Anatomy Flashcards

1
Q

What is the integumentary system?

A

the skin

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2
Q

What is the solar surface?

A

surface of wrist

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3
Q

What is the palmar surface?

A

surface of the hand

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4
Q

What is the ventral surface?

A

anterior of the tongue

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5
Q

What is the plantar surface?

A

inferior of the foot

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6
Q

What is in a neuromuscular bundle?

A

vein
nerve
artery

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7
Q

What do the words ‘trunk’ or ‘common’ suggest of a vessel?

A

it will divide again

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8
Q

What is sympathetic tone?

A

the background contraction due to tonic conduction of action potentials to arterioles by sympathetic nerves

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9
Q

What does thoracolumbar outflow include?

A

T1-L2 segments of the spinal cord for sympathetic nerves

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10
Q

Where does the thoracolumbar outflow then go to?

A

the splanchnic nerves to supply organs

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11
Q

What are the branches of the aorta and their subsequent branches?

A
  • ascending (R and L coronary artery)
  • arch (3 branches)
  • thoracic
  • abdominal (3 unpaired midline and 6 paired bilateral)
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12
Q

What are the branches off the arch of the aorta?

A

brachiocephalic trunk
left common carotid artery
left subclavian artery

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13
Q

Which is more superior- subclavian veins or arteries?

A

subclavian arteries are above veins

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14
Q

Through what structures does the vertebral artery pass?

A

through transverse foramina then through foramen magnum

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15
Q

What does the carotid sinus do?

A
  • senses blood pressure
  • is the most proximal part of the internal carotid artery
  • CNIX
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16
Q

What does the carotid body do?

A

monitor blood gas levels and pH

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17
Q

What is the function of the Circle of Willis?

A

to join the internal carotids and provide collateral vessels for alternate pathways

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18
Q

What are the characteristics of the blood brain barrier?

A
  • tight junctions
  • astrocytes around capillaries
  • prevent diffusion
  • can be weakened by brain injury, inflammation and neoplasia
  • O2, CO2 and ethanol can cross but some antibiotics can’t
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19
Q

What is an end artery and an example of one?

A

the only arterial blood supply to an area e.g. coronary artery

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20
Q

Through what arteries does the blood flow through to get to the hands?

A

left subclavian –> axillary –> brachial –> radial or ulnar

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21
Q

What are the branches off the anterior thoracic aorta?

A
bronchial
oesophageal
mediastinal
pericardiac
phrenic
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22
Q

What does the aorta finally bifurcate into?

A
external iliac (lower limbs)
internal iliac (pelvis and perineum)
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23
Q

What are the various venous systems and their roles?

A
  • systemic venous system: drains venous blood into superior or inferior vena cava
  • hepatic portal venous system: drains venous blood from absorptive GI to liver for cleaning
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24
Q

Where do the lymphatic ducts drain?

A
  • right lymphatic duct drains into the right venous angle

- much larger thoracic duct drains into the left venous angle

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25
Q

What are the five main types of muscular structure and an example of each?

A
  • Circular eg orbicularis oculi
  • Pennate eg deltoid
  • Quadrate eg rectus abdominus
  • Fusiform eg biceps brachii
  • Flat with aponeurosis eg external oblique
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26
Q

What do tendons do?

A

attach to bone to muscle and are non-contractile

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27
Q

What is the difference between strain and sprain?

A

strain a muscle

sprain a ligament

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28
Q

What is an aponeurosis?

A

attaches soft tissue to muscle and is a flattened tendon

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29
Q

What re the origins of the deltoid muscle?

A
  • spine of scapula
  • acromion process of scapula
  • lateral 1/3rd of clavicle
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30
Q

What controls the flexion withdrawal reflex?

A

spinal nerve connections (no brain involved)

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31
Q

What is the process of a stretch reflex and what is it for?

A
  • protective against overstretching
  • sensory nerve detects stretch
  • tells spinal cord
  • synapse to motor nerve through spinal cord so muscle contracts
  • to neuromuscular junction
    eg ankle jerk
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32
Q

What is paralysis?

A

dysfunctional motor nerve supply so there is reduced tone

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33
Q

What is spasticity?

A

controls from the Brian not working so there is increased muscle tone

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34
Q

What is atrophy?

