Anatomy Exam 2 Flashcards
(141 cards)
1
Q
what attaches the scapular spine in the dog and horse
A
m.omotransversarius
m.trapezius
m.supraspinatus
m.deltoideus (scapular part)
2
Q
what attaches to the acromion on the dog (absent in horses)
A
m.deltoideus (acromial part)
3
Q
what attaches to the supraglenoid tubercle/tuberosity in the dog and the horse
A
m.biceps brachii
4
Q
what attaches to the supraspinous fossa in the dog and horse
A
m.supraspinatus
5
Q
what attaches to the infraspinous fossa in the dog and horse
A
m.infraspinatus
6
Q
what attaches to the subscapular fossa in the dog and horse
A
m.subscapularis
7
Q
what attaches to the greater tubercle in the dog and horse
A
m.supraspinatus m.infraspinatus
m.deep pectoral
8
Q
what attaches to the lesser tubercle in the dog and horse
A
m.subscapularis
m.coracobrachialis
m.deep pectoral
medial head of m.triceps brachii
9
Q
what attaches to the deltoid tuberosity in the dog and horse
A
m.deltoideus
lateral head of triceps m. (horse only)
10
Q
what attaches to the medial epicondyles in the dog and horse
A
flexor muscles
flexor carpi radialis
flexor carpi ulnaris
superficial digital flexor
deep digital flexor
pronator teres
m.anconeus
11
Q
what attaches to the lateral epicondyles in the dog and horse
A
majority of extensor muscles
common digital extensor
lateral digital extensor
extensor carpi ulnaris
m.aconeus
supinator
12
Q
what attaches to the olecranon in the dog and horse
A
triceps brachii muscles (4 heads in dog, 3 heads in horse)
m.tensor fascia antebrachii
13
Q
what attaches to the accessory carpal bone in the dog and horse
A
flexor carpi ulnaris
extensor carpi ulnaris
14
Q
what bony features are unique to the cats thoracic limb
A
suprahamate process (scapula)
supracondylar foramen (humerus)
15
Q
what is a common site for elbow dysplasia
A
medial coronoid process
16
Q
name the extrinsic muscles of the thorax
A
m.trapezius
m. latissimus dorsi
m. rhomboideus
m. omotransversarius
m. serratus ventralis
superficial pectoral m.
deep pectoral m.
m. brachiocephalicus
17
Q
what artery is the primary arterial blood supply to the entire thoracic limb
A
axillary a.
18
Q
what artery is the primary arterial blood supply to the manus or digit (horse)
A
medial palmar a.
19
Q
where is the superficial cervical lymph node located? what does it drain?
A
deep to m. omotransversarius
drains distal limb and caudal head/neck
20
Q
what does the axillary lymph node drain?
A
proximal part of limb and chest wall
21
Q
what are the boundaries of the carpal canal
A
- proximal carpal bones (radial, ulnar, accessory)
- palmar carpal fibrocartilage
- flexor retinaculum
22
Q
what are the contents of the carpal canal
A
- digital flexor tendons (SDF and DDF)
- tendon of m.flexor carpi radialis
- median a.
- median and ulnar nn.
23
Q
what is the function of the carpal sheath in horses
A
surround tendons of SDF and DDF through carpal canal
24
Q
what is the function of the digital sheath in horses
A
surrounds tendons of SDF and DDF as they pass over fetlock, proximal to metacarpophalangeal joint –> middle phalanx
25
what attaches to the metacarpal tuberosity in the horse
extensor carpi radialis m.
26
what attaches to the extensor process in the horse
common digital extensor m.
