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anatomy > anatomy final > Flashcards

anatomy final Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following cavities contains a component of the central nervous system?
a. abdominal
b. pelvic
c. cranial
d. thoracic

A

c. cranial

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2
Q

Which structure predominates in the white matter of the brain?
a. myelinated axons
b. neuronal cell bodies
c. ganglia of the parasympathetic nerves
d. bundles of dendrites from the enteric nervous system

A

a. myelinated axons

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3
Q

Which part of a neuron transmits an electrical signal to a target cell?
a. dendrites
b. soma
c. cell body
d. axon

A

d. axon

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4
Q

Which term describes a bundle of axons in the peripheral nervous system?
a. nucleus
b. ganglion
c. tract
d. nerve

A

d. nerve

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5
Q

Which functional division of the nervous system would be responsible for the physiological changes seen during exercise (e.g., increased heart rate and sweating)?
a. somatic
b. autonomic
c. enteric
d. central

A

b. autonomic

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6
Q

What type of glial cell provides myelin for the axons in a tract?
a. oligodendrocyte
b. astrocyte
c. Schwann cell
d. satellite cell

A

a. oligodendrocyte

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7
Q

Which part of a neuron contains the nucleus?
a. dendrite
b. soma
c. axon
d. synaptic end bulb

A

b. soma

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8
Q

Which of the following substances is least able to cross the blood-brain barrier?
a. water
b. sodium ions
c. glucose
d. white blood cells

A

d. white blood cells

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9
Q

What type of glial cell is the resident macrophage behind the blood-brain barrier?
a. microglia
b. astrocyte
c. Schwann cell
d. satellite cell

A

a. microglia

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10
Q

What two types of macromolecules are the main components of myelin?
a. carbohydrates and lipids
b. proteins and nucleic acids
c. lipids and proteins
d. carbohydrates and nucleic acids

A

c. lipids and proteins

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11
Q

If a thermoreceptor is sensitive to temperature sensations, what would a chemoreceptor be sensitive to?
a. light
b. sound
c. molecules
d. vibration

A

c. molecules

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12
Q

Which of these locations is where the greatest level of integration is taking place in the example of testing the temperature of the shower?
a. skeletal muscle
b. spinal cord
c. thalamus
d. cerebral cortex

A

d. cerebral cortex

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13
Q

How long does all the signaling through the sensory pathway, within the central nervous system, and through the motor command pathway take?
a. 1 to 2 minutes
b. 1 to 2 seconds
c. fraction of a second
d. varies with graded potential

A

c. fraction of a second

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14
Q

What is the target of an upper motor neuron?
a. cerebral cortex
b. lower motor neuron
c. skeletal muscle
d. thalamus

A

b. lower motor neuron

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15
Q

What ion enters a neuron causing depolarization of the cell membrane?
a. sodium
b. chloride
c. potassium
d. phosphate

A

a. sodium

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16
Q

Voltage-gated Na+ channels open upon reaching what state?
a. resting potential
b. threshold
c. repolarization
d. overshoot

A

b. threshold

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17
Q

What does a ligand-gated channel require in order to open?
a. increase in concentration of Na+ ions
b. binding of a neurotransmitter
c. increase in concentration of K+ ions
d. depolarization of the membrane

A

b. binding of a neurotransmitter

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18
Q

What does a mechanically gated channel respond to?
a. physical stimulus
b. chemical stimulus
c. increase in resistance
d. decrease in resistance

A

a. physical stimulus

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19
Q

Which of the following is probably going to propagate an action potential fastest?
a. a thin, unmyelinated axon
b. a thin, myelinated axon
c. a thick, unmyelinated axon
d. a thick, myelinated axon

A

d. a thick, myelinated axon

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20
Q

Which of the following voltages would most likely be measured during the relative refractory period?
a. +30 mV
b. 0 mV
c. -45 mV
d. -80 mv

A

d. -80 mv

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21
Q

How much of a change in the membrane potential is necessary for the summation of postsynaptic potentials to result in an action potential being generated?
a. +30 mV
b. +15 mV
c. +10 mV
d. -15 mV

A

b. +15 mv

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22
Q

A channel opens on a postsynaptic membrane that causes a negative ion to enter the cell. What type of graded potential is this?
a. depolarizing
b. repolarizing
c. hyperpolarizing
d. non-polarizing

A

c. hyperpolarizing

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23
Q

What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction?
a. norepinephrine
b. serotonin
c. dopamine
d. acetylcholine

A

d. acetylcholine

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24
Q

What type of receptor requires an effector protein to initiate a signal?
a. biogenic amine
b. ionotropic receptor
c. cholinergic system
d. metabotropic receptor

