anatomy final Flashcards
(112 cards)
1
Q
Which of the following cavities contains a component of the central nervous system?
a. abdominal
b. pelvic
c. cranial
d. thoracic
A
c. cranial
2
Q
Which structure predominates in the white matter of the brain?
a. myelinated axons
b. neuronal cell bodies
c. ganglia of the parasympathetic nerves
d. bundles of dendrites from the enteric nervous system
A
a. myelinated axons
3
Q
Which part of a neuron transmits an electrical signal to a target cell?
a. dendrites
b. soma
c. cell body
d. axon
A
d. axon
4
Q
Which term describes a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system?
a. nucleus
b. ganglion
c. tract
d. nerve
A
d. nerve
5
Q
Which functional division of the nervous system would be responsible for the physiological changes seen during exercise (e.g., increased heart rate and sweating)?
a. somatic
b. autonomic
c. enteric
d. central
A
b. autonomic
6
Q
What type of glial cell provides myelin for the axons in a tract?
a. oligodendrocyte
b. astrocyte
c. Schwann cell
d. satellite cell
A
a. oligodendrocyte
7
Q
Which part of a neuron contains the nucleus?
a. dendrite
b. soma
c. axon
d. synaptic end bulb
A
b. soma
8
Q
Which of the following substances is least able to cross the blood-brain barrier?
a. water
b. sodium ions
c. glucose
d. white blood cells
A
d. white blood cells
9
Q
What type of glial cell is the resident macrophage behind the blood-brain barrier?
a. microglia
b. astrocyte
c. Schwann cell
d. satellite cell
A
a. microglia
10
Q
What two types of macromolecules are the main components of myelin?
a. carbohydrates and lipids
b. proteins and nucleic acids
c. lipids and proteins
d. carbohydrates and nucleic acids
A
c. lipids and proteins
11
Q
If a thermoreceptor is sensitive to temperature sensations, what would a chemoreceptor be sensitive to?
a. light
b. sound
c. molecules
d. vibration
A
c. molecules
12
Q
Which of these locations is where the greatest level of integration is taking place in the example of testing the temperature of the shower?
a. skeletal muscle
b. spinal cord
c. thalamus
d. cerebral cortex
A
d. cerebral cortex
13
Q
How long does all the signaling through the sensory pathway, within the central nervous system, and through the motor command pathway take?
a. 1 to 2 minutes
b. 1 to 2 seconds
c. fraction of a second
d. varies with graded potential
A
c. fraction of a second
14
Q
What is the target of an upper motor neuron?
a. cerebral cortex
b. lower motor neuron
c. skeletal muscle
d. thalamus
A
b. lower motor neuron
15
Q
What ion enters a neuron causing depolarization of the cell membrane?
a. sodium
b. chloride
c. potassium
d. phosphate
A
a. sodium
16
Q
Voltage-gated Na+ channels open upon reaching what state?
a. resting potential
b. threshold
c. repolarization
d. overshoot
A
b. threshold
17
Q
What does a ligand-gated channel require in order to open?
a. increase in concentration of Na+ ions
b. binding of a neurotransmitter
c. increase in concentration of K+ ions
d. depolarization of the membrane
A
b. binding of a neurotransmitter
18
Q
What does a mechanically gated channel respond to?
a. physical stimulus
b. chemical stimulus
c. increase in resistance
d. decrease in resistance
A
a. physical stimulus
19
Q
Which of the following is probably going to propagate an action potential fastest?
a. a thin, unmyelinated axon
b. a thin, myelinated axon
c. a thick, unmyelinated axon
d. a thick, myelinated axon
A
d. a thick, myelinated axon
20
Q
Which of the following voltages would most likely be measured during the relative refractory period?
a. +30 mV
b. 0 mV
c. -45 mV
d. -80 mv
A
d. -80 mv
21
Q
How much of a change in the membrane potential is necessary for the summation of postsynaptic potentials to result in an action potential being generated?
a. +30 mV
b. +15 mV
c. +10 mV
d. -15 mV
A
b. +15 mv
22
Q
A channel opens on a postsynaptic membrane that causes a negative ion to enter the cell. What type of graded potential is this?
a. depolarizing
b. repolarizing
c. hyperpolarizing
d. non-polarizing
A
c. hyperpolarizing
23
Q
What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction?