27
what are some bony feature differences in the horse compared to the dog
scapula: carilage "withers", no acromion, has tuber of the spine
humerus: greater, less, intermediate tubercles
fused radius/ulna
carpal bones: accessory, ulnar, radius, intermediate
metacarpals: 2-4
digit: 3
28
what are the three ligaments that bind down the flexor tendons as they pass over the fetlock in the horse
1. annular ligament of the fetlock
2. proximal digital annular ligament
3. distal digital annular ligament
29
what are the 3 distal sesamoidean ligaments in the horse
1. straight sesamoidean ligaments
2. oblique sesamoidean ligaments
3. cruciate sesamoidean ligaments
30
differ between nerve blocks and joint blocks
nerve blocks: anesthetic around sensory nerve, prevents AP transmission, anesthetic in distribution of nerve distal to point of injection
joint blocks:anesthetic directly into, no effect outside synovial space, anesthetic in synovial membrane and articular surfaces
31
what does the stay apparatus in the forelimb include
tendon of origin of biceps brachii
internal tendon of biceps brachii
lacertus fibrosus
radial check ligament
carpal check ligament
suspensory apparatus (suspensory ligament, proximal sesamoid bones, distal sesamoidean ligaments)
32
what is the function of the palmar annular ligament
binds flexor tendons to proximal sesamoid bones
33
what muscle bears majority of the trunks weight
m.serratus ventralis
34
what are some bony differences in the cow compared to dog/horse
scapula: acromion, scapular cartilages
humerus: greater, less tubercles
fully developed radius/ulna with 2 interosseous spaces
carpal bones: accessory, ulnar, radial, intermediate, 2+3 fused, 4
metacarpals: 3+4 fused and 5
digits: 3-4
35
what are some muscle differences in the cow
common digital extensor has 2 bellies, medial t goes to digit 3, lat t goes to digit 3/4
lateral digital ext. t goes to digit 4
SDF m. 2 bellies/2 tendons
Interflexorius mm. (SDF m. ↔ DDF m.)
DDF m. 3 heads/single tendon but splits in metacarpus
36
what are some ligament differences in the cow
the suspensory ligament attaches to SDF and splits 5 times at fetlock to proximal sesamoids and extensor tendons
proximal interdigital lig
distal interdigital lig
37
what are arterial differences in the cow
primary supply is the median a.
palpable pulse is the palmar common digital a. III
axial and abaxial digital aa.
38
what are nerve differences in the cow
radial n goes to hoof (dorsal side)
median and ulnar n. (palmar side)
axial and abaxial palmar digital nn. (from median n)
39
what is the main vein we care about in the cow
dorsal common digital v. III
40
what does exposure during embryonic period (organogenesis) result in
birth defects
41
what does teratology result in
1. agensis: developmental failure
2. developmental excess
3. incomplete development
4. persistence of embryonic structures
42
what is a totipotent cell
potential of zygotes daughter cells to differentiate into any cell type
43
what is a morula
16 totipotent cells in the embryo
splitting of this into two separate concepti results in identical twins
44
Why are radiographs taken near term not likely to be injurious to a fetus?
Because the fetus near term has already had most of its cellular differentiation take place
45
what does endoderm give rise to
mucosa of GI and respiratory systems & ducts of accessory digestive gland
46
what does mesoderm give rise to
1. paraxial --> somites (dermatome, sclerotome, myotome) = dermis,vert. column & skeletal muscles
2. intermediate (kidneys, gonads, repro system)
3. lateral plate (w/ ectoderm = body wall and w/ endoderm = mesenteries and gut)
47
what does ectoderm give rise to
epidermis and nervous tissue (neuroectoderm)
48
contrast totipotent and pluripotent
totipotent is the potential of zygotes daughter cells to differentiate into any cell type; describes the zygote
pluripotent is the potential to become a variety of different cell types but it restricted relative of the totipotency of the zygote; type of cell
49
what is the vertebral formula for dogs/cats
C7 T13 L7 S3
50
what is the vertebral formula for the horse
C7 T18 L6(5) S5
51
what is the vertebral formula for the ox
C7 T13 L6 S5
52
What thoracic vertebrae is termed the anticlinal vertbrae and why
T11
spinous process is perpendicular to the axis
53
where does the nuchal ligament attach in the dog? horse/ox?
what differs between these species?
dog: spinous processes of first few thoracic vertebrae --> axis
horse/ox: spinous processes of first few thoracic vertebrae --> occipital bone
dogs do not have the laminar part of the nuchal ligament, only the funicular part
54
which ligaments are discontinuous
interarcuate ligament
interspinous ligament
55
what are the 3 bursae associated with nuchal ligament in the
1. cranial nuchal bursa
2. caudal nuchal bursa
3. supraspinous bursa
56
what are the epaxial muscles
m.splenius
iliocostalis system of mm.
longissimus system of mm.
