Anatomy and Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in elbow flexion ?

A

Agonist - Biceps

Antagonist - Triceps

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2
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in elbow extension ?

A

Agonist - Triceps

Antagonist - Biceps

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3
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in ankle plantarflexion ?

A

Agonist - Gastrocnemius

Antagonist - Tibialis Anterior

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4
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in ankle dorsiflexion ?

A

Agonist - Tibialis Anterior

Antagonist - Gastrocnemius

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5
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in knee flexion ?

A

Agonist - Hamstrings

Antagonist - Quadriceps

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6
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in knee extension ?

A

Agonist - Quadriceps

Antagonist - Hamstrings

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7
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in hip flexion ?

A

Agonist - Hip Flexors

Antagonist - Gluteals

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8
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in hip extension ?

A

Agonist - Gluteals

Antagonist - Hip Flexors

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9
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in hip adduction ?

A

Agonist - Adductors

Antagonist - TFL

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10
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in hip abduction ?

A

Agonist - TFL

Antagonist - Adductors

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11
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in hip horizontal adduction ?

A

Agonist - Adductors

Antagonist - TFL

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12
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in hip horizontal abduction ?

A

Agonist - TFL

Antagonist - Adductors

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13
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in shoulder flexion ?

A

Agonist - Anterior Deltoid

Antagonist - Latissimus Dorsi

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14
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in shoulder extension ?

A

Agonist - Latissimus Dorsi

Antagonist - Anterior Deltoid

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15
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in shoulder adduction ?

A

Agonist - Posterior Deltoid

Antagonist - Middle Deltoid

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16
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in shoulder abduction ?

A

Agonist - Middle Deltoid

Antagonist - Posterior Deltoid

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17
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in shoulder horizontal adduction ?

A

Agonist - Pectorals

Antagonist - Latissimus Dorsi

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18
Q

What are the agonist and antagonist in shoulder horizontal abduction ?

A

Agonist - Latissimus Dorsi

Antagonist - Pectorals

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19
Q

What is an isometric muscle contraction ?

A

When the muscle contracts but stays the same length

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20
Q

Isotonic muscles contractions have what ?

A

Movement

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21
Q

What is an isotonic concentric muscle contraction ?

A

When the agonist muscle contacts and gets shorter

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22
Q

What is an isotonic eccentric muscle contraction ?

A

When the agonist muscle contracts and gets longer

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23
Q

Flexion and Extension are in what Plane and Axis ?

A

Sagittal Plane + Transverse Axis

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24
Q

Adduction and Abduction are in what Plane and Axis ?

A

Frontal Plane + Sagittal Axis

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25
Q

Horizontal Adduction and Abduction are in what Plane and Axis ?

A

Transverse Plane + Longitudinal Axis

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26
Q

What does the Sino Atrial node cause ?

A

Atrial Systole

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27
Q

The Atrial Ventricular node picks up what ?

A

Electrical impulses

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28
Q

Where do the electrical impulses trave to next ?

A

The bundle of His, and down the left and right branches

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29
Q

What causes ventricular systole ?

A

Purkinje Fibres

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30
Q

What are sensory receptors ?

A

Chemoreceptors - increased CO2 + acidity
Proprioceptors - movement
Baroreceptors - change in blood pressure

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31
Q

Where in the brain do these receptors send info to, when controlling the heart ?

A

Medulla Oblongata - Cardiac Control Centre

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32
Q

What system and nerve increases heart rate ?

A

Sympathetic system + Accelerator nerve

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33
Q

What system and nerve helps decreases heart rate ?

A

Parasympathetic system + Vegas nerve

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34
Q

What hormones also affect heart rate ?

A

Increase - Adrenaline
Decrease - Acetylcholine

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35
Q

Where is the blood flow to the muscles and organs controlled ?

A

Arterioles + Pre-capillary sphincters

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36
Q

What happens to the blood flow at the organs during vasoconstrictions ?

A

Increased stimulation of the sympathetic nerve, causes vasoconstriction to decrease the blood flow to the capillaries of the non-essential organs

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37
Q

What happens to the blood flow at the muscles during vasodilation ?