a. norepinephrine
b. serotonin
c. dopamine
d. acetylcholine
A
d. acetylcholine
24
Q
What type of receptor requires an effector protein to initiate a signal?
a. biogenic amine
b. ionotropic receptor
c. cholinergic system
d. metabotropic receptor
A
d. metabotropic receptor
25
Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with inhibition exclusively?
a. GABA
b. acetylcholine
c. glutamate
d. norepinephrine
a. GABA
26
Aside from the nervous system, which other organ system develops out of the ectoderm?
a. digestive
b. respiratory
c. integumentary
d. urinary
c. integumentary
27
Which primary vesicle of the embryonic nervous system does not differentiate into more vesicles at the secondary stage?
a. prosencephalon
b. mesencephalon
c. diencephalon
d. rhombencephalon
b. mesencephalon
28
Which adult structure(s) arises from the diencephalon?
a. thalamus, hypothalamus, retina
b. midbrain, pons, medulla
c. pons and cerebellum
d. cerebrum
a. thalamus, hypothalamus, retina
29
Which non-nervous tissue develops from the neuroectoderm?
a. respiratory mucosa
b. vertebral bone
c. digestive lining
d. craniofacial bone
d. craniofacial bone
30
Which structure is associated with the embryologic development of the peripheral nervous system?
a. neural crest
b. neuraxis
c. rhombencephalon
d. neural tube
a. neural crest
31
Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for generating motor commands?
a. temporal
b. parietal
c. occipital
d. frontal
d. frontal
32
What region of the diencephalon coordinates homeostasis?
a. thalamus
b. epithalamus
c. hypothalamus
d. subthalamus
c. hypothalamus
33
What level of the brain stem is the major input to the cerebellum?
a. midbrain
b. pons
c. medulla
d. spinal cord
b. pons
34
What region of the spinal cord contains motor neurons that direct the movement of skeletal muscles?
a. anterior horn
b. posterior horn
c. lateral horn
d. alar plate
a. anterior horn
35
Brodmann’s areas map different regions of the ________ to particular functions.
a. cerebellum
b. cerebral cortex
c. basal forebrain
d. corpus callosum
b. cerebral cortex
36
What blood vessel enters the cranium to supply the brain with fresh, oxygenated blood?
a. common carotid artery
b. jugular vein
c. internal carotid artery
d. aorta
c. internal carotid artery
37
Which layer of the meninges surrounds and supports the sinuses that form the route through which blood drains from the CNS?
a. dura mater
b. arachnoid mater
c. subarachnoid
d. pia mater
a. dura mater
38
What type of glial cell is responsible for filtering blood to produce CSF at the choroid plexus?
a. ependymal cell
b. astrocyte
c. oligodendrocyte
d. Schwann cell
a. ependymal cell
39
Which portion of the ventricular system is found within the diencephalon?
a. lateral ventricles
b. third ventricle
c. cerebral aqueduct
d. fourth ventricle
b. third ventricle
40
What condition causes a stroke?
a. inflammation of meninges
b. lumbar puncture
c. infection of cerebral spinal fluid
d. disruption of blood to the brain
d. disruption of blood to the brain
41
What type of ganglion contains neurons that control homeostatic mechanisms of the body?
a. sensory ganglion
b. dorsal root ganglion
c. autonomic ganglion
d. cranial nerve ganglion
c. autonomic ganglion
42
Which ganglion is responsible for cutaneous sensations of the face?
a. otic ganglion
b. vestibular ganglion
c. geniculate ganglion
d. trigeminal ganglion
d. trigeminal ganglion
43
What is the name for a bundle of axons within a nerve?
a. fascicle
b. tract
c. nerve root
d. epineurium
a. fascicle
44
Which cranial nerve does not control functions in the head and neck?
a. olfactory
b. trochlear
c. glossopharyngeal
d. vagus
d. vagus
45
Which of these structures is not under direct control of the peripheral nervous system?
a. trigeminal ganglion
b. gastric plexus
c. sympathetic chain ganglia
d. cervical plexus
b. gastric plexus
46
What type of receptor cell is responsible for transducing pain stimuli?
a. mechanoreceptor
b. nociceptor
c. osmoreceptor
d. photoreceptor
b. nociceptor
47
Which of these cranial nerves is part of the gustatory system?
