Anatomy Path- OM Flashcards
(20 cards)
A 6-year-old child presents with a sudden onset of high fever, malaise, and intense throbbing pain in their right tibia. Physical examination reveals localized tenderness and swelling over the affected area. Laboratory tests show leukocytosis, elevated ESR, and elevated C-reactive protein. Based on the likely diagnosis of pyogenic osteomyelitis in this age group, where would the lesion most likely be located?
A) Epiphysis
B) Subchondral region
C) Metaphysis
D) Diaphysis
C) Metaphysis
A bone biopsy from a patient with chronic osteomyelitis reveals a shell of living tissue surrounding a segment of devitalized bone. According to the sources, what is this shell of living tissue called?
A) Sequestrum
B) Involucrum
C) Brodie abscess
D) Cloaca
B) Involucrum
When new bone formation is formed around the affected area of a devitalized bone
A 75-year-old patient with a history of a non-healing ulcer on their foot (likely related to gangrene) develops signs of bone infection in the adjacent tarsal bones. What is the most likely route of spread for this pyogenic osteomyelitis?
A) Hematogenous spread
B) Extension from a contiguous site
C) Direct implantation
D) Lymphatic spread
B) Extension from a contiguous site
A bone specimen is examined microscopically and shows immature, irregularly arranged collagen fibers. According to the sources, what type of bone is this most likely to be?
A) Lamellar bone
B) Woven bone
C) Mineralized bone
D) Osteoid
B) Woven bone
Woven bone — immature, irregular collagen
Lamellar bone — mature, regular collagen
A 35-year-old patient is diagnosed with pyogenic osteomyelitis. While many organisms can cause this condition, which bacterium is identified in the sources as the most common cause (80-90%)?
A) E.coli
B) Pseudomonas
C) Staphylococci
D) H. influenza
C) Staphylococci
Other less common bacteria:
E. Coli
Mix bacterial infection
H. Influenza
Samonella
Group B. Strep
Keil..
Psudemmas.
A 50-year-old male intravenous drug user, with a history of previous minor skin infections, develops acute back pain and fever. Imaging suggests an infectious process in a thoracic vertebra. Considering his history and the common etiologic agents listed, what type of osteomyelitis is most likely, and what is a potential route of spread?
A) Tuberculous osteomyelitis via direct extension
B) Pyogenic osteomyelitis via hematogenous spread
C) Tuberculous osteomyelitis via lymphatic spread
D) Pyogenic osteomyelitis via direct implantation
B) Pyogenic osteomyelitis via hematogenous spread
Spread of pyogenic OM includes:
Hematogeous spread - septic fold, infections
Extension from contagious sites — tooth - mouth, grenene foot..
Direction stimulation — surgery and fractures
What is TB OM spread?
A patient presents with chronic pyogenic osteomyelitis. Which of the following findings is characteristic of chronic pyogenic osteomyelitis according to the sources?
A) Acute systemic illness
B) Predominantly acute inflammatory cells
C) Absence of new bone formation
D) Presence of fibrosis and chronic inflammatory cells
D) Presence of fibrosis and chronic inflammatory cells
Chronic inflammatory cells, new bone growth, fibrosis, chronic lesions
A histological examination of a bone lesion reveals a granulomatous inflammation with caseous necrosis. Considering the information on specific types of osteomyelitis, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Pyogenic osteomyelitis
B) Brodie abscess
C) Tuberculous osteomyelitis
D) Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre
C) Tuberculous osteomyelitis
Other pathologies:
Caseois Necrosis, sinus formation, deformity and cold abscess.
A 15-year-old adolescent presents with low-grade fever, weight loss, and persistent pain in their spine. Imaging shows destruction involving multiple contiguous vertebrae and extending into the soft tissue. The presentation and imaging are highly suggestive of tuberculous osteomyelitis. According to the sources, tuberculous involvement of the spine is commonly known as what?
A) Brodie abscess
B) Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre
C) Cold abscess
D) Pott Disease
C) Cold abscess
TB OM enters the spine > vertebrae > more vertebrae > down to soft tissue to form cold abscess (psoas abscess)
A patient with a history of pulmonary tuberculosis develops pain and swelling in their hip joint. Imaging shows destruction spreading from the synovium to the adjacent epiphysis. This presentation is consistent with tuberculous osteomyelitis of a joint. According to the sources, what type of soft tissue collection might form in the soft tissues adjacent to an infected vertebra in Tuberculous Osteomyelitis of the spine (Pott Disease)?
A) Hot abscess
B) Septic abscess
C) Cold abscess
D) Subperiosteal abscess
C) Cold abscess
Site of TB OM:
Spine (lumbar and thoracic vertebrae)
In the pathogenesis of tuberculous osteomyelitis in a joint like the knee or hip, where does the infection tend to affect first, according to the sources?
A) The bone marrow
B) The epiphysis
C) The synovium
D) The cartilage
C) The synovium
A patient diagnosed with pyogenic osteomyelitis undergoes imaging, which shows a localized collection of pus within the bone tissue. The sources mention specific morphologic variants. Which variant is described as a small, solitary, intraosseous abscess localized to the metaphysis, typically presenting as subacute pyogenic osteomyelitis?
A) Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre
B) Brodie abscess
C) Sequestrum
D) Involucrum
B) Brodie abscess
Note:
Sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre — typical seen in the jaw.
Bone is described in the sources as a type of connective tissue. It contains both inorganic and organic components. Which of the following is listed as the primary organic component?
A) Calcium
B) Bone cells, protein
C) Minerals
D) Hydroxyapatite
B) Bone cells, protein
Inorganic - Calcium
Osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into various cell types responsible for bone formation and nutrition. According to the sources, osteoprogenitor cells differentiate into osteocytes, which are responsible for what function?
A) Mineralization
B) Remodelling
C) Nutrition
D) Collagen production
C) Nutrition
Osteoblast - Mineralization
A common complication listed for both pyogenic and tuberculous osteomyelitis is the development of a malignancy in a draining sinus tract. What type of carcinoma is mentioned in the sources as potentially developing in this context?
A) Basal cell carcinoma
B) Adenocarcinoma
C) Melanoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
What term is used in the sources for the dead bone in infected sites that undergoes early necrosis in the course of pyogenic osteomyelitis?
A) Involucrum
B) Brodie abscess
C) Sequestrum
D) Cloaca
C) Sequestrum
A patient presents with symptoms suggestive of tuberculous osteomyelitis. Which of the following laboratory findings is noted in the sources as being typically high (>100 mm) in tuberculous osteomyelitis?
A) Leukocytosis
B) C-reactive protein (CRP)
C) ESR
D) Serum calcium
C) ESR
According to the sources, tuberculous osteomyelitis tends to differ from pyogenic osteomyelitis in terms of its destructