Anatomy 1 Flashcards
(187 cards)
1
Q
What is ventral?
A
Towards the belly
2
Q
What is caudal?
A
Towards the tail or end
3
Q
What is proximal?
A
Near or nearest to the point of attachment
4
Q
What is contralateral?
A
On the opposite side
5
Q
What is visceral?
A
Relating to organs
6
Q
What is sagittal?
A
Divides the body into right and left portions
7
Q
What is carpal?
A
Relating to the wrist
8
Q
What is cubital?
A
Relating to the elbow/forearm
9
Q
What is peritoneal?
A
Abdominal
10
Q
What is chondr/o?
A
Relating to cartilage
11
Q
What are some cell membrane proteins?
A
Transmembrane ion channels, carrier proteins, etc
12
Q
What is the energy source for a cell provided by?
A
The mitochondria
13
Q
Which types of cells act as part of the immune system to reabsorb old or damaged bone?
A
Osteoclasts
14
Q
What is red bone marrow?
A
Rich in blood supply and forms red and white blood cells
15
Q
What is the nucleus pulposous?
A
Soft inner portion of the intervertebral disc
16
Q
What is a hinge joint?
A
At elbow
17
Q
What is a greenstick fracture?
A
Incomplete break/fracture
More common in kids
18
Q
What is kyphosis?
A
Over curvature of upper thoracic region
Hunchback
19
Q
What is meant by axial skeleton?
A
Axial bones provide protection to the organs at the center of our bodies. These bones consist of the skull, the vertebrae (spinal cord), the ribs, and the sternum
20
Q
Which nerve bundles travels through the internal auditory canal?
A
CN VII - facial nerve
CN VIII - cochlear division
CN VIII - superior vestibular nerve
CN VIII - inferior vestibular nerve
21
Q
Which type of tissue wraps individual muscle cell/fibers?
A
Endomysium
22
Q
What is the name of the hidden lobe of the brain that deals with emotions and which can be seen above the corpus callosum on the midsagittal surface?
A
Limbic lobe
23
Q
How many cervical spinal nerve are there?
A
8
24
Q
What does rostral mean?
A
Toward beak or nose
25
The frontal lobe is _______________ to the occipital lobe
Anterior
26
What is a type of loose connective tissue?
Adipose tissue
27
What type of gland in the skin produces earwax?
Ceruminous glands which are modified sebaceous glands
28
What is a suffix for pain?
-algia
29
What is a suffix for inflammation or infection?
-itis
30
What is a suffix for tumor?
-oma
31
What is a suffix for drainage?
-rhea
32
What is a suffix for the study of?
-ology
33
Which two extrinsic eye muscles are NOT innervated by CN III?
Lateral rectus
Superior oblique
34
Where does the 8th cervical spinal nerve exit the vertebral column?
Under the cervical 7 vertebra and above the thoracic 1 vertebra
35
Cranial nerves VII and VIII enter/exit the brainstem where?
Pontomedullary junction (also called the cerebellopontine angle)
36
Which type of axonal transport carries matrix proteins and subcellular organelles from the soma to the terminal boutons of an axon?
Slow anterograde axoplasmic flow
37
What structures make up the brainstem?
Medulla oblongata, pons and midbrain
38
How does a sodium-potassium work?
The main function of the pump is to maintain the resting potential by actively moving sodium out of the cell and potassium back in to restore the proper balance
39
Where is the insula located?
Behind the lateral fissure and it is covered by the overlying opercula of the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes
40
The peripheral nervous system consists of...
The 12 pairs of cranial nerves, 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and the autonomic nervous system
41
What cellular organelles provides the energy or power for a cell to function?
Mitochondria
42
The spinal cord is _______________ to the brainstem?
Inferior
43
Which fissure separates the temporal lobe from the parietal and frontal lobes?
Lateral fissure (also called the Sylvian fissure or sulcus)
44
What organelles in the cell are the site where protein synthesis occurs?
On the free and bound ribosomes
45
What are the types of connective tissue?
Loose (adipose)
Dense (tendons and ligaments)
Specialized (cartilage and bone)
46
What are the three meningeal layers?
Pia mater, arachnoid mater, and dura mater
47
Where is the pia mater?
Innermost mater, lays flat on the brain, goes into the sulci
48
Where is the arachnoid mater?
Middle mater, creates a little pocket of space in between the arachnoid and the pia mater called the arachnoid space
49
Where is the dura mater?
Outermost mater, lays on top of the arachnoid mater
50
What is the name of the lower leg muscle that attaches to the Achilles tendon, and causes pointing of the foot (as in standing on your toes) when contracted?