transverospinalis system mm. (complexus and biventer cervicis)
57
m.serratus ventralis
origin:
insertion:
origin: transverse processes of C3-7, ventral halves of ribs 1-7/8
insertion: serrated face of scapula
58
m.deltoideus
origin:
insertion:
origin: scapular spine (scapular part) & acromion (acromial part)
insertion: deltoid tuberosity on the humerus
59
m.infraspinatus
origin:
insertion:
origin: infraspinous fossa
insertion: greater tubercle of humerus
60
m.supraspinatous
origin:
insertion:
origin: supraspinous fossa
insertion: greater tubercle of humerus
61
m.subscapularis
origin:
insertion:
origin: subscapular fossa
insertion: lesser tubercle of humerus
62
triceps brachii (long head)
origin:
insertion:
origin: caudal border of scapula
insertion: olecranon
63
triceps brachii (lateral head)
origin:
insertion:
origin: tricipital line of humerus
insertion: olecranon
64
triceps brachii (medial head)
origin:
insertion:
origin: lesser tubercle of humerus
insertion: olecranon
65
triceps brachii (accessory head)
origin:
insertion:
origin: neck of humerus
insertion: olecranon
66
m.biceps brachii
origin:
insertion:
origin: supraglenoid tubercle of scapula
insertion: ulnar and radial tuberosities
67
m.brachialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral proximal humerus
insertion: ulnar and radial tuberosities
68
m.extensor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral supracondylar crest
insertion: dorsal aspect of proximal metacarpals 2-3
69
common digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
insertion: extensor process of digits 2-5
70
lateral digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
insertion: proximal and middle phalanx and digits 3-5
71
m.extensor carpi ulnaris
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle of humerus
insertion: accessory bone
72
m.flexor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle of humerus
insertion: palmar aspect of metacarpals 2-3
73
superficial digital flexor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle of humerus
insertion: proximal middle phalanx of digits 2-5
74
m.flexor carpi ulnaris
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle of humerus (humeral head) & olecranon (ulnar head)
insertion: accessory carpal bone
75
deep digital flexor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin:
caudal border ulna (ulnar head)
medial radius (radial head)
medial epicondyle (humeral head)
insertion: palmar aspect of distal phalanx of digits 2-5
76
suprascapular n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor
m.supraspinatus & m.infraspinatus
77
subscapular n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor
m.subscapularis
78
musculocutaneous n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor & sensory
biceps brachii, brachialis, coracobrachialis
79
axillary n.
motor & sensory
teres major, teres minor, m.deltoideus
80
thoracodorsal n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor
m.latissimus dorsi
81
lateral thoracic n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor
deep pectoral m. & m.cutaneus trunci
82
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
82
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
82
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
82
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
82
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
82
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
82
radial n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory (superficial brr only)
extensors, triceps brachii, anconeus, and tensor fasciae antebrachii
83
median n.
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory
pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, SDF, pronator quadratus
84
ulnar n
motor or sensory
innervation
motor and sensory
flexor carpi ulnaris & DDF
85
HORSE
m.biceps brachii
origin:
insertion:
origin: supraglenoid tubercle
insertion: radial tuberosity
86
HORSE
m.extensor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: craniolateral distal humerus
insertion: metacarpal tuberosity
87
HORSE
m.extensor carpi obliquus
origin:
insertion:
origin: shaft of radius
insertion: 2nd metacarpal
88
HORSE
m. flexor carpi radialis
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle
insertion: medial splint bone
89
HORSE
lateral digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle
insertion: proximal middel phalanx
90
HORSE
common digital extensor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: lateral epicondyle
insertion: extensor process of distal phalanx
91
HORSE
superficial digital flexor m
origin:
insertion:
origin: medial epicondyle
insertion: palmar aspect of proximal middle phalanx
92
HORSE
deep digital flexor m.
origin:
insertion:
origin: humeral, ulnar, radial heads
insertion: semilunar line of coffin bone
93
what are the bony boundaries of the thoracic inlet
T1 + 1st + manubrium
94
asternal false ribs are which ones?
T10-12
95
which rib is the floating rib
T13 in carnivores
96
name the consistent and inconsistent bursae of the shoulder/elbow joints and what species they are found in
infraspinatus bursa - consistent, all species
intertubercular bursa - consistent, horse/ox only
subcutaneous olecranon bursa - inconsistent, equine only
97
what is the most important shoulder extensor muscle?
brachiocephalic m.
98
two common signs of forelimb lameness
1. head bob
2. shoulder prop
99
what is the joint that allows for significant pronation in carnivores but is relatively immobile in large animals
proximal radioulnar joint
100
what ribs are asternal in the dog? horse?
dog 10-12
horse 9-18
101
what is the prominent and palpable vein unique to equine and ox in the distal trunk that drains caudally
superficial thoracic vein "spur vein"
102
what nerves are blocked in a ring block prior to a declaw procedure? where do you inject?
median n.
superficial brr of radial n.
dorsal and palmar brr of ulnar n.
lateral/proximal to carpal pad, medial to carpal pad, dorsomedial to carpus
103
what is the anatomic rationale for the preferred site of thoracocentesis
costomedial and costodiaphragmatic recess due to reduced risk of laceration of the lung
104
Identify the structures that penetrate the diaphragm through each of the three natural apertures.
