Formative Flashcards

1
Q

What is the epididymis and what does it do?

A

posterior of the testis

sperm inside moves from superior to inferior

sperm comes from seminiferous tubules to here then to the vas deferens

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2
Q

What join together to make the ejaculatory duct?

A

vas deferens and the duct for the seminal vesicle

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3
Q

What does the spermatic cord include?

A
testicular artery
pampiniform plexus of veins
vas deferens
nerves
lymphatics
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4
Q

What is cut and ligated in male sterilisation?

A

vas deferens

‘vasectomy’

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5
Q

What drains semen into the prostatic urethra?

A

ejacuatory duct

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6
Q

What is the ischium?

A

component of the pelvic outlet

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7
Q

What type of joint is the interosseous membrane?

A
  • fibrous sheet that connects two bones

- fibrous syndesmosis between membrane and bones

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8
Q

What is the approx range of flexion at the shoulder, hip and knee joints?

A
shoulder = 180
hip = 135
knee = 135
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9
Q

What form of glia produces myelin in the CNS?

A

oligodendrocyte

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10
Q

What do astrocytes do?

A

support and maintaining homeostasis in the extracellular environment

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11
Q

What do microglia do?

A

immune surveillance

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12
Q

What do neutrophils look like?

A

fine blue granules

3-5 nuclear segments

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13
Q

What do eosinophils look like?

A

bi-lobed nucleus

red granules

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14
Q

What do monocytes look like?

A

agranular
non-segmented nucleus
nucleus can be horse-shoe shaped

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15
Q

What do basophils look like?

A

segmented nucleus

purple black granules

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16
Q

What do mast cells look like?

A

only found in tissues

purple-black granules

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17
Q

What is an acrosome?

A

catlike saccular organelle in the anterior half of the head of the sperm that contains several enzymes

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18
Q

When is a foetus called a foetus?

A

Week 9 to birth

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19
Q

What are the two types of striated cells?

A
skeletal muscle (many nuclei)
cardiac muscle (one nucleus)
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20
Q

When is a baby human called a foetus and when is it called an embryo?

A

embryo is fertilisation to W8
foetus is W9 to birth
(fertilisation to W3 is conceptus)

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21
Q

What direction is DNA synthesised in?

A

from 5’ to 3’

nucleotides added to a free 3’ hydroxyl group

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22
Q

What is the rate of reaction of conversion of pyruvate to lactate matched by?

A

NADH regeneration by glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate dehydrogenase

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23
Q

What effect would arteriolar vasodilation have?

A

decrease total peripheral vascular resistance

so decreases MAP

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24
Q

What does heat exposure do to muscle tone?

A

heat decreases muscle tone

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25
Q

What is the anterior hypothalamic centre stimulated by?

A

warmth

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26
Q

What is the posterior hypothalamic centre stimulated by?

A

cold

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27
Q

What is Turner’s syndrome?

A

absence of an X chromosome

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28
Q

What is Pataus syndrome?

A

extra genetic material form chromosome 13

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29
Q

What is Klinefelter syndrome?

A

47 XXY

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30
Q

What is Edwards syndrome?

A

trisomy 18

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31
Q

What is p and q on a chromosome?

A

p is the short arm

q is the long arm

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32
Q

What is a protein activated in Burkitt’s lymphoma?

A

c-myc

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33
Q

What is the initial response in the vascular phase of acute inflammation?

A

dilation of arterioles then capillaries then venules

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34
Q

How does increased intracellular calcium contribute to cell death?

A

increase mitochondrial permeability

increase levels of endonuclease and phopholipases

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35
Q

How can apoptosis occur?

A
  • internal pathway with mitochondria

- extrinsic pathway with ligand bind to death receptors on cell surface (FAS)

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36
Q

What is granulation tissue made up of?

A

capillaries (endothelial cells) and myofibroblasts which deposit collagen and smooth muscle cells

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37
Q

How is gastroenteritis food poisoning transferred?

A

faecal-oral

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38
Q

What type of gram is Clostridia?

A

gram-positive

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39
Q

What is the best thing about using DNA technology to identify bacteria from its 16s gene sequence?

A

most cost effective way to find bacterial strains that may otherwise not be identified

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40
Q

What are the most common cell wall antimicrobials?

A

penicillins
glycopeptides
cephalosporins

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41
Q

What are the most common antibiotics that affect nucleic acids?

A

metronidazole

ciprofloxacin

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42
Q

What are the antibiotics targeting protein synthesis?

A

aminoglycosides
tetracyclines
macrolides

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43
Q

What binds directly to extracellular bacteria to cause cell death by osmotic lysis?

A

MAC of complement system can directly lyse pathogens via membrane insertion and osmotic lysis

44
Q

What is a cytokine that is produced during acute inflammation?

A

TNF alpha

45
Q

What is a cell surface protein that binds to MHC class II molecules?

A

CD4

CD8 binds to MHC-I

46
Q

What in pinocytosis?

A

internalisation of fluids into cells through invagination of the cell membrane

47
Q

What is receptor-mediated endocytosis?

A

molecules bound to membrane receptors are internalised

48
Q

What goes in the blue bag?

A

confidential waste

49
Q

What goes in the red bag?

A

soiled laundry

50
Q

What goes in the yellow bag?

A

amputated limbs from theatre

51
Q

What goes in the yellow sharps bin with blue lid?

A

medication vials with residual medicine

52
Q

What goes in the yellow sharps bin with red lid?