Gastrocnemius
51
What is a description of somatotopic mapping of the primary motor cortex and primary somatosensory cortex?
The homunculus (representation of the body) has the head near the lateral fissure, the arm in the middle of the strip and the leg most superiorly with the leg dipping into the longitudinal fissure
52
What is the location of the primary motor cortex (M1) on the cerebrum?
On the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
53
What is a coronal slice?
Dividing the brain into front and back
54
What are the 4 main portions of the temporal bone?
Squamous
Petrous
Tympanic
Mastoid
55
In anatomical position, the thumb and the radius bone are located _______________________ to the ulna and pinky/little finger.
Lateral
56
What is axillary?
Pertaining to the armpit
57
What is buccal?
Pertaining to the cheek
58
What is the dorsum?
Back of the hand and top of the foot
59
What is the peritoneal?
Pertaining to the abdomen
60
What is cervical?
Pertaining to the neck
61
Which region of the human skeleton refers to the central core, including the skull, sternum, vertebrae and ribs?
Axial skeleton
62
What prefix pertains to the ear?
Ot/o-
63
What prefix pertains to the kidneys?
Nephr/o-
64
What prefix pertains to muscle?
My/o-
65
What prefix pertains to extremities?
Acr/o-
66
What prefix pertains to absence of or without?
A-/An-
67
What prefix pertains to bone?
Oste/o-
68
What prefix pertains to the nose?
Rhin/o-
69
What portion of a neuron usually has increased surface area (spikes or protrusions) to receive information to be carried to the soma?
Dendrites
70
Which terms refer to bones of the foot and toes?
Tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges
71
What type of joints are the shoulder joint and the hip joint?
Ball and socket joint
72
In the rib cage, which ribs do not directly attach to the sternum, and either attach to the other ribs via the costal cartilage or do not connect at the front of the rib cage at all?
The false ribs (8-12)
73
Bones are connected to bones to form joints by what type of structures?
Ligaments
74
What is the neurotransmitter for the neuromuscular junction?
Acetylcholine
75
What is smooth muscle?
Involuntary muscle in gastrointestinal tract and other viscera
76
What is skeletal muscle?
Striated voluntary muscle for movements of the body
77
What is cardiac muscle?
Striated muscle controlled by the autonomic nervous system to make the heart pump
78
What is the antagonist of the bicep?
Tricep
79
What is the fixator of the bicep?
Rotator cuff
80
Which term for muscles based on their actions means to bring a limb or structure toward midline?
Adductors
81
The linings of the digestive and respiratory tracts are made up of what type of body tissue?
Mucous membranes
82
Which organelles in cells act as scavengers and contain enzymes to break down complex molecules or even digest other organelles and the cell?
Lysosomes
83
Approximately how long is the average adult ear canal?
2.5 cm
84
What are the 5 important functions of cell membrane proteins?
Transmembrane ion channel
Carrier proteins
Receptor sites
Recognition sites
Proteins act as enzymes
85
Which layer of the integumentary system is composed of dead, keratinized epithelial cells on the surface and contains melanocytes to produce melanin?
Epidermis
86
What are the functions of the integumentary system?
To serve as site for numerous receptors to pick up environmental stimuli such as touch, vibration, temperature and more
To protect the body from ultraviolet (UV) rays
To provide a covering and protective barrier against invaders such as bacteria
87
At a neuromuscular junction, a nerve dumps neurotransmitter into the synapse and the muscle fiber is stimulated. When ion channels on the nerve fiber open, what ions are going to rush in to depolarize the muscle?
Sodium
88
What is a function of the pinna and the external ear canal?
To collect and resonate environmental sounds
89
Blood and CSF and waste products leave the venous sinuses and EXIT the skull via what vascular structures?
The jugular veins
90
What is the main function of the OHCs?
To serve as the biological mechanical amplifiers of the auditory system by elongating and shortening
91
What type and degree of hearing loss could occur from outer hair cell loss without inner hair cell loss?
Sensory, mild hearing loss
92
Which auditory brainstem structure/s are the first to receive binaural input and therefore serve to analyze interaural differences for the purpose of spatial localization?
Superior olivary complex
93
In the cochlea, bending the stereocilia towards the tallest stereocilia results in what?
Depolarization
94
The anterior semicircular canal on the right side of the head is paired with which semicircular canal on the left side of the head with respect to being in the same plane and providing input to the CNS?
Posterior canal
95
What membrane separates the scala media from the scala vestibuli?
Reissner's membrane
96
Which cranial nerve provides the main motor input for the the acoustic reflex (also referred to as the stapedial reflex)?
