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Formative Flashcards

1
Q

What is the epididymis and what does it do?

A

posterior of the testis

sperm inside moves from superior to inferior

sperm comes from seminiferous tubules to here then to the vas deferens

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2
Q

What join together to make the ejaculatory duct?

A

vas deferens and the duct for the seminal vesicle

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3
Q

What does the spermatic cord include?

A 
testicular artery
pampiniform plexus of veins
vas deferens
nerves
lymphatics
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4
Q

What is cut and ligated in male sterilisation?

A

vas deferens

‘vasectomy’

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5
Q

What drains semen into the prostatic urethra?

A

ejacuatory duct

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6
Q

What is the ischium?

A

component of the pelvic outlet

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7
Q

What type of joint is the interosseous membrane?

A
  • fibrous sheet that connects two bones

- fibrous syndesmosis between membrane and bones

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8
Q

What is the approx range of flexion at the shoulder, hip and knee joints?

A 
shoulder = 180
hip = 135
knee = 135
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9
Q

What form of glia produces myelin in the CNS?

A

oligodendrocyte

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10
Q

What do astrocytes do?

A

support and maintaining homeostasis in the extracellular environment

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11
Q

What do microglia do?

A

immune surveillance

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12
Q

What do neutrophils look like?

A

fine blue granules

3-5 nuclear segments

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13
Q

What do eosinophils look like?

A

bi-lobed nucleus

red granules

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14
Q

What do monocytes look like?

A

agranular
non-segmented nucleus
nucleus can be horse-shoe shaped

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15
Q

What do basophils look like?

A

segmented nucleus

purple black granules

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16
Q

What do mast cells look like?

A

only found in tissues

purple-black granules

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17
Q

What is an acrosome?

A

catlike saccular organelle in the anterior half of the head of the sperm that contains several enzymes

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18
Q

When is a foetus called a foetus?

A

Week 9 to birth

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19
Q

What are the two types of striated cells?

A 
skeletal muscle (many nuclei)
cardiac muscle (one nucleus)
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20
Q

When is a baby human called a foetus and when is it called an embryo?

A

embryo is fertilisation to W8
foetus is W9 to birth
(fertilisation to W3 is conceptus)

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21
Q

What direction is DNA synthesised in?

A

from 5’ to 3’

nucleotides added to a free 3’ hydroxyl group

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22
Q

What is the rate of reaction of conversion of pyruvate to lactate matched by?

A

NADH regeneration by glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

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23
Q

What effect would arteriolar vasodilation have?

A

decrease total peripheral vascular resistance

so decreases MAP

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24
Q

What does heat exposure do to muscle tone?