A

d. metabotropic receptor

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25
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with inhibition exclusively?
a. GABA
b. acetylcholine
c. glutamate
d. norepinephrine

A

a. GABA

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26
Q

Aside from the nervous system, which other organ system develops out of the ectoderm?
a. digestive
b. respiratory
c. integumentary
d. urinary

A

c. integumentary

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27
Q

Which primary vesicle of the embryonic nervous system does not differentiate into more vesicles at the secondary stage?
a. prosencephalon
b. mesencephalon
c. diencephalon
d. rhombencephalon

A

b. mesencephalon

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28
Q

Which adult structure(s) arises from the diencephalon?
a. thalamus, hypothalamus, retina
b. midbrain, pons, medulla
c. pons and cerebellum
d. cerebrum

A

a. thalamus, hypothalamus, retina

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29
Q

Which non-nervous tissue develops from the neuroectoderm?
a. respiratory mucosa
b. vertebral bone
c. digestive lining
d. craniofacial bone

A

d. craniofacial bone

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30
Q

Which structure is associated with the embryologic development of the peripheral nervous system?
a. neural crest
b. neuraxis
c. rhombencephalon
d. neural tube

A

a. neural crest

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31
Q

Which lobe of the cerebral cortex is responsible for generating motor commands?
a. temporal
b. parietal
c. occipital
d. frontal

A

d. frontal

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32
Q

What region of the diencephalon coordinates homeostasis?
a. thalamus
b. epithalamus
c. hypothalamus
d. subthalamus

A

c. hypothalamus

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33
Q

What level of the brain stem is the major input to the cerebellum?
a. midbrain
b. pons
c. medulla
d. spinal cord

A

b. pons

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34
Q

What region of the spinal cord contains motor neurons that direct the movement of skeletal muscles?
a. anterior horn
b. posterior horn
c. lateral horn
d. alar plate

A

a. anterior horn

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35
Q

Brodmann’s areas map different regions of the ________ to particular functions.
a. cerebellum
b. cerebral cortex
c. basal forebrain
d. corpus callosum

A

b. cerebral cortex

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36
Q

What blood vessel enters the cranium to supply the brain with fresh, oxygenated blood?
a. common carotid artery
b. jugular vein
c. internal carotid artery
d. aorta

A

c. internal carotid artery

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37
Q

Which layer of the meninges surrounds and supports the sinuses that form the route through which blood drains from the CNS?
a. dura mater
b. arachnoid mater
c. subarachnoid
d. pia mater

A

a. dura mater

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38
Q

What type of glial cell is responsible for filtering blood to produce CSF at the choroid plexus?
a. ependymal cell
b. astrocyte
c. oligodendrocyte
d. Schwann cell

A

a. ependymal cell

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39
Q

Which portion of the ventricular system is found within the diencephalon?
a. lateral ventricles
b. third ventricle
c. cerebral aqueduct
d. fourth ventricle

A

b. third ventricle

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40
Q

What condition causes a stroke?
a. inflammation of meninges
b. lumbar puncture
c. infection of cerebral spinal fluid
d. disruption of blood to the brain

A

d. disruption of blood to the brain

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41
Q

What type of ganglion contains neurons that control homeostatic mechanisms of the body?
a. sensory ganglion
b. dorsal root ganglion
c. autonomic ganglion
d. cranial nerve ganglion

A

c. autonomic ganglion

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42
Q

Which ganglion is responsible for cutaneous sensations of the face?
a. otic ganglion
b. vestibular ganglion
c. geniculate ganglion
d. trigeminal ganglion

A

d. trigeminal ganglion

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43
Q

What is the name for a bundle of axons within a nerve?
a. fascicle
b. tract
c. nerve root
d. epineurium

A

a. fascicle

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44
Q

Which cranial nerve does not control functions in the head and neck?
a. olfactory
b. trochlear
c. glossopharyngeal
d. vagus

A

d. vagus

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45
Q

Which of these structures is not under direct control of the peripheral nervous system?
a. trigeminal ganglion
b. gastric plexus
c. sympathetic chain ganglia
d. cervical plexus

A

b. gastric plexus

46
Q

What type of receptor cell is responsible for transducing pain stimuli?
a. mechanoreceptor
b. nociceptor
c. osmoreceptor
d. photoreceptor

A

b. nociceptor

47
Q

Which of these cranial nerves is part of the gustatory system?
a. olfactory
b. trochlear
c. trigeminal
d. facial

A

d. facial

48
Q

Which submodality of taste is sensitive to the pH of saliva?
a. umami
b. sour
c. bitter
d. sweet