CN VII
97
What are two ways in which auditory nerve fibers are able to encode the frequency of an auditory stimulus?
Place code: nerve fibers stimulated at point of maximum displacement on the basilar membrane (tonotopic organization)
Temporal code: uses phase locking to code for frequency, codes the repetition rate of the wave
98
What is glutamate?
An excitatory neurotransmitter in the auditory/vestibular system
99
What brainstem nuclei are the first stopping point for incoming auditory projections from the cochlea being carried on cranial nerve VIII?
Cochlear nuclei
100
What is the name of the fibers that connect Broca's area to Wernicke's area?
Arcuate fasciculus
101
What nerve is CN VI?
Abducens
102
Which inner ear fluid is able to flow through a duct to reach the subarachnoid space and is thought to be a derivative of CSF?
Perilymph
103
What factor provides the largest contribution the the impedance matching function served by the the middle ear so that sound energy can be converted from acoustic waves to mechanical vibration and then hydraulic/fluid movement in the cochlear without the loss of most of the sound energy?
The surface area difference between the tympanic membrane and the oval window
104
What is the location of the primary motor cortex (M1) on the cerebrum?
On the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
105
How is the resting membrane potential maintained in neurons and muscle fibers?
By the action of the sodium-potassium pump which actively takes 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions in to maintain and re-establish the proper ion balance
106
When an auditory stimulus reaches the cochlea what occurs to excite inner hair cells?
Potassium flows in through the open ion channels to depolarize the cell, causing a receptor potential
107
What is Scarpa's ganglia?
Vestibular nerve cell bodies
108
What is the tonotopic organization of the basilar membrane?
High frequencies are received at the base and low frequencies are received at the apex
109
What structure/s are located in the hypotympanum?
Opening of the ET
110
What is the function of the ET?
Ventilation of the ME
Drainage
Protection from excessive nasopharyngeal sounds and secretions
111
What is the acoustic reflex arc?
CN VIII to the ipsilateral anteroventral cochlear nucleus, then to the medial superior olive, then to the facial motor nucleus, then down CN VII to the stapedius muscle
112
What 3 CNs innervate portions of the pinna and ear canal to pick up sensations on the skin?
CN V, CN VII and CN X
113
The average overall human ear canal resonance peaks between...
2000 and 5000 Hz
114
Where is S1 located?
The postcentral gyrus
115
What are the functions of cerumen?
Cerumen helps to protect the canal by catching debris
Cerumen helps lubricate the ear and provides moisture to protect the skin from damage and dryness
May have antifungal and antibacterial properties
116
The trigeminal reflex in the external auditory canal results in what?
Excessive vascularization and thickening of the tympanic membrane called the "red reflex"
117
What is arnold's reflex?
Vagus reflex
Cough reflex
118
What are the three chambers of the ME?
Epitympanum
Hypotympanum
Mesotympanum
119
The head of the malleus, most of the body of the incus, the aditus (inlet) to the antrum and the mastoid air cells are contained in which middle ear chamber / division?
Epitympanum
120
Is the stapedial muscle involved with ET function?
No
121
What muscles are involved in ET function?
Levator veli palatini
Tensor tympani
Salpingopharyngeus
Tensor veli palatini
122
Is the ET closed at rest?
Yes
123
What are physiologic functions of the ET?
Protect the ME from nasopharyngeal sounds and secretions
Ventilation
Drainage
124
State what muscle in humans results in the middle ear muscle reflex (acoustic reflex) and state briefly what the reflex does in response to a loud sound?
Stapedius muscle. When a loud sound is presented it pulls on the stapes (contracts), preventing it from pushing into the oval window and moving the perilymph
125
What are the three mechanisms for sound transmission through the ME?
The size difference between the tympanic membrane and the oval window, the lever action that the incus and the malleus create, and the buckling motion of the tympanic membrane
126
What are vestibular and cochlear hair cells?
Specialized mechanoreceptors
127
Describe how APs are generated and propagated along the nerve to reach the brainstem.
Voltage-gated ion channels open at the first node of Ranvier and sodium rushes in, depolarizing that spot. Then the next (forward) node is stimulated and sodium rushes in so the AP propagates forward by saltatory conduction
128
How do the auditory nerves encode about the intensity of an auditory stimulus?
Auditory nerve fibers can encode the intensity of a stimulus through the rate of firing. The rate of firing increases as intensity increases.
The number of nerve fibers increases. With higher intensity sounds, more nerve fibers will fire.