A

heat decreases muscle tone

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25
What is the anterior hypothalamic centre stimulated by?
warmth
26
What is the posterior hypothalamic centre stimulated by?
cold
27
What is Turner's syndrome?
absence of an X chromosome
28
What is Pataus syndrome?
extra genetic material form chromosome 13
29
What is Klinefelter syndrome?
47 XXY
30
What is Edwards syndrome?
trisomy 18
31
What is p and q on a chromosome?
p is the short arm | q is the long arm
32
What is a protein activated in Burkitt's lymphoma?
c-myc
33
What is the initial response in the vascular phase of acute inflammation?
dilation of arterioles then capillaries then venules
34
How does increased intracellular calcium contribute to cell death?
increase mitochondrial permeability | increase levels of endonuclease and phopholipases
35
How can apoptosis occur?
- internal pathway with mitochondria | - extrinsic pathway with ligand bind to death receptors on cell surface (FAS)
36
What is granulation tissue made up of?
capillaries (endothelial cells) and myofibroblasts which deposit collagen and smooth muscle cells
37
How is gastroenteritis food poisoning transferred?
faecal-oral
38
What type of gram is Clostridia?
gram-positive
39
What is the best thing about using DNA technology to identify bacteria from its 16s gene sequence?
most cost effective way to find bacterial strains that may otherwise not be identified
40
What are the most common cell wall antimicrobials?
penicillins glycopeptides cephalosporins
41
What are the most common antibiotics that affect nucleic acids?
metronidazole | ciprofloxacin
42
What are the antibiotics targeting protein synthesis?
aminoglycosides tetracyclines macrolides
43
What binds directly to extracellular bacteria to cause cell death by osmotic lysis?
MAC of complement system can directly lyse pathogens via membrane insertion and osmotic lysis
44
What is a cytokine that is produced during acute inflammation?
TNF alpha
45
What is a cell surface protein that binds to MHC class II molecules?
CD4 | CD8 binds to MHC-I
46
What in pinocytosis?
internalisation of fluids into cells through invagination of the cell membrane
47
What is receptor-mediated endocytosis?
molecules bound to membrane receptors are internalised
48
What goes in the blue bag?
confidential waste
49
What goes in the red bag?
soiled laundry
50
What goes in the yellow bag?
amputated limbs from theatre
51
What goes in the yellow sharps bin with blue lid?
medication vials with residual medicine
52
What goes in the yellow sharps bin with red lid?
needles, syringes and other sharps
53
How many half-lives does it take a drug to reach steady state?
5
54
What inhibits phosphofructokinase?
ATP Citrate H+
55
What is a benign neoplasm of cartilage called?
enchondroma
56
How is Km affected by a competitive enzyme?
increased
57
How is Vmax affected by a non-competitive inhibitor?
changes
58
What are some control points in glycolysis?
hexokinase phosphofructokinase pyruvate kinase
59
Where in the ETC can electrons not be introduced?
complex 3
60
What is damage to cranial nerve 8 associated with?
Gentamicin
61
What drains the foregut?
splenic vein
62
What are malignant tumours of connective tissue?
sarcomas
63
How many spinal nerves are there?
31
64
What changes the y intercept of a line weaver-burke plot?
non-competitive antagonist
65
Which bacteria uses flagella externally for movement?
spirillum
66
BAX and BAK are associated with what apoptosis?
intrinsic
67
What nerve innervates the baroreceptors in the carotid sinus?
CN IX
68
How many bones make up the vertebral column?
33
69
What is the G1 transcription factor?
E2F
70
What is an example of a synchondrossis joint?
growth plate
71
What is the difference between a full and partial agonist?
lower efficacy
72
Where does the spinal cord terminate?
L2
73
What parts of the colon are retroperitoneal?
ascending and descending
74
Which hormones induces testosterone release from the testes?
LH
75
What is faster LGIC or GCPR?
ligand gated channel
76
What muscarinic receptor is associated with GI?
M2
77
What is associated with the epiblast layer of a bilaminar embryo?
amniotic cavity
78
What are the anti-microbial proteins secreted by epithelial cells at mucosal surfaces?
defensins bind to microbial cell membranes and assist in killing cells
79
What is a feature of sepsis?
decrease in blood volume due to endotoxins causing vasodilation and intravascular fluid leaking into adjacent tissue
80
What is given to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
a quinolone such as oral ciprofloxacin
81
How can Gentamicin be given?
only IV or inhaled (not oral)
82
What is the cause of pneumonia associated with sheep contact?
Coxiella burnetti
83
What acts in the post junctional muscarinic end plate receptor on airway smooth muscle for constriction?
ACh to act on M3
84
What is released form eosinophils and mast cells which makes airway smooth muscle contract and increases vascular permeability and mucus secretion?
leukotriene D4
85
What does chronic agonist induced stimulation of airway beta 2 receptors result in?
beta 2 receptor down regulation and reduced receptor coupling to G protein adenylyl cyclase
86
What type of shock results form loss of blood through a GI bleed?
hypovolemic shock with features of postural drop in BP
87
What is used to assess BP if there has been two readings of above 140 in clinic?
ambulatory BP monitoring (if under 180)
88
What are the leads for each type of heart attack?
``` V2-5= anterior V1-3= anteroseptal V4-6, 1 aVL= anterolateral 2,3, aVF= inferior V1, V2 (reciprocal)= posterior ```
89
What is the treatment for SVT?
valsalva manœuvre | then IV adenosine (not for asthmatics)
90
What specific nutrient helps to increase survival post-MI?
omega-3 fatty acids
91
How many breaths for a person in respiratory arrest?
10 breaths a minute (1 breath every 6 seconds)
92
What drug helps to increase survival in chronic congestive heart failure?
ACE inhibitors (RAAS is unregulated in heart failure)
93
What causes the riding phase of depolarisation in contractile ventricular muscle cells?
fast Na+ influx
94
What increases venous return to the heart?
increased skeletal muscle activity
95
What is the most common jaundice presentation from travelling in India in a young person?
Hepatitis A
96
What is the most inferior of the paired anterolateral branches of the abdominal aorta?
gonadal (adrenal, renal then gonadal on anterolateral)
97
What organism causes haemolytic uraemia syndrome?
E coli 0157
98
What is the treatment for a fibrosis structure impairing feeding?
oesophageal balloon dilation
99
What is the treatment for achalasia?
ballon oesophageal dilation or cardiomyotomy (favoured in the young as only done once)
100
What is the diagnosis for an old lady with altered bowel habit and arthritis?
CT colonography as not mobile enough for colonoscopy
101
What is the diagnosis for anaemia, weight loss and early satiety?
Gastroscopy
102
How many half-lives does it take to reach a steady state?
5
103
What arises from the ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm?
``` ectoderm= nervous system mesoderm= muscle and connective tissue endoderm= epithelium ```
104
What is the difference in placing of mast cells, basophils and eosinophils?
mast cells = in tissue | basophils and eosinophils = blood
105
What are the main facts about the three most relevant Igs?
``` IgM = first produced IgA = secretory IgG = most common ```

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