a. olfactory
b. trochlear
c. trigeminal
d. facial
d. facial
48
Which submodality of taste is sensitive to the pH of saliva?
a. umami
b. sour
c. bitter
d. sweet
b. sour
49
Which of these sensory modalities does not pass through the ventral posterior thalamus?
a. gustatory
b. proprioception
c. audition
d. nociception
c. audition
49
What type of receptor cell is involved in the sensations of sound and balance?
a. photoreceptor
b. chemoreceptor
c. mechanoreceptor
d. nociceptor
c. mechanoreceptor
49
Axons from which neuron in the retina make up the optic nerve?
a. amacrine cells
b. photoreceptors
c. bipolar cells
d. retinal ganglion cells
d. retinal ganglion cells
50
Which nucleus in the medulla is connected to the inferior colliculus?
a. solitary nucleus
b. vestibular nucleus
c. chief sensory nucleus
d. cochlear nucleus
d. cochlear nucleus
51
Visual stimuli in the upper-left visual field will be processed in what region of the primary visual cortex?
a. inferior right
b. inferior left
c. superior right
d. superior left
a. inferior right
52
Which location on the body has the largest region of somatosensory cortex representing it, according to the sensory homunculus?
a. lips
b. thigh
c. elbow
d. neck
a. lips
53
Which of the following is a direct target of the vestibular ganglion?
a. superior colliculus
b. cerebellum
c. thalamus
d. optic chiasm
b. cerebellum
54
Which region of the frontal lobe is responsible for initiating movement by directly connecting to cranial and spinal motor neurons?
a. prefrontal cortex
b. supplemental motor area
c. premotor cortex
d. primary motor cortex
d. primary motor cortex
55
Which extrapyramidal tract incorporates equilibrium sensations with motor commands to aid in posture and movement?
a. tectospinal tract
b. vestibulospinal tract
c. reticulospinal tract
d. corticospinal tract
b. vestibulospinal tract
56
Which region of gray matter in the spinal cord contains motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscles?
a. ventral horn
b. dorsal horn
c. lateral horn
d. lateral column
a. ventral horn
57
What type of reflex can protect the foot when a painful stimulus is sensed?
a. stretch reflex
b. gag reflex
c. withdrawal reflex
d. corneal reflex
c. withdrawal reflex
58
What is the name for the topographical representation of the sensory input to the somatosensory cortex?
a. homunculus
b. homo sapiens
c. postcentral gyrus
d. primary cortex
a. homunculus
59
Which of these physiological changes would not be considered part of the sympathetic fight-or-flight response?
a. increased heart rate
b. increased sweating
c. dilated pupils
d. increased stomach motility
d. increased stomach motility
60
Which type of fiber could be considered the longest?
a. preganglionic parasympathetic
b. preganglionic sympathetic
c. postganglionic parasympathetic
d. postganglionic sympathetic
a. preganglionic parasympathetic
61
Which signaling molecule is most likely responsible for an increase in digestive activity?
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. acetylcholine
d. adrenaline
c. acetylcholine
62
Which of these cranial nerves contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
a. optic, CN II
b. facial, CN VII
c. trigeminal, CN V
d. hypoglossal, CN XII
b. facial, CN VII
63
Which of the following is not a target of a sympathetic preganglionic fiber?
a. intermural ganglion
b. collateral ganglion
c. adrenal gland
d. chain ganglion
a. intermural ganglion
64
Which of the following represents a sensory input that is not part of both the somatic and autonomic systems?
a. vision
b. taste
c. baroreception
d. proprioception
c. baroreception
65
What is the term for a reflex that does not include a CNS component?
a. long reflex
b. visceral reflex
c. somatic reflex
d. short reflex
d. short reflex
66
What neurotransmitter will result in constriction of the pupil?
a. norepinephrine
b. acetylcholine
c. epinephrine
d. serotonin
b. acetylcholine
67
What gland produces a secretion that causes fight-or-flight responses in effectors?
a. adrenal medulla
b. salivatory gland
c. reproductive gland
d. thymus
a. adrenal medulla
68
Which of the following is an incorrect pairing?
a. norepinephrine dilates the pupil
b. epinephrine increases blood pressure
c. acetylcholine decreases digestion
d. norepinephrine increases heart rate
c. acetylcholine decreases digestion
69
Which of these locations in the forebrain is the master control center for homeostasis through the autonomic and endocrine systems?
a. hypothalamus
b. thalamus
c. amygdala
d. cerebral cortex
a. hypothalamus
70
Which nerve projects to the hypothalamus to indicate the level of light stimuli in the retina?
a. glossopharyngeal
b. oculomotor
c. optic
d. vagus
c. optic
71
What region of the limbic lobe is responsible for generating stress responses via the hypothalamus?
a. hippocampus
b. amygdala
c. mammillary bodies
d. prefrontal cortex
b. amygdala
72
What is another name for the preganglionic sympathetic fibers that project to the heart?
a. solitary tract
b. vasomotor nerve
c. vagus nerve
d. cardiac accelerator nerve
d. cardiac accelerator nerve
73
What central fiber tract connects forebrain and brain stem structures with the hypothalamus?
a. cardiac accelerator nerve
b. medial forebrain bundle
c. dorsal longitudinal fasciculus
d. corticospinal tract
b. medial forebrain bundle
74
A drug that affects both divisions of the autonomic system is going to bind to, or block, which type of neurotransmitter receptor?
a. nicotinic
b. muscarinic
c. α-adrenergic
d. β-adrenergic
a. nicotinic
75
A drug is called an agonist if it ________.
a. blocks a receptor
b. interferes with neurotransmitter reuptake
c. acts like the endogenous neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor
d. blocks the voltage-gated calcium ion channel
c. acts like the endogenous neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor
76
Which type of drug would be an antidote to atropine poisoning?
a. nicotinic agonist
b. anticholinergic
c. muscarinic agonist
d. α-blocker
c. muscarinic agonist
77
Which kind of drug would have anti-anxiety effects?
a. nicotinic agonist
b. anticholinergic
c. muscarinic agonist
d. α-blocker
d. α-blocker
78
Which type of drug could be used to treat asthma by opening airways wider?
a. sympatholytic drug
b. sympathomimetic drug
c. anticholinergic drug
d. parasympathomimetic drug
b. sympathomimetic drug
79
Endocrine glands ________.
a. secrete hormones that travel through a duct to the target organs
b. release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft
c. secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream
d. include sebaceous glands and sweat glands
c. secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream
80
Chemical signaling that affects neighboring cells is called ________.
a. autocrine
b. paracrine
c. endocrine
d. neuron
b. paracrine
81
A newly developed pesticide has been observed to bind to an intracellular hormone receptor. If ingested, residue from this pesticide could disrupt levels of ________.
a. melatonin
b. thyroid hormone
c. growth hormone
d. insulin
b. thyroid hormone
82
A student is in a car accident, and although not hurt, immediately experiences pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and rapid breathing. What type of endocrine system stimulus did the student receive?
a. humoral
b. hormonal
c. neural
d. positive feedback
c. neural
83
A small molecule binds to a G protein, preventing its activation. What direct effect will this have on signaling that involves cAMP?
a. The hormone will not be able to bind to the hormone receptor.
b. Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated.
c. Excessive quantities of cAMP will be produced.
d. The phosphorylation cascade will be initiated.
b. Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated.
84
The hypothalamus is functionally and anatomically connected to the posterior pituitary lobe by a bridge of ________.
a. blood vessels
b. nerve axons
c. cartilage
d. bone
b. nerve axons
85
How many hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 6
a. 0
86
Which of the following is an anterior pituitary hormone?
a. ADH
b. oxytocin
c. TSH
d. cortisol
c. TSH
87
Which of the following hormones contributes to the regulation of the body’s fluid and electrolyte balance?
a. adrenocorticotropic hormone
b. antidiuretic hormone
c. luteinizing hormone
d. all of the above
b. antidiuretic hormone
88
Which of the following statements about the thyroid gland is true?
a. It is located anterior to the trachea and inferior to the larynx.
b. The parathyroid glands are embedded within it.
c. It manufactures three hormones.
d. all of the above
d. all of the above
89
The secretion of thyroid hormones is controlled by ________.
a. TSH from the hypothalamus
b. TSH from the anterior pituitary
c. thyroxine from the anterior pituitary
d. thyroglobulin from the thyroid’s parafollicular cells
b. TSH from the anterior pituitary
90
The development of a goiter indicates that ________.
a. the anterior pituitary is abnormally enlarged
b. there is hypertrophy of the thyroid’s follicle cells
c. there is an excessive accumulation of colloid in the thyroid follicles
d. the anterior pituitary is secreting excessive growth hormone
c. there is an excessive accumulation of colloid in the thyroid follicles
91
Iodide ions cross from the bloodstream into follicle cells via ________.
a. simple diffusion
b. facilitated diffusion
c. active transport
d. osmosis
c. active transport
92
When blood calcium levels are low, PTH stimulates ________.
a. urinary excretion of calcium by the kidneys
b. a reduction in calcium absorption from the intestines
c. the activity of osteoblasts
d. the activity of osteoclasts
d. the activity of osteoclasts
93
Which of the following can result from hyperparathyroidism?
a. increased bone deposition
b. fractures
c. convulsions
d. all of the above
b. fractures
94
The adrenal glands are attached superiorly to which organ?
a. thyroid
b. liver
c. kidneys
d. hypothalamus
c. kidneys
95
Cushing’s disease is a disorder caused by ________.
a. abnormally low levels of cortisol
b. abnormally high levels of cortisol
c. abnormally low levels of aldosterone
d. abnormally high levels of aldosterone
b. abnormally high levels of cortisol
95
What secretory cell type is found in the adrenal medulla?
a. chromaffin cells
b. neuroglial cells
c. follicle cells
d. oxyphil cells
a. chromaffin cells
96
Which of the following responses s not part of the fight-or-flight response?
a. pupil dilation
b. increased oxygen supply to the lungs
c. suppressed digestion
d. reduced mental activity
d. reduced mental activity
97
What cells secrete melatonin?
a. melanocytes
b. pinealocytes
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus cells
d. retinal cells
b. pinealocytes
98
The production of melatonin is inhibited by ________.
a. declining levels of light
b. exposure to bright light
c. the secretion of serotonin
d. the activity of pinealocytes
b. exposure to bright light
99
The gonads produce what class of hormones?
a. amine hormones
b. peptide hormones
c. steroid hormones
d. catecholamines
c. steroid hormones
100
The production of FSH by the anterior pituitary is reduced by which hormone?
a. estrogens
b. progesterone
c. relaxin
d. inhibin
d. inhibin
101
The function of the placental hormone human placental lactogen (hPL) is to ________.
a. prepare the breasts for lactation
b. nourish the placenta
c. regulate the menstrual cycle
d. all of the above
a. prepare the breasts for lactation
102
If an autoimmune disorder targets the alpha cells, production of which hormone would be directly affected?
a. somatostatin
b. pancreatic polypeptide
c. insulin
d. glucagon
d. glucagon
103
Which of the following statements about insulin is true?
a. Insulin acts as a transport protein, carrying glucose across the cell membrane.
b. Insulin facilitates the movement of intracellular glucose transporters to the cell membrane.
c. Insulin stimulates the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose.
d. Insulin stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb glucose into the bloodstream.
b. Insulin facilitates the movement of intracellular glucose transporters to the cell membrane.
104
The walls of the atria produce which hormone?
a. cholecystokinin
b. atrial natriuretic peptide
c. renin
d. calcitriol
b. atrial natriuretic peptide
105
The end result of the RAAS is to ________.
a. reduce blood volume
b. increase blood glucose
c. reduce blood pressure
d. increase blood pressure
d. increase blood pressure
106
Athletes may take synthetic EPO to boost their ________.
a. blood calcium levels
b. secretion of growth hormone
c. blood oxygen levels
d. muscle mass
c. blood oxygen levels
107
Hormones produced by the thymus play a role in the ________.
a. development of T cells
b. preparation of the body for childbirth
c. regulation of appetite
d. release of hydrochloric acid in the stomach
a. development of T cells
108
The anterior pituitary gland develops from which embryonic germ layer?
a. oral ectoderm
b. neural ectoderm
c. mesoderm
d. endoderm
a. oral ectoderm
109
In the elderly, decreased thyroid function causes ________.
a. increased tolerance for cold
b. decreased basal metabolic rate
c. decreased body fat
d. osteoporosis
b. decreased basal metabolic rate