A

b. sour

49
Q

Which of these sensory modalities does not pass through the ventral posterior thalamus?
a. gustatory
b. proprioception
c. audition
d. nociception

A

c. audition

49
Q

What type of receptor cell is involved in the sensations of sound and balance?
a. photoreceptor
b. chemoreceptor
c. mechanoreceptor
d. nociceptor

A

c. mechanoreceptor

49
Q

Axons from which neuron in the retina make up the optic nerve?
a. amacrine cells
b. photoreceptors
c. bipolar cells
d. retinal ganglion cells

A

d. retinal ganglion cells

50
Q

Which nucleus in the medulla is connected to the inferior colliculus?
a. solitary nucleus
b. vestibular nucleus
c. chief sensory nucleus
d. cochlear nucleus

A

d. cochlear nucleus

51
Q

Visual stimuli in the upper-left visual field will be processed in what region of the primary visual cortex?
a. inferior right
b. inferior left
c. superior right
d. superior left

A

a. inferior right

52
Q

Which location on the body has the largest region of somatosensory cortex representing it, according to the sensory homunculus?
a. lips
b. thigh
c. elbow
d. neck

A

a. lips

53
Q

Which of the following is a direct target of the vestibular ganglion?
a. superior colliculus
b. cerebellum
c. thalamus
d. optic chiasm

A

b. cerebellum

54
Q

Which region of the frontal lobe is responsible for initiating movement by directly connecting to cranial and spinal motor neurons?
a. prefrontal cortex
b. supplemental motor area
c. premotor cortex
d. primary motor cortex

A

d. primary motor cortex

55
Q

Which extrapyramidal tract incorporates equilibrium sensations with motor commands to aid in posture and movement?
a. tectospinal tract
b. vestibulospinal tract
c. reticulospinal tract
d. corticospinal tract

A

b. vestibulospinal tract

56
Q

Which region of gray matter in the spinal cord contains motor neurons that innervate skeletal muscles?
a. ventral horn
b. dorsal horn
c. lateral horn
d. lateral column

A

a. ventral horn

57
Q

What type of reflex can protect the foot when a painful stimulus is sensed?
a. stretch reflex
b. gag reflex
c. withdrawal reflex
d. corneal reflex

A

c. withdrawal reflex

58
Q

What is the name for the topographical representation of the sensory input to the somatosensory cortex?
a. homunculus
b. homo sapiens
c. postcentral gyrus
d. primary cortex

A

a. homunculus

59
Q

Which of these physiological changes would not be considered part of the sympathetic fight-or-flight response?
a. increased heart rate
b. increased sweating
c. dilated pupils
d. increased stomach motility

A

d. increased stomach motility

60
Q

Which type of fiber could be considered the longest?
a. preganglionic parasympathetic
b. preganglionic sympathetic
c. postganglionic parasympathetic
d. postganglionic sympathetic

A

a. preganglionic parasympathetic

61
Q

Which signaling molecule is most likely responsible for an increase in digestive activity?
a. epinephrine
b. norepinephrine
c. acetylcholine
d. adrenaline

A

c. acetylcholine

62
Q

Which of these cranial nerves contains preganglionic parasympathetic fibers?
a. optic, CN II
b. facial, CN VII
c. trigeminal, CN V
d. hypoglossal, CN XII

A

b. facial, CN VII

63
Q

Which of the following is not a target of a sympathetic preganglionic fiber?
a. intermural ganglion
b. collateral ganglion
c. adrenal gland
d. chain ganglion

A

a. intermural ganglion

64
Q

Which of the following represents a sensory input that is not part of both the somatic and autonomic systems?
a. vision
b. taste
c. baroreception
d. proprioception

A

c. baroreception

65
Q

What is the term for a reflex that does not include a CNS component?
a. long reflex
b. visceral reflex
c. somatic reflex
d. short reflex

A

d. short reflex

66
Q

What neurotransmitter will result in constriction of the pupil?
a. norepinephrine
b. acetylcholine
c. epinephrine
d. serotonin

A

b. acetylcholine

67
Q

What gland produces a secretion that causes fight-or-flight responses in effectors?
a. adrenal medulla
b. salivatory gland
c. reproductive gland
d. thymus

A

a. adrenal medulla

68
Q

Which of the following is an incorrect pairing?
a. norepinephrine dilates the pupil
b. epinephrine increases blood pressure
c. acetylcholine decreases digestion
d. norepinephrine increases heart rate

A

c. acetylcholine decreases digestion

69
Q

Which of these locations in the forebrain is the master control center for homeostasis through the autonomic and endocrine systems?
a. hypothalamus
b. thalamus
c. amygdala
d. cerebral cortex