A

Decreased stimulation of the sympathetic nerve, causes vasodilation of arterioles + sphincters, to increase the blood flow to the capillaries of the working muscles

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38
Q

What is the first method of the Venous Return Mechanism ?

A

One way valves in veins

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39
Q

What is the second method of the Venous Return Mechanism ?

A

Skeletal muscle pump

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40
Q

What is the third method of the Venous Return Mechanism ?

A

Respiratory pump

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41
Q

What is the fourth method of the Venous Return Mechanism ?

A

Suction pressure of the heart

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42
Q

What is the first step of Starlings Law ?

A

Increased venous return

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43
Q

What is the second step of Starlings Law ?

A

Greater diastolic filling

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44
Q

What is the third step of Starlings Law ?

A

Cardiac muscles stretch

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45
Q

What is the fourth step of Starlings Law ?

A

Greater force of muscle contraction

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46
Q

What is the fifth step of Starlings Law ?

A

Increased ejection fraction

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47
Q

What is the first method of Cardio Vascular Drift ?

A

Increased heart rate due to a decrease in stroke volume

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48
Q

What is the second + third methods of Cardio Vascular Drift ?

A

Occurs in warm environments after 10 minutes

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49
Q

What is the fourth method of Cardio Vascular Drift ?

A

Caused by a reduction of fluid in the blood volume

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50
Q

What is the fifth method of Cardio Vascular Drift ?

A

Venous return decreases

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51
Q

What is the sixth method of Cardio Vascular Drift ?

A

Aims to cool the body down by maintaining cardiac output

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52
Q

Where in the brain do the receptors send info to, when controlling breathing ?

A

Medulla Oblongata - Respiratory Control Centre

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53
Q

How do you increase breathing rate ?

A

Sympathetic system + Phrenic nerve

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54
Q

How do you decrease breathing rate ?

A

Parasympathetic system

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55
Q

What hormones also affect breathing rate ?

A

Increase - Adrenaline
Decrease - Acetylchloride

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56
Q

How does the alveoli having a vast surface area help to assist diffusion ?

A

Allows more places for diffusion to take place

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57
Q

How does thin alveoli walls help to assist diffusion ?

A

One cell thick allows for a short diffusion pathway

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58
Q

How does the moist lining of alveoli help to assist diffusion ?

A

Water helps to dissolve and diffuse oxygen

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59
Q

How does a large capillary network to the alveoli help to assist diffusion ?

A

Lots of blood vessels for gaseous exchange

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60
Q

How does a short diffusion path help to assist diffusion ?

A

Thin membranes for gases to diffuse through

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61
Q

What respiratory illnesses can smoking cause ?

A

Bronchitis, Cancer

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62
Q

How does smoking prevent efficient diffusion, and causes emphysema?

A

Damages the alveoli so tar can now collect in the alveoli, can also create holes in the alveoli

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63
Q

How does smoking effect the respiratory systems supply of oxygen to the muscles ?

A

Decreased efficiency

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64
Q

How does smoking effect the filtering of air particles ?

A

Damages cilia so tar can collect on tiny hairs that are responsible for filtering air particles, so it can’t happen efficiently

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65
Q

What is arterio-venous difference ?

A

The difference between the oxygen content of the arterial blood arriving at the muscles and the venous blood leaving the muscles

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66
Q

What happens to the A-VO2 difference at rest ?

A

It is low - not much oxygen is required by the muscles

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67
Q

What happens to the A-VO2 difference during exercise ?

A

It is high - lots of oxygen is required by the muscles

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68
Q

How does training affect the A-VO2 difference ?

A

Training increases the A-VO2 difference

69
Q

What type of exercise are type 1 muscle fibers designed for ?

A

Aerobic exercise - endurance athletes have lots of these

70
Q

What is type 1 muscle fiber’s resistance to fatigue and speed of contraction ?

A

Very resistant to fatigue, slow speed of contraction

71
Q

Type 1 muscle fibers contain lots of —– which makes them —– in colour ?

A

Myoglobin, Red

72
Q

What activities are type 2A muscle fibers suited for ?

A

Involving endurance and power (1500 m)

73
Q

What is the resistance to fatigue and speed of contraction of type 2A muscle fibers ?

A

Medium resistance to fatigue and fast speed of contraction

74
Q

How can resistance training affect fast twitch muscle fibers ?

A

Can change Type 2X fibers into type 2A due to an increased ability to utalise oxygen

75
Q

What activities are type 2X muscle fibers suited for ?

A

Highly explosive events (100 m)

76
Q

What is the resistance to fatigue and speed of contraction for type 2X muscle fibers ?

A

Low resistance to fatigue and fast speed of contraction

77
Q

What are type 2X muscle fibers more capable of ?

A

Generating greater force and speed, when a quick short burst of energy is released

78
Q

What is a motor unit ?

A

The motor neuron and the bundle of fibers it stimulates

79
Q

How many types of muscle fibers does a motor unit stimulate ?

A

One type of fibers

80
Q

What is the All or None Law ?

A

Either all the muscle fibers within a motor unit contract or none do

81
Q

What does a muscle contraction involve ?

A

The interaction of the muscles within the nervous system

82
Q

How does a motor unit maintain a contraction in wave summation ?

A

It must receive a continuous string of impulses

83
Q

What increases the strength of contraction in wave summation ?

A

If a second impulse arrives before a muscle has had time to relax

84
Q

In wave summation what will happen when using this system ?

A

The muscle will continue to contract until fatigue sets in

85
Q

What increases the strength of contraction to its maximum in Tetanic Contraction ?

A

A number of impulses arrive at the muscle fibers - no time for them to relax, this increases the strength of contraction to its maximum

86
Q

How do you produce maximal contractions in Spatial Summation ?

A

All motor units within a particular muscle will be recruited

87
Q

What happens during this stage in Tetanic Contraction ?

A

The motor unit has been maximally stimulated and remains that way for some time.

88
Q

Which type of motor unit will be recruited first in Spatial Summation ?

A

Fast twitch motor units to provide a more forceful contraction

89
Q

What happens when muscles need to work for a longer period of time in Spatial Summation ?

A

Fatigue can be delayed by rotating the number of motor units being stimulated at any one time

90
Q

What is PNF stretching used to improve ?

A

Flexibility and mobility

91
Q

What triggers a stretch reflex ?

A

Sensory information sent to the CNS

92
Q

What are the muscle spindles and where dop they lie ?

A

Proprioceptors, between skeletal muscle fibers

93
Q

What does the stretch reflex do ?

A

Muscles to contract to prevent overstretching reducing risk of injury

94
Q

Where are the Golgi tendon organs found ?

A

Between the muscle fiber and tendon

95
Q

What do they Golgi tendon organs detect ?

A

Levels of tension in a muscle

96
Q

When the muscle contacts isometrically in PNF stretching what happens, and what is it called ?

A

Sense the increase in muscle tension and sends signals to the brain allowing the agonist to relax and lengthen, autogenic inhibition

97
Q

What is the only useable form of energy in the body ?

A

ATP - Adenosine Tri -Phosphate

98
Q

Where is ATP found in the body ?

A

Found in all cells

99
Q

How is energy created ?

A

By Breaking down the high energy bonds

100
Q

What enzyme causes the break down of ATP ?

A

ATPase

101
Q

What happens during phase 1 of the ATP-PC System ?

A

Phosphocreatine is broken down by creatine kinase

102
Q

What happens during phase 2 of the ATP-PC System ?

A

Energy produced from breakdown resynthesises ATP

103
Q

How long does the ATP-PC System last for ?

A

8 - 10 seconds

104
Q

Where is phosphocreatine stored in the body ?

A

Within the muscles cell next to ATP

105
Q

What are the advantages of the ATP-PC system ?

A

ATP immediately resynthesised

PCr stores are replenished quickly

No fatiguing by products

Creatine supplementation

106
Q

What are the disadvantages of the ATP-PC system ?

A

Limited supply of PCr

PCr stores only replenished when oxygen is present - at rest

1 PCr produces 1 ATP

107
Q

What is used to produce energy in the lactic acid system ?

A

Uses glucose that is stored as glycogen

108
Q

What breaks glucose down into pyruvic acid ?

A

PFK (phosphofructokinase)

109
Q

If no oxygen is present, what happens to the pyruvic acid ?

A

Converted into lactic acid by LDH

110
Q

In the break down of glucose how many ATP can be resynthesised ?

A

2

111
Q

What are the advantages of the lactic acid system ?

A

Few chemical reactions so ATP is quickly resynthesised

No wait for sufficient O2 to be present

Lactic acid can be converted back to glycogen

Can be called upon during aerobic activity for a sprint finish

112
Q

What are the disadvantages of the lactic acid system ?

A

Accumulation of lactate causes fatigue

Only a small amount of energy unlocked from glucose without oxygen (5%)

113
Q

What is OBLA ?

A

Onset of Blood Lactate Accumulation

114
Q

What are the factors that affect blood lactate accumulation ?

A

Exercise Intensity - higher intensity = faster accumulation

Respiratory Exchange ratio

Muscle fiber types - slow twitch produces less lactate

The rate of blood lactate removal

Training of muscles - trained muscles work better anaerobically

115
Q

What is EPOC ?

A

Excess post-exercise oxygen consumption

116
Q

Why does EPOC happen ?

A

At the start of exercise the body will need to work anaerobically there maybe insufficient oxygen present creating an oxygen deficit

117
Q

What is submaximal oxygen deficit ?

A

Not enough oxygen available at the start of exercise to provide all energy anaerobically

118
Q

What is maximal oxygen deficit ?

A

A way of measuring anaerobic capacity

119
Q

What takes place during the fast replenishment phase of EPOC ?

A

Re- saturate myoglobin

Provide aerobic energy to regenerate ATP-PC

120
Q

How long does the EPOC fast replenishment phase last ?

A

Complete within 2 - 3 minutes, uses 4 liters of O2

121
Q

What takes place during the slow replenishment phase of EPOC ?

A

Removal of lactic acid

Convert lactate to CO2, water, pyruvate and glucose

Maintain elevated heart and breathing rate

122
Q

How long does the EPOC slow replenishment phase last ?

A

Take up to 2 hours and uses 5 - 10 liters of O2

123
Q

Is the first stage of the aerobic system aerobic or anaerobic ?

A

Anaerobic

124
Q

Where does glycolysis take place ?

A

Sarcoplasm of the muscle cell

125
Q

What is glycolysis and how many ATP are formed ?

A

Break down of glucose into pyruvic acid, 2ATP

126
Q

What happens after pyruvic acid is produced ?

A

Glycolysis enters the next stage (Krebs Cycle), it splits into 2 acetyl groups and is then carried into the Krebs Cycle

127
Q

Where does the Krebs Cycle take place ?

A

The matrix of the mitochondria - rich supply of enzymes

128
Q

What happens in stage 1 of the Krebs Cycle ?

A

Oxidation of citric acid - involves the removal of hydrogen atoms

129
Q

What happens in stage 2 of the Krebs Cycle ?

A

Production of CO2 - only O2 and C remain - then removed by lungs

130
Q

What happens in stage 3 of the Krebs Cycle ?

A

Resynthesis of ATP - sufficient energy is released at this stage to resynthesise 2 ATP

131
Q

Where is the hydrogen produced by the Krebs Cycle transported to ?

A

It’s carried through the Electron Transport Chain

132
Q

What is one feature of the Electron Transport Chain ?

A

Water is formed from hydrogen and some oxygen

133
Q

What is another feature of the Electron Transport Chain ?

A

34 ATP are resynthesised

134
Q

What can be used as secondary energy stores ?

A

Fats - broken down into fatty acids

Proteins - broken down down into amino acids

135
Q

What are the advantages of the aerobic system ?

A

Lots more ATP can be resynthesised - 38

No fatiguing by products

Lots of energy stores - last for several hours

136
Q

What are the disadvantages of the aerobic system ?

A

Can’t be used immediately - sufficient oxygen needs to be present

Takes lots of oxygen to break fats down

When glycogen stores are fully depleated fats is the sole energy source

137
Q

What is VO2 max, and what is the units its measured in ?

A

Maximum volume of oxygen that can be utilised or consumed by the muscles per minute (ml/kg/min)

138
Q

What are the factors that affect VO2 max ?

A

Physiology, lifestyle, genetics, gender, training, age, body composition

139
Q

What is a factor that VO2 max capacity is dependent on ?

A

An effective oxygen delivery system

140
Q

What is another factor that VO2 max capacity is dependent on ?

A

Large volume of slow twitch muscle fibers

Myoglobin

High density of mitochondria

141
Q

Why would you carry out a VO2 max test ?

A

Base line tests

Goal Setting

Determine a correct intensity

Any adaptations from training

Compare to normative data

142
Q

What does the Respiratory Exchange Ratio estimate ?

A

Use of fats and carbohydrates used during exercise

143
Q

How is the Respiratory Exchange Ratio measured/ calculated ?

A

Respiratory quotient = volume of CO2/ Volume of O2

144
Q

Why do athletes do lactate sampling ?

A

So athletes can train at the correct intensity

145
Q

How is lactate sampling performed ?

A

A pin prick to sample blood and a device measures lactate levels

146
Q

What does the results of lactate sampling show ?

A

Lactate threshold - 2mmol of lactate per liter of blood, above resting levels

OBLA - 4 mmol of lactate per liter of blood

The higher the reading of lactate the higher the intensity

147
Q

What is indirect calorimetry ?

A

Allows measurement of oxygen consumption + carbon dioxide production

Can be done during rest + aerobic exercise

Estimates the use of fats + carbohydrates during exercise

Can give precise calculation of VO2 max

Non invasive and accurate

148
Q

How is the test for indirect calorimetry performed ?

A

A metabolic cart analyses expired gas

149
Q

In speed, agility, quickness training, what components of fitness are trained ?

A

Agility, balance, coordination, flexibility, power, reaction time, muscular endurance, cardiovascular endurance

150
Q

In speed, agility, quickness training, what are the physiological adaptations ?

A

Higher density of 2X fibers, gain more neuromuscular patterns, developing fitness, correct technique, coordination of agonistic pairs

151
Q

In speed, agility, quickness training, what is the impact on energy systems ?

A

Increased glycolysis, ATP, PC systems

152
Q

In speed, agility, quickness training, what are the advantages ?

A

Can mimic demands of sport or a position

Developing anaerobic power

Stress aerobic systems allowing players to recover from efforts quickly

153
Q

In speed, agility, quickness training, what are the disadvantages ?

A

Causes stress on heart + body

Cause injury due to lack of form

Does not fully replicate specific sporting actions

154
Q

In plyometrics training, what components of fitness are trained ?

A

Speed, strength, power

155
Q

In plyometrics training, what are the physiological adaptations ?

A

Increased elasticity of muscles, stretch reflex, concentric contractions, contractility of muscle fibers

156
Q

In plyometrics training, what is the impact on the energy systems ?

A

Increased resting levels of ATP, PC free creatine and glycogen in the muscles

157
Q

In plyometrics training, what are the advantages ?

A

Effective for developing power

Minimal equipment

Suitable for explosive skills

Develops both speed and strength

158
Q

In plyometrics training, what are the disadvantages ?

A

Fatigue quickly

High risk of injuries

Can cause stress on joints

Not suitable for beginners or young athletes

159
Q

In HIIT training, what components of fitness are trained ?

A

Power, speed, agility

160
Q

In HIIT training, what are the physiological adaptations ?

A

Improve VO2 max, increased stroke volume, improved lactate uptake + clearance, neuromuscular coordination

161
Q

In HIIT training, what is the impact on the energy systems ?

A

Improve aerobic systems during recovery, heavily anaerobic

162
Q

In HIIT training, what are the advantages ?

A

No equipment required

Can help loose fat

Decrease heart rate and blood pressure

Can reduce blood sugar levels

163
Q

In HIIT training, what are the disadvantages ?

A

Higher risk of injury

Not great for beginners

Can cause injury if not performed correctly

164
Q

In Altitude training, what components of fitness are trained ?

A

Cardiovascular endurance and muscular endurance

165
Q

What are the three options of Altitude training ?

A

Live high - train high

Live high - train low

Live low - train high

166
Q

In Altitude training, what is the impact on energy systems ?

A

More energy can be released during the Krebs cycle and electron transport chain, lack of oxygen prevents fats as a second energy store

167
Q

In Altitude training, what are the advantages ?

A

Improves oxygen delivery

Risen red blood cell volume - more oxygen transported to the muscles

168
Q

In Altitude training, what are the disadvantages ?

A