A

needles, syringes and other sharps

53
Q

How many half-lives does it take a drug to reach steady state?

A

5

54
Q

What inhibits phosphofructokinase?

A

ATP
Citrate
H+

55
Q

What is a benign neoplasm of cartilage called?

A

enchondroma

56
Q

How is Km affected by a competitive enzyme?

A

increased

57
Q

How is Vmax affected by a non-competitive inhibitor?

A

changes

58
Q

What are some control points in glycolysis?

A

hexokinase
phosphofructokinase
pyruvate kinase

59
Q

Where in the ETC can electrons not be introduced?

A

complex 3

60
Q

What is damage to cranial nerve 8 associated with?

A

Gentamicin

61
Q

What drains the foregut?

A

splenic vein

62
Q

What are malignant tumours of connective tissue?

A

sarcomas

63
Q

How many spinal nerves are there?

A

31

64
Q

What changes the y intercept of a line weaver-burke plot?

A

non-competitive antagonist

65
Q

Which bacteria uses flagella externally for movement?

A

spirillum

66
Q

BAX and BAK are associated with what apoptosis?

A

intrinsic

67
Q

What nerve innervates the baroreceptors in the carotid sinus?

A

CN IX

68
Q

How many bones make up the vertebral column?

A

33

69
Q

What is the G1 transcription factor?

A

E2F

70
Q

What is an example of a synchondrossis joint?

A

growth plate

71
Q

What is the difference between a full and partial agonist?

A

lower efficacy

72
Q

Where does the spinal cord terminate?

A

L2

73
Q

What parts of the colon are retroperitoneal?

A

ascending and descending

74
Q

Which hormones induces testosterone release from the testes?

A

LH

75
Q

What is faster LGIC or GCPR?

A

ligand gated channel

76
Q

What muscarinic receptor is associated with GI?

A

M2

77
Q

What is associated with the epiblast layer of a bilaminar embryo?

A

amniotic cavity

78
Q

What are the anti-microbial proteins secreted by epithelial cells at mucosal surfaces?

A

defensins bind to microbial cell membranes and assist in killing cells

79
Q

What is a feature of sepsis?

A

decrease in blood volume due to endotoxins causing vasodilation and intravascular fluid leaking into adjacent tissue

80
Q

What is given to treat Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

A

a quinolone such as oral ciprofloxacin

81
Q

How can Gentamicin be given?

A

only IV or inhaled (not oral)

82
Q

What is the cause of pneumonia associated with sheep contact?

A

Coxiella burnetti

83
Q

What acts in the post junctional muscarinic end plate receptor on airway smooth muscle for constriction?

A

ACh to act on M3

84
Q

What is released form eosinophils and mast cells which makes airway smooth muscle contract and increases vascular permeability and mucus secretion?

A

leukotriene D4

85
Q

What does chronic agonist induced stimulation of airway beta 2 receptors result in?

A

beta 2 receptor down regulation and reduced receptor coupling to G protein adenylyl cyclase

86
Q

What type of shock results form loss of blood through a GI bleed?

A

hypovolemic shock with features of postural drop in BP

87
Q

What is used to assess BP if there has been two readings of above 140 in clinic?

A

ambulatory BP monitoring (if under 180)

88
Q

What are the leads for each type of heart attack?

A
V2-5= anterior
V1-3= anteroseptal 
V4-6, 1 aVL= anterolateral
2,3, aVF= inferior 
V1, V2 (reciprocal)= posterior
89
Q

What is the treatment for SVT?

A

valsalva manœuvre

then IV adenosine (not for asthmatics)

90
Q

What specific nutrient helps to increase survival post-MI?

A

omega-3 fatty acids

91
Q

How many breaths for a person in respiratory arrest?

A

10 breaths a minute (1 breath every 6 seconds)

92
Q

What drug helps to increase survival in chronic congestive heart failure?

A

ACE inhibitors (RAAS is unregulated in heart failure)

93
Q

What causes the riding phase of depolarisation in contractile ventricular muscle cells?

A

fast Na+ influx

94
Q

What increases venous return to the heart?

A

increased skeletal muscle activity

95
Q

What is the most common jaundice presentation from travelling in India in a young person?

A

Hepatitis A

96
Q

What is the most inferior of the paired anterolateral branches of the abdominal aorta?

A

gonadal (adrenal, renal then gonadal on anterolateral)

97
Q

What organism causes haemolytic uraemia syndrome?

A

E coli 0157

98
Q

What is the treatment for a fibrosis structure impairing feeding?

A

oesophageal balloon dilation

99
Q

What is the treatment for achalasia?

A

ballon oesophageal dilation or cardiomyotomy (favoured in the young as only done once)

100
Q

What is the diagnosis for an old lady with altered bowel habit and arthritis?

A

CT colonography as not mobile enough for colonoscopy

101
Q

What is the diagnosis for anaemia, weight loss and early satiety?

A

Gastroscopy

102
Q

How many half-lives does it take to reach a steady state?

A

5

103
Q

What arises from the ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm?

A
ectoderm= nervous system
mesoderm= muscle and connective tissue
endoderm= epithelium
104
Q

What is the difference in placing of mast cells, basophils and eosinophils?

A

mast cells = in tissue

basophils and eosinophils = blood

105
Q

What are the main facts about the three most relevant Igs?

A
IgM = first produced
IgA = secretory 
IgG = most common