A

a. hypothalamus

70
Q

Which nerve projects to the hypothalamus to indicate the level of light stimuli in the retina?
a. glossopharyngeal
b. oculomotor
c. optic
d. vagus

A

c. optic

71
Q

What region of the limbic lobe is responsible for generating stress responses via the hypothalamus?
a. hippocampus
b. amygdala
c. mammillary bodies
d. prefrontal cortex

A

b. amygdala

72
Q

What is another name for the preganglionic sympathetic fibers that project to the heart?
a. solitary tract
b. vasomotor nerve
c. vagus nerve
d. cardiac accelerator nerve

A

d. cardiac accelerator nerve

73
Q

What central fiber tract connects forebrain and brain stem structures with the hypothalamus?
a. cardiac accelerator nerve
b. medial forebrain bundle
c. dorsal longitudinal fasciculus
d. corticospinal tract

A

b. medial forebrain bundle

74
Q

A drug that affects both divisions of the autonomic system is going to bind to, or block, which type of neurotransmitter receptor?
a. nicotinic
b. muscarinic
c. α-adrenergic
d. β-adrenergic

A

a. nicotinic

75
Q

A drug is called an agonist if it ________.
a. blocks a receptor
b. interferes with neurotransmitter reuptake
c. acts like the endogenous neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor
d. blocks the voltage-gated calcium ion channel

A

c. acts like the endogenous neurotransmitter by binding to its receptor

76
Q

Which type of drug would be an antidote to atropine poisoning?
a. nicotinic agonist
b. anticholinergic
c. muscarinic agonist
d. α-blocker

A

c. muscarinic agonist

77
Q

Which kind of drug would have anti-anxiety effects?
a. nicotinic agonist
b. anticholinergic
c. muscarinic agonist
d. α-blocker

A

d. α-blocker

78
Q

Which type of drug could be used to treat asthma by opening airways wider?
a. sympatholytic drug
b. sympathomimetic drug
c. anticholinergic drug
d. parasympathomimetic drug

A

b. sympathomimetic drug

79
Q

Endocrine glands ________.
a. secrete hormones that travel through a duct to the target organs
b. release neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft
c. secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream
d. include sebaceous glands and sweat glands

A

c. secrete chemical messengers that travel in the bloodstream

80
Q

Chemical signaling that affects neighboring cells is called ________.
a. autocrine
b. paracrine
c. endocrine
d. neuron

A

b. paracrine

81
Q

A newly developed pesticide has been observed to bind to an intracellular hormone receptor. If ingested, residue from this pesticide could disrupt levels of ________.
a. melatonin
b. thyroid hormone
c. growth hormone
d. insulin

A

b. thyroid hormone

82
Q

A student is in a car accident, and although not hurt, immediately experiences pupil dilation, increased heart rate, and rapid breathing. What type of endocrine system stimulus did the student receive?
a. humoral
b. hormonal
c. neural
d. positive feedback

A

c. neural

83
Q

A small molecule binds to a G protein, preventing its activation. What direct effect will this have on signaling that involves cAMP?
a. The hormone will not be able to bind to the hormone receptor.
b. Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated.
c. Excessive quantities of cAMP will be produced.
d. The phosphorylation cascade will be initiated.

A

b. Adenylyl cyclase will not be activated.

84
Q

The hypothalamus is functionally and anatomically connected to the posterior pituitary lobe by a bridge of ________.
a. blood vessels
b. nerve axons
c. cartilage
d. bone

A

b. nerve axons

85
Q

How many hormones are produced by the posterior pituitary?
a. 0
b. 1
c. 2
d. 6

A

a. 0

86
Q

Which of the following is an anterior pituitary hormone?
a. ADH
b. oxytocin
c. TSH
d. cortisol

A

c. TSH

87
Q

Which of the following hormones contributes to the regulation of the body’s fluid and electrolyte balance?
a. adrenocorticotropic hormone
b. antidiuretic hormone
c. luteinizing hormone
d. all of the above

A

b. antidiuretic hormone

88
Q

Which of the following statements about the thyroid gland is true?
a. It is located anterior to the trachea and inferior to the larynx.
b. The parathyroid glands are embedded within it.
c. It manufactures three hormones.
d. all of the above

A

d. all of the above

89
Q

The secretion of thyroid hormones is controlled by ________.
a. TSH from the hypothalamus
b. TSH from the anterior pituitary
c. thyroxine from the anterior pituitary
d. thyroglobulin from the thyroid’s parafollicular cells