A

wasting of them muscles so the fibres become smaller due to inactivity

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35
Q

What are the features of skeletal muscle?

A
  • deep to deep fascia
  • shiny silver/grey
  • tough fibrous connective tissue covering
  • inter muscular septums
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36
Q

What is compartment syndrome?

A

pressure builds in the closed space made by fascia so a fasciotomy is done to relieve pressure

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37
Q

Where is the transition to smooth muscle and back to skeletal?

A

skeletal to smooth is the trachea and middle 1/3rd of oesophagus
smooth to skeletal is perineum

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38
Q

What are the features of the biceps brachii?

A
  • scapula to radius
  • flexion and supination
  • musculocutaneous nerve
  • biceps jerk reflec
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39
Q

Which is the bad thing that can happen to a muscle- hypertrophy or hyperplasia?

A

hypertrophy is ok

hyperplasia is bad

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40
Q

What are the parts of the internal bone?

A
  • outer cortex which is compact bone which is dense and strong
  • inner medulla is porous and spongy
  • medulla contains bone marrow so site of blood cell production (eg hip, great, ribs, vertebrae and cancellous ends of femur and humerus
  • periosteum is a fibrous sleeve which is vascularised and innervated with sensory nerves
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41
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

hyaline cartilage becoming bone and ossifying

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42
Q

What is in the inner cavity of bones?

A
  • red marrow in hematopoeitic bones

- white marrow in non-blood cell forming bones

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43
Q

What are the parts of the longitudintal bone?

A
  • diaphysis is the long part
  • metaphysis is the part just before the lump at the end
  • epiphysis is the lump at the end
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44
Q

What are the different forms of bones?

A
  • flat bones are protective
  • long bones are tubular
  • irregular bones are weird shapes
  • sesamoid bones are within some tendons
  • short bones are cuboidal
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45
Q

Which bones break readily and why?

A

clavicle

femur is less compact and angled

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46
Q

How do bones heal?

A

trauma
callus of new bone surrounds fracture line
callus remodelling
healed
plates and screws reduce/realign and fix the alignment of. the bone

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47
Q

What are the indent sections in the skull called?

A

anterior, middle and posterior fossa

with large foramina in the middle

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48
Q

What is included in the axial and appendicular skeletons?

A

axial- spine, skull, sternum and ribs

appendicular- pectoral girdle, upper limbs, pelvic girdle and lower limbs

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49
Q

Where is the separation from neurocranium to viscerocranium?

A

line from superior orbits to inferior to the ears
below is viscerocranium
above is neurocranium

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50
Q

What are the divisions of the spine?

A
C1-7
T1-12
L1-5
S1-5
C1-4
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51
Q

What are the important stand-out vertebrae?

A

C1- atlas has no body or spinous process but has posterior and anterior arch
C2- axis has odontoid process which projects superiorly from the body
C7- vertebrae prominens is the first palpable spinous process and is midline in the posterior neck

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52
Q

What are the sections of ribs?

A

1-7 True ribs
8-10 False ribs
11 &12 Floating ribs

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53
Q

What makes up the pelvic and pectoral girdle?

A

pectoral is 2 scapulae and 2 clavicles

pelvic is 2 hip bone and the sacrum

54
Q

What is a joint?

A

an articulation between adjacent parts of the skeleton to provide mobility and locomotion

55
Q

What are the types of joint?

A
  • fibrous
  • cartilaginous
  • synovial
56
Q

What are the characteristics of fibrous joints?

A

limited mobility
stable
eg syndesmoses, sutures and fontanelles

57
Q

What are the characteristics of cartilaginous joints?

A

limited mobility
relatively stable
primary: synchondroses, bones joined with hyaline, permits growth
secondary: symphyses, strong, fibrocartilage

58
Q

What are the characteristics of synovial joints?

A
2+ bones
hyaline cartilage around articular surfaces
capsule around joint
joint cavity
supported by ligaments
associated with skeletal muscles and tendons
bursae
special features
59
Q

What are the types of synovial joint?

A
  • pivot: shaking head
  • ball and socket: multi-axial movement
  • plane: minimal movement in one plane
  • hinge: reasonable range of movement
  • biaxial: reasonable range in one plane but less in the other
60
Q

What do bursae do?

A

prevent friction around the joint and is an extension of the joint cavity or closed sac separate from the cavity

61
Q

Which type of joint has the most mobility?