There are specific nerves that fire with increasing intensity. Some neurons will fire when there are quieter sounds present (0-40 dB), there are some that will fire with mid-range sounds (40-80 dB), and some will fire with loud sounds (80-120 dB).
129
When an auditory stimulus has stimulated inner hair cells and the receptor potential is sufficiently strong to reach its threshold, how is the information then passed from the hair cells to the CN VIII afferent fibers at the synapse?
The voltage of the RP causes Ca++ channels to open in the base of the inner hair cell. Ca++ rushes in and triggers the NT vesicles to move the the edge of the membrane and dump NT (i.e. Glutamate) into the synaptic cleft. The NT (which is a ligand/chemical) will cross the cleft and bind to receptor sites on the CN VIII cell membrane causing ligand-gated channels to open and depolarize the cell which would be an excitatory post-synaptic potential
130
What term best describes the brief time period after the peak of an action potential during which another action potential cannot be generated no matter how much the cell membrane is depolarized?
Absolute refractory period
131
How does CN VIII encode and carry information about the frequency of sound stimuli to the brainstem?
By the tonotopic organization of the basilar membrane stimulating the hair cells and the nerves which innervate them and by phase-locking of the neural firing to a particular phase of the sinusoidal waveform for each sound
132
A primary-like post-stimulus time histogram pattern for CN VIII or central auditory system structures shows....
A large initial increase in firing above spontaneous rate shortly after the stimulus is turned on, followed by a plateau of increased firing throughout the duration of the stimulus, and then a decrease back to spontaneous rate when the stimulus ends
133
What does the endocochlear potential refer to?
The +80mV potential of the endolymph with respect to the perilymph that is maintained by the stria vascularis pumping K+ ions into the endolymph
134
What is the endolymphatic sac?
Carries endolymph out of the membranous labyrinth to be absorbed dura of the meninges
135
What is the ductus reuniens?
Connects the cochlear duct portion of the membranous labyrinth to the saccule portion
136
What is reissner's membrane?
Forms a ceiling for the scala media, separating it from the scala vestibuli
137
What is the tectorial membrane?
The accessory structure of the organ of corti to help in the shearing of the stereocilia
138
What are deiter's cells?
Supporting cells that hold and support the OHCs
139
What is epithelial migration of the ear canal?
To allow dead skin cells to migrate radially from the tympanic membrane and then along the canal to clean and keep the canal free of debris
140
When the stereocilia of the cochlear hair cells are sheared from the shortest towards the tallest what occurs in these receptors?
The tiplinks are pulled open and K+ potassium rushes inside to depolarize the receptor which is an excitatory response
141
TRUE or FALSE: Cranial nerve VIII is part of the peripheral nervous system.
True
142
Along the central auditory nervous system (CANS) pathway, the long bundle of axons that carries ascending information from the cochlear nuclei up to the inferior colliculus in the brainstem (with possible synapses along the way) is known as the...
Lateral lemniscus
143
Along the central auditory nervous system (CANS) pathway, what is the first set of nuclei in the brainstem to receive binaural information?
Superior olivary complex
144
What is CN I?
Olfactory nerve
145
What is CN IV?
Trochlear nerve
Innervated the superior oblique eye muscle
146
What is CN VI?
Abducens nerve
Innervating the lateral rectus muscle
147
What is CN VII?
Facial nerve
Innervating the muscles of facial expression and the stapedius muscle of the ME
148
What is CN X?
Vagus nerve
Mixed with many functions
149
What is the main function of the cerebellum?
Assisting with coordination for our balance and movements
150
The most common type of temporal bone fracture can involve bleeding from the ear canal and conductive hearing loss from possible damage to the ossicles. Which type of fracture would this be?
Longitudinal fracture (or otic capsule sparing)
151
Does the pars flaccida make up the majority of the TM?
No
152
What are dark cells?
Cells in the vestibular sensory area that produce endolymph
153
What are marginal cells of the stria vascularis?
Cells in the cochlea that produce endolymph
154
What is the endolymphatic duct and sac?
The structure that carries endolymph away to the dura of the meninges to be reabsorbed
155
T/F: The tonotopic organization of the auditory system is maintained within the structure of the vestibulocochlear nerve. Fibers carrying low frequency information form the outer part of CNVIII whereas those carrying high frequency information form the core or inner part of CNVIII.
False
156
T/F: Voltage-gated calcium channels in hair cells provide the trigger for neurotrasmitter release in the auditory system.
True
157
What is the primary excitatory neurotransmitter for hearing?
Glutamate
158
Which description best fits for the organization of afferent innervation of the cochlea from CN VIII neurons?