Caudal vena cava through the caval foramen
Esophagus through the esophageal hiatus
Aorta through the aortic hiatus
105
Name the innervation to the diaphragm and from what spinal cord segments this nerve arises.
Phrenic Nerve - somatic nerve; arises from the spinal nerve segments C5-7
106
what two parts are there of the trachea? what are their blood supply?
cervical = branch of common carotid a.
thoracic = bronchoesophageal a.
107
what is the trachea modification in ruminants and pigs?
tracheal bronchus that arises proximal to tracheal bifurcation and goes to cranial lobe of right lung
108
describe the different lobation patterns of canines/felines, equine and ruminants
canine/feline & ruminants: left lung has 2 lobes (cranial & caudal), cranial with cranial/caudal parts; right lung with 4 lobes (cranial, caudal, middle, accessory)
equine: left lung has 2 lobes (cranial & caudal), cranial with cranial/caudal parts; right lung with 3 lobes (cranial, caudal, accessory)
109
what is the cardiac notch? relate this feature to echocardiograms?
cardiac notch: space between cranial and middle lobes in the right lung; allows heart to be right against body wall allowing for less interference during ECG
110
Distinguish between functional and nutritional blood supplies to the lungs
nutritional = bronchial aa.
functional = pulmonary aa.
111
why do enlarged lymph nodes commonly present a cough even though resp tract not directly involved
they can compress your trachea or lungs
112
what nerves are blocked by a RUMM block? where do you inject?
radial, ulnar, median, musculocutaneous
proximal to lateral epicondyle
proximal to medial epicondyle
113
where do you inject for sciatic n block
between greater trochanter and ischiatic tuberosity, 2/3 to greater trochanter; advance perpendicular
114
where do you inject for a tibial and common fibular n block
in groove betwen biceps femoris and semitendinosus, once contact with femur is made, retract 1 cm and inject
115
where do you inject for a common fibular n. block
SQ caudal to head of fibula
116
where do you inject for a stifle joint block
lateral to patellar ligament between lateral condyle and tibial tuberosity
117
most common dairy cow foot disease
laminitis/coriosis
118
no visible swelling in the bovine foot
laminitis/coriosis, sole ulcer/abscess, white line disease, hoof cracks, hairy foot warts
119
visible swelling in the bovine foot
foot rot and sepsis
120
what structure normally resists physiological hyperextension in the thoracic limb
palmar carpal fibrocartilage
121
what is the difference between a horse having swelling around the tendon or swelling around the fetlock
swelling near tendon = swelling of tendon sheath
swelling near fetlock on the bone = swelling of palmar pouch of metacarpophalangeal joint
122
what are bowed tendon a result of?
what can be cut to release pressure?
tendinitis: swelling of SDF and DDF
palmar annular ligament prevents tendons from bulging out over fetlock; can damage flexor tendons if constricting them enough and can be cut to release pressure
123
what gives rise to the notochord?
what is the notochords function?
how does formation occur?
mesoderm
induces formation of CNS & head
forms cranial to caudal as primitive streak retreats
124
describe paraxial mesoderm differentiation
paraxial --> somites
dermatome = dermis
sclerotome = vertebral column
myotome = skeletal mm.
125
describe the differentiation of sclerotome
induced by notochord
retains segmental pattern
notochord is retained as nucleus pulposus of intervertebral discs
126
what are common failures of the vertebral column due to sclerotome differentiation
spina bifida (failure of arch to form or fuse)
block vertebra (inappr. fusion of adjacent vertebrae)
hemivertebra (vertebral body develops asymmetrically)
127
describe differentiation of the myotome
myoblasts are precursors for skeletal mm
migrate to destinations and take innervation with them
128
what organizes proximal to distal elements of the limb during limb bud formation
AER
129
which limb develops fast than the other
thoracic > pelvic
130
what is necessary/required for the development of joints
if this doesn't occur, what can be a result?
movement
ankylosis: fused joints
arthrogryposis: abnormal angulation of joints/crooked limbs
131
define polydactyly
excess digits
132
define amelia
failure of limb bud to form, absence of limb
133
define notomelia
limb in the wrong place
134
define polymedlia
extra limbs
135
define syndactyly
few digits, failure to split