A

synovial>cartilaginous>fibrous

62
Q

What do the words subluxation, dislocation and hyper-mobility mean?

A

Subluxation: reduced area of contact between articular surfaces
Dislocation: complete loss of contact between articular surfaces
Hypermobility: more mobile/ flexible than the average joint

63
Q

Where are the common dislocations?

A
cranio vertebra
temperomandibular
hips
fingers
pubic symphysis
knees
ankles
64
Q

What are the temperomandibular joints?

A

synovial articulations between the mandibular fossa and the articular tubercle of the temporal bone superiorly ad the head of the condylar process inferiorly

65
Q

What is the special feature of the the TMJ?

A

there is an articular disc and two articular cavities

66
Q

How does the TMJ dislocate?

A

head of condylar process gets stuck anterior to articular tubercle

67
Q

What is the main features of the pelvic anatomy?

A
  • pelvic cavity is within the bony pelvis
  • pelvic inlet is the way in from the abdominal cavity
  • pelvic outlet is the way into the perineum from the pelvis
  • pelvic floor is the skeletal muscle that separates the perineum and the pelvic cavity and has openings to allow distal alimentary, renal and reproductive tracts through
  • pelvic roof is parietal peritoneum which lines the abdominal cavity
68
Q

What are the layers of the uterus?

A

endometrium
myometrium
perimetrium

69
Q

How does the ovum reach the uterine cavity?

A

ovum released into peritoneal cavity
gathered by fimbriae into infundibulum
moved along tube by cilia

70
Q

What can STIs do to reproductive system?

A

cause peritonitis and block the tubes to cause infertility

71
Q

Where do the sex organs develop and how do they reach their final position?

A

develop next to kidneys
descend through inguinal canal
sit in scrotum
vas deferens follows them does through the anterior abdominal wall

72
Q

Where do sperm move once they have been produced?

A

made in seminiferous tubules (darts controls temperature at 1 degree colder than body)
move to rete testis
move to head of epididymus which becomes vas deferens

73
Q

What is included in the spermatic cord?

A

vas deferens
testicular artery
pampiniform plexus of veins

74
Q

What is torsion?

A

twisting of testes that results in infertility

75
Q

What path does sperm take to come out at ejaculation?

A

develops in testes
into vas defers
through abdominal wall in inguinal canal to pelvic cavity
connects to seminal gland to form ejaculatory duct
R and L join with prostrate gland and drain into urethra
opens at external urethral meatus

76
Q

Which of ejaculation and erection is parasympathetic/sympathetic?

A

point is parasympathetic

shoot is sympathetic

77
Q

What are the muscles that close the mouth?

A

temporalis
masseter
medial pterygoid

78
Q

What muscle opens the mouth?

A

lateral pterygoid

79
Q

What are the nine sections of the abdomen?

A

hypochondrium epigastric hypochondrium
lumbar umbilical lumbar
inguinal pubic inguinal

80
Q

What arteries supply the foregut, midgut and hindgut?

A

coeliac trunk = foregut
superior mesenteric artery = midgut
inferior mesenteric artery = hindgut

81
Q

What are afferent neurones?

A

sensory, PNS, bring signals to the CNS, ARRIVE

82
Q

What are efferent neurones?

A

motor, PNS, project away from CNS, EXIT

83
Q

What are interneurones?

A

create circuits and are part of the CNS

84
Q

What are nerve cell bodies called in the PNS or CNS?

A
PNS = ganglions
CNS = nuclei
85
Q

What are bundles of axons called in the PNS or CNS?

A
PNS = nerves
CNS = tracts
86
Q

What does the somatic nervous system supply?

A

the body wall and the external environment

87
Q

What does the autonomic nervous system supply?

A

the visceral motor system and the internal environment

88
Q

What is the brain made up of?

A

cerebrum and cerebellum and this is made up of gyri and sulci

89
Q

What are the holes in the skull called?

A

anterior, middle and posterior fossa with a large foramen magnum

90
Q

What are the parts of the spinal cord?

A

midbrain
)pons
medulla oblongata
spinal cord

91
Q

What are the enlargements of the spinal cord called?

A

cervical and lumbosacral enlargements

92
Q

What is the cauda equina?

A

spinal nerves coming down after cord has ended

93
Q

What is the grey matter in the brain?

