Anatomy Flashcards

(66 cards)

1
Q

What 7 bones make up the orbit of the eye?

A

Frontal
Zygomatic
Maxilla
Palatine
Sphenoid
Ethmoid
Lacrimal

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2
Q

Does the nasal bone make up part of the orbit?

A

No

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3
Q

What passes through the optic canal?

A

Optic nerve
Ophthalmic artery

This opening is found on the sphenoid bone.

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4
Q

Which cranial nerves are responsible for movement of the eye?

A

CNIII (trigeminal)
CNIV (trochlear)
CNVI (abducens)

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5
Q

What is a blowout fracture?

A

When major force is exerted on the orbital rim, the pressure is transferred from the thicker bones to the thinner bones.

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6
Q

What is a complication of a trap-door/blowout fracture?

A

Contents of the orbit may become trapped.

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7
Q

What is the name of the sphincter muscle that completely encircles the orbit?

A

Obicularis oculi

This is innervated by CNVII (facial nerve).

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8
Q

What is the role of the levator palpebra superioris?

A

Elevation of the upper eyelid.

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9
Q

Is the levator palpebra superioris mainly skeletal or smooth muscle?

A

Mainly skeletal, although has a smooth muscle component.

The area related to smooth muscle control may be called Mueller’s muscle.

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10
Q

Which gland is found superolateral to the eye?

A

Lacrimal gland

This is innervated by CNVII (facial nerve).

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11
Q

What is the role of the iris?

A

It is a diaphragmatic/sphincter-like muscle that controls the amount of light entering the eye.

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12
Q

What 2 parts make up the fibrous layer of the eye?

A

Cornea
Sclera

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13
Q

What are the 3 layers of the eye?

A

Fibrous
Uvea/Vascular
Retina

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14
Q

Which part of the eye is responsible for 2/3rds of the total refractive power?

A

Cornea

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15
Q

What 3 components make up the uvea layer of the eye?

A

Iris
Ciliary body
Choroid

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16
Q

What area of the eye is considered to be the anterior chamber?

A

All of the structures located anterior to the lens.

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17
Q

What area of the eye is considered to be the posterior chamber?

A

All of the structures behind the lens.

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18
Q

What is the limbus?

A

The angle found between the cornea and the sclera.

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19
Q

What is the indocorneal angle?

A

The angle between the iris and the cornea.

It is important in the pathology of glaucoma.

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20
Q

What is the purpose of aqueous humor?

A

It is a liquid required to provide nutrition to the avascular lens and cornea.

Production occurs in the posterior chamber, by the ciliary body.

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21
Q

Where is the aqueous humor resorbed?

A

Scleral venous sinuses located at the indocorneal angle.

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22
Q

If aqueous humor nourishes the cornea from the inside, what provides the surface area nutrition?

A

Lacrimal fluid (tears).

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23
Q

What controls intra-ocular pressure?

A

The balance between production and resorption of aqueous humor.

Input must be equal to output to prevent issues.

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24
Q

What may result from raised intra-ocular pressure?

A

Ischaemia of the retina
Glaucoma

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25
Which artery supplies the majority of bloodflow to the eye?
Ophthalmic artery This is a branch of the internal carotid artery.
26
What is an end artery?
An artery with insufficient anastomoses. This means that blockage of this will leave the tissue supplied by this cut-off from their blood supply. An example is the central retinal artery.
27
Which area of the retina has the greatest density of cones?
The macula. This area is specialised for acute vision.
28
What may result from the complete interruption of the flow to a central artery/vein?
Monocular blindness
29
What are the 7 extraocular muscles?
Superior rectus Inferior rectus Medial rectus Lateral rectus Superior oblique Inferior oblique Levator palpebra superioris
30
How are extraocular muscles innervated?
LR6 SO4 A03 Lateral rectus = Abducens nerve Superior oblique = Trochlear nerve All others = Oculomotor nerve
31
Which movement tests function of the lateral rectus?
Ask patient to look outwards.
32
Where does sympathetic outflow originate?
T1-L2 Referred to as thoracolumbar outflow.
33
Where does the oculomotor nerve originate?
The junction of the midbrain and the pons.
34
What are the 3 layers of the meninges?
Dura mater Arachnoid mater Pia mater
35
Which nerve supplies the dura mater?
Trigeminal nerve (CNV)
36
Where is the CSF and blood vessels found in the brain?
Subarachnoid space
37
How many ventricles are found in the brain?
2 lateral ventricles 2 midline ventricles
38
Where is the CSF produced?
The choroid plexus of the lateral ventricles and 3rd ventricle.
39
Where is CSF resorbed?
Dural venous sinuses via the arachnoid granulations.
40
What are the 3 branches of the trigeminal nerve?
Ophthalmic nerve (CNV1) Maxillary nerve (CNV2) Mandibular nerve (CNV3)
41
Which branch of the trigeminal nerve is the only one responsible for providing motor function?
Mandibular nerve (CNV2) Responsible for the muscles of mastication.
42
What area of the face is innervated by CNV1 (ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve)?
Upper eyelid, cornea, and conjunctiva.
43
What area of the face is innervated by CNV2 (maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve)
Skin of the lower lid Skin over the maxilla
44
What area of the face is innervated by CNV3 (mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve)?
Skin over the mandible Temporomandibular joint
45
What is a pathologically enlarged pupil called?
Mydriatic pupil
46
What is a pathologically constricted pupil called?
Mitotic pupil Can present in Horner's syndrome.
47
What may cause a fixed 'pin-point' pupil?
Opiate overdose
48
What may cause a fixed dilated pupil?
CNIII pathology
49
Is levator palpebra superioris skeletal or smooth muscle?
Skeletal muscle
50
What is Horner's syndrome?
The loss of parasympathetic supply to the eye. Will result in unilateral pupillary constriction.
51
Which nerve is affected in Bell's palsy?
CNVII (facial nerve) May result in an inability to close the affected eye.
52
Does distant or close light require more refraction?
Close light - these rays diverge more, thus greater refraction is needed to focus properly.
53
Is CNIII afferent or efferent?
Efferent (moves away from brain).
54
Is CNII afferent or efferent?
Afferent (moves towards brain).
55
Where is optic tract pathology located if both eyes are affected by a singular lesion?
May be behind the optic chiasm, or directly affecting the chiasm if causing a bitemporal hemianopia.
56
Where is optic tract pathology located if one eye only affected?
Infront of the optic chiasm.
57
Why is raised ICP a serious clinical problem?
As the skull is a closed compartment, the pressure it exerts can damage the brain/spinal cord.
58
What are the 3 components that contribute to the intracranial volume?
Blood Brain CSF
59
Why is it common for visual problems to present in raised ICP?
As the cranial meninges surround the optic nerve, thus raised pressure seen will be exerted on the nerve itself, resulting in altered vision. Fundoscopy will show papilloedema.
60
What is papilloedema?
Swelling of the optic disc. Results in visual disturbances.
61
What is the largest dural septae?
Falx cerebri Attaches to the crista galli (of the ethmoid bone) anteriorly, and the internal occipital protuberance posteriorly.
62
What is the purpose of dural septae?
To prevent the brain moving within the cranial cavity.
63
How does the eye appear in a CNIII palsy?
Down and out Caused by unopposed activity of superior oblique (CNIV) and lateral rectus (CNVI).
64
What is the only cranial nerve to originate from the dorsal surface of the midbrain?
CNIV (trochlear nerve)
65
What causes ptosis?
A lack of sympathetic innervation to Mueller's muscle - the eyelid will be lifted by LPS alone.
66