Many afferent fibers synapse on a single inner hair cell so the information diverges onto many neurons
159
The primary source of afferent activity within the auditory system comes from the _______________.
IHCs
160
The fibers from these structures exit to form a bundle with cell bodies along the turns of the cochlea called the _______________ . (name of the cochlear cell bodies)
Spiral ganglia
161
Describe the 2 ways that cranial nerve VIII fibers encode the frequency of a sound.
1. Tonotopic organization: each frequency is coded in different area of CN VIII, low frequencies are on the inner part of the nerve and high frequencies are on the outer part
2. Phase locking: multiple nerves in the same bundle fire during the same stimulus, but they don't all fire at the same time. All of the firings are added together to get phase-locking
162
Describe the 3 ways that cranial nerve VIII fibers encode the intensity of a sound.
1. How many neural fibers are firing: the greater the intensity of the stimulus, the more nerves that fire
2. Which neural fibers are firing: Some fire for low intensity sounds, some for mid intensity sounds, and some for high
3. Rate at which they are firing: With higher intensity sounds, nerve fibers will fire more often that with low intensity sounds
163
What structures pass through (travel in) the Internal Auditory Canal (IAC)?
Facial nerve
Cochlear division of CN VIII
Superior Vestibular nerve branch of CN VIII
Labyrithine artery
Inferior vestibular nerve branch of CN VIII
164
True/False: When discussing the auditory-vestibular system, "peripheral" refers to structures from the outer, middle and inner ear or labyrinth as well as the CN VIII, whereas "central" refers to everything from the cochlear nucleus to the cortex.
True
165
The lateral superior olive aids in the localization of sounds by mainly processing which of the following?
Interaural intensity differences for high frequencies
166
The obligatory relay station of the ascending auditory pathway in the brainstem where nearly all ascending auditory fibers synapse before leaving the brainstem is the..
Inferior colliculus
167
In the standard EEG electrode montage, the A1 electrode placement refers to which of the following?
Left ear
168
The main blood supply to the INNER ear is from the _______________ artery?
Labyrinthine
169
Name one of the types of support cells found in the cochlea?
Hensen's cells
170
The _______________ respond to linear acceleration and tilt (gravity) whereas the _______________ respond to angular (rotational) acceleration.
Maculae of otolithic organs, Cristae ampullaris of the Semicircular canals
171
Nystagmus is classifed as right or left beating based on what?
The direction of the fast phase of eye movement
172
Balance is dependent upon sensory information from what 3 systems?
Vestibular
Visual
Proprioception
173
Which of the following terms refers to moving the head side to side in a horizontal plane like you are "shaking your head to say NO"?
Yaw
174
What is the vestibulo-ocular reflex?
To generate reflexive eye movements to maintain clear vision during head movements
175
What is the vestibulocollic reflex?
To act on neck muscles to stabilize head for a stable visual platform
176
What is the vestibulospinal reflex?
To generate compensatory body movements to maintain postural stability, using antigravity muscles
177
What is nystagmus?
When the vestibular-ocular reflex goes wrong. There is beating when there shouldn't be or disjointed beating when there should
178
How is the vestibular system polarized and arranged?
Hair cells are arranged with the kinocilia toward the striola in the utricle and away from the striola in the saccule
179
True/False: The labyrinthine artery branches off the anterior inferior cerebellar artery (AICA) or directly off the basilar artery in the area of the brainstem and supplies the majority of the blood supply to the inner ear
True
180
True/False: Semicircular canals have an outer bony structure which contains perilymph and membranous canals filled with endolymph; and the semicircular canals are connected and arranged at roughly right angles to each other?
True
181
For the anterior and posterior SCCs, does ampullopetal fluid movement results in vestibular inhibition whereas ampullofugal movement causes excitation?
Yes
182
Does ampullopetal refers to fluid movement toward the ampulla whereas ampullofugal refers to fluid movement away from the ampulla?
Yes
183
For the horizontal SCC, does ampullopetal fluid movement results in vestibular excitation whereas ampullofugal movement causes inhibition?
Yes
184
What is the tallest stereocilia called?
Kinocilium
185
In the maculae of the utricle and saccule, the hair cells are lined up around a centralized imaginary line based on the orientation of the stereocilia. What is the line called?
Striola
186
When a person has an acute loss of vestibular function on one side, what symptoms will they have initially and what should happen over time?
Vertigo/dizziness and then compensation
187
The anterior vestibular artery branches off of the labyrinthine artery and supplies blood to what specific structures of the labyrinth of the inner ear?
Lateral semicircular canal, superior (anterior) semicircular canal and utricle