A

in the cerebral cortex and is the outer area of cell bodies

94
Q

What is the white matter in the brain?

A

in the inner area and is many axons that are myelinated

95
Q

What are the main parts of the spinal cord?

A

dorsal horns are spiky and protrude posteriorly

ventral horns are circular and protrude anteriorly

96
Q

What nerves make up the PNS?

A

cranial
spinal (cranial and spinal together are the somatic)
autonomic

97
Q

What are the names of the 12 cranial nerves?

A
Olfactory
Optic
Oculomotor
Trochlear
Trigeminal
Abducent
Facial 
Vestibulocochlear
Glossopharyneal
Vagus
Spinal accessory
Hypoglossal

(olf Olaf oozes terrific tunes and fun- very good violin sounds heard)

98
Q

Which cranial nerves are sensory, motor or both?

A

SSMMBMBSBBMM

some say money matters but my brother says big butts matter most

99
Q

Which cranial nerve is the lowest supply?

A

CNXI because CNXII crosses above to medulla

100
Q

What are the different spinal nerves?

A
C1-8
T1-12
L1-5
S1-5
Co1
total = 31 pairs
101
Q

How are spinal nerves named?

A

according to vertebrae above except in cervical where it is vertebrae below

102
Q

What is the anterior and posterior rami?

A

posterior is strip down the back

anterior is sides and front

103
Q

What is a dermatome?

A

the area supplied by both anterior and posterior rami of the spinal nerve

104
Q

What dermatome is the male nipple at?

A

T4

105
Q

What dermatome is the umbilicus at?

A

T10

106
Q

What is in the cervical plexus?

A

C1-4 anterior rami

107
Q

What is in the brachial plexus?

A

C5-T1 anterior rami

108
Q

What is in the lumbar plexus?

A

L1-L4 anterior rami

109
Q

What is in the sacral plexus?

A

L5-S4 anterior rami

110
Q

What is the route of sympathetic nerves?

A
from autonomic centre in brain
exit spinal cord ar T1-L2
pass into spinal nerves
pass into splanchnic nerves
supply organs
111
Q

What nerves have lateral horns?

A

T1-L2

112
Q

Where do parasympathetic nerves leave the CNS?

A

CN3,7,9and10 and sacral so craniosacral outflow

113
Q

What supplies the sensory body wall?

A

somatic sensory

114
Q

What supplies the motor body wall?

A

somatic motor

115
Q

What supplies the sensory organs?

A

visceral afferent

116
Q

What supplies the motor organs?

A

parasympathetic or sympathetic

117
Q

What supplies the sensory of special sense organs?

A

special sensory

118
Q

What supplies the motor of special sense organs?

A

parasympathetic or sympathetic

119
Q

What is somatic sensation fo the body wall done by?

A

mechanoreceptors
thermoreceptors
nocireceptors

120
Q

What does the left parietal lobs of the brain do?

A

is left somatosensory area and Abs from the right come

121
Q

What does the upper motor neurone in the brain do?

A

opposite side from movement and axons cross over at the bottom

122
Q

What does the lower motor neurone in the brain do?

A

same side and connects to skeletal muscle

123
Q

What is paralysis?

A

no functioning lower motor neurone so no contraction so reduced tone

124
Q

What is spasticity?

A

lower motor neurone is intact but descending controls not working so increased tone

125
Q

What is autonomic split into?

A

sensory neurones: visceral afferent for organs

motor neurones: respond to changes with parasympathetic and sympathetic supply

126
Q

What do visceral afferents do?

A

sensory supply from organs to CNS

127
Q

What does the sympathetic ANS supply?

A

organs, body wall organs and arterioles

128
Q

What are the features of the sympathetic nerve chain?

A

short preganglionic

long postganaglionic

129
Q

What are the options for sympathetic travel of nerves?

A
  • can be postganglionic travel to rami to target
  • can travel along sympathetic chain
  • can go through the ganglion to splanchnic nerve
    and synapse at prevertebral
130
Q

What are the characteristics of the parasympathetic nerve chain?

A

long preganglionic
short postganglionic
lie close to target organ or on organ wall
craniosacral outflow

131
Q

What are the atypical ribs?

A

1-2 and 10-12

132
Q

How many vertebrae are there?

A

33 vertebrae