are the investigations?

A
  • temperature
  • 12 lead ECG = J waves + osborn waves
  • FBC, U&Es
  • blood glucose
  • ABG
  • coagulation factors
  • CXR
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17
Q

HYPOTHERMIA
what is the management?

A
  • remove patient from cold environment + remove cold/wet clothes
  • warm with blankets
  • secure airway + monitor breathing
  • use warm IV fluids + forced warm air to body
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18
Q

HYPOTHERMIA
what should you not do in patients with hypothermia?

A
  • don’t put person in hot bath
  • don’t massage their limbs
  • don’t use heating lamps
  • don’t give them alcohol to drink
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19
Q

AIRWAY MANAGEMENT
what are the different manoeuvres to open the airway?

A
  • head tilt/chin lift
  • jaw thrust (preferred if concern about cervical spine)
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20
Q

AIRWAY MANAGEMENT
what different devices can be used for airway management?

A
  • oropharyngeal airway
  • nasopharyngeal airway
  • laryngeal mask (i-gel)
  • tracheostomy
  • endotracheal tube
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21
Q

AIRWAY MANAGEMENT
what are the pros and cons of oropharyngeal airways?

A
  • easy to insert + use
  • no need for paralysis
  • ideal for very short procedures
  • most often used as a bridge to more definitive airway
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22
Q

AIRWAY MANAGEMENT
what are the pros and cons of laryngeal masks?

A

PROS
- very easy to insert
- paralysis not required
- widely used

CONS
- poor control against reflux of gastric contents
- not suitable for high pressure ventilation

23
Q

AIRWAY MANAGEMENT
what are the pros and cons of tracheostomy?

A

PROS
- reduces work of breathing
- may be useful for slow weaning

CONS
- dries secretions so humidified air is often required

24
Q

AIRWAY MANAGEMENT
what are the pros and cons of endotracheal tubes?

A

PROS
- provides optimal control of airway once cuff is inflated
- may be used for both short and long term ventilation
- higher ventilation pressures can be used

CONS
- errors in insertion can result in oesophageal intubation
- paralysis often required

25
AIRWAY MANAGEMENT how can you check if an endotracheal tube is in the correct place?
monitor end-tidal CO2 (capnography) listen to chest for equal air entry see chest rise and fall
26
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what are the different types of general anaesthetic?
- inhaled anaesthetic - IV anaesthetic
27
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC which agents are used for inhaled anaesthetics?
- volatile liquid anaesthetics (isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane) - nitrous oxide
28
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what are volatile liquid anaesthetics used for?
- induction - maintenance of anaesthesia
29
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what is nitrous oxide used for?
- maintenance of anaesthesia - analgesia (e.g. during labour)
30
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what are the adverse effects from using volatile liquid anaesthetics (isoflurane, desflurane and sevoflurane)?
- myocardial depression - malignant hyperthermia - halothane is hepatotoxic (not commonly used)
31
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what are the adverse effects of using nitrous oxide?
- may diffuse into gas-filled body compartments + increase pressure - should be avoided in certain conditions e.g. pneumothorax
32
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC which agents are used for intravenous anaesthetics?
- propofol - thiopental - etomidate - ketamine
33
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC when is propofol used?
- commonly used for general anesthaesia - used in intensive care - has anti-emetic effects so useful for patients at high risk of vomiting
34
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what are the adverse effects of propofol?
- pain on injection (due to activation of pain receptor TRPA1) - hypotension
35
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what are the properties of thiopental?
highly lipid soluble so quickly affects the brain
36
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what are the adverse effects of thiopental?
laryngospasm
37
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC when is etomidate used?
causes less hypotension than propofol + thiopental so used in cases of haemodynamic instability
38
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what are the adverse effects of etomidate?
primary adrenal suppression myoclonus
39
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC when is ketamine used?
acts as dissociative anaesthetic does not cause BP to drop so it is useful in trauma
40
GENERAL ANAESTHETIC what are the adverse effects of ketamine?
- disorientation - hallucinations
41
ASA CLASSIFICATION what is ASA 1?
a normal healthy patient non-smoking no/minimal alcohol use
42
ASA CLASSIFICATION what is ASA II?
- a patient with mild systemic disease - without substantial functional limitations examples: - current smoker - social alcohol drinker - obesity (BMI 30-40) - well-controlled DM/HTN - mild lung disease
43
ASA CLASSIFICATION what is ASA III?
- a patient with severe systemic disease - substantive functional limitations - one or more moderate to severe diseases examples - poorly controlled DM/HTN - COPD - morbid obesity (BMI>40) - active hepatitis - alcohol dependence/abuse - implanted pacemaker - moderate reduction of ejection fraction - end stage renal disease (undergoing regular dialysis) - history >3 months of MI - cerebrovascular accidents
44
ASA CLASSIFICATION what is ASA IV?
- patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life examples - recent (<3months) MI - cerebrovascular accidents - ongoing cardiac ischaemia or severe valve dysfunction - severe reduction in ejection fraction - sepsis - DIC - ARD - end stage renal disease (not undergoing regular dialysis)
45
ASA CLASSIFICATION what is ASA V?
- moribund patient not expected to survive without the operation examples - ruptured abdominal/thoracic aneurysm - massive trauma - intra-cranial bleed with mass effect - ischaemic bowel (with cardiac pathology or multiple organ dysfunction)
46
ASA CLASSIFICATION what is ASA VI?
a patient declared brain dead whose organs are being removed for donation
47
EPIDURAL ANAESTHESIA where is the anaesthesia injected?
into the epidural space around L3-4 or L4-5 vertebrae
48
EPIDURAL ANAESTHESIA what are the risks of an epidural?
- maternal hypotension - headache (low-pressure) - risk of dural puncture (result in postural headache) - epidural haematoma
49
NG TUBE PLACEMENT how do you confirm the position of an NG tube
- measure pH of NG tube aspirate (pH<5 confirms gastric placement) - erect CXR
50
NG TUBE PLACEMENT how do you confirm the position of an NG tube using a CXR?
- confirm NG tube tip traverses inferiorly down midline, bisects carina + tip is visualised below the diaphragm - tip should ideally be 10cm beyond gastro-oesophageal junction in the stomach
51
SURGICAL SAFETY CHECKLIST when is the sign-in done?
before the induction of anaethesia
52
SURGICAL SAFETY CHECKLIST when is the time out done?
before the incision of the skin
53
SURGICAL SAFETY CHECKLIST when is the sign out done?
before the patient leaves the operating room