A

b. TSH from the anterior pituitary

90
Q

The development of a goiter indicates that ________.
a. the anterior pituitary is abnormally enlarged
b. there is hypertrophy of the thyroid’s follicle cells
c. there is an excessive accumulation of colloid in the thyroid follicles
d. the anterior pituitary is secreting excessive growth hormone

A

c. there is an excessive accumulation of colloid in the thyroid follicles

91
Q

Iodide ions cross from the bloodstream into follicle cells via ________.
a. simple diffusion
b. facilitated diffusion
c. active transport
d. osmosis

A

c. active transport

92
Q

When blood calcium levels are low, PTH stimulates ________.
a. urinary excretion of calcium by the kidneys
b. a reduction in calcium absorption from the intestines
c. the activity of osteoblasts
d. the activity of osteoclasts

A

d. the activity of osteoclasts

93
Q

Which of the following can result from hyperparathyroidism?
a. increased bone deposition
b. fractures
c. convulsions
d. all of the above

A

b. fractures

94
Q

The adrenal glands are attached superiorly to which organ?
a. thyroid
b. liver
c. kidneys
d. hypothalamus

A

c. kidneys

95
Q

Cushing’s disease is a disorder caused by ________.
a. abnormally low levels of cortisol
b. abnormally high levels of cortisol
c. abnormally low levels of aldosterone
d. abnormally high levels of aldosterone

A

b. abnormally high levels of cortisol

95
Q

What secretory cell type is found in the adrenal medulla?
a. chromaffin cells
b. neuroglial cells
c. follicle cells
d. oxyphil cells

A

a. chromaffin cells

96
Q

Which of the following responses s not part of the fight-or-flight response?
a. pupil dilation
b. increased oxygen supply to the lungs
c. suppressed digestion
d. reduced mental activity

A

d. reduced mental activity

97
Q

What cells secrete melatonin?
a. melanocytes
b. pinealocytes
c. suprachiasmatic nucleus cells
d. retinal cells

A

b. pinealocytes

98
Q

The production of melatonin is inhibited by ________.
a. declining levels of light
b. exposure to bright light
c. the secretion of serotonin
d. the activity of pinealocytes

A

b. exposure to bright light

99
Q

The gonads produce what class of hormones?
a. amine hormones
b. peptide hormones
c. steroid hormones
d. catecholamines

A

c. steroid hormones

100
Q

The production of FSH by the anterior pituitary is reduced by which hormone?
a. estrogens
b. progesterone
c. relaxin
d. inhibin

A

d. inhibin

101
Q

The function of the placental hormone human placental lactogen (hPL) is to ________.
a. prepare the breasts for lactation
b. nourish the placenta
c. regulate the menstrual cycle
d. all of the above

A

a. prepare the breasts for lactation

102
Q

If an autoimmune disorder targets the alpha cells, production of which hormone would be directly affected?
a. somatostatin
b. pancreatic polypeptide
c. insulin
d. glucagon

A

d. glucagon

103
Q

Which of the following statements about insulin is true?
a. Insulin acts as a transport protein, carrying glucose across the cell membrane.
b. Insulin facilitates the movement of intracellular glucose transporters to the cell membrane.
c. Insulin stimulates the breakdown of stored glycogen into glucose.
d. Insulin stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb glucose into the bloodstream.

A

b. Insulin facilitates the movement of intracellular glucose transporters to the cell membrane.

104
Q

The walls of the atria produce which hormone?
a. cholecystokinin
b. atrial natriuretic peptide
c. renin
d. calcitriol

A

b. atrial natriuretic peptide

105
Q

The end result of the RAAS is to ________.
a. reduce blood volume
b. increase blood glucose
c. reduce blood pressure
d. increase blood pressure

A

d. increase blood pressure

106
Q

Athletes may take synthetic EPO to boost their ________.
a. blood calcium levels
b. secretion of growth hormone
c. blood oxygen levels
d. muscle mass

A

c. blood oxygen levels

107
Q

Hormones produced by the thymus play a role in the ________.
a. development of T cells
b. preparation of the body for childbirth
c. regulation of appetite
d. release of hydrochloric acid in the stomach

A

a. development of T cells

108
Q

The anterior pituitary gland develops from which embryonic germ layer?
a. oral ectoderm
b. neural ectoderm
c. mesoderm
d. endoderm

A

a. oral ectoderm

109
Q

In the elderly, decreased thyroid function causes ________.
a. increased tolerance for cold
b. decreased basal metabolic rate
c. decreased body fat
d. osteoporosis

A

b. decreased basal metabolic rate

anatomy (15 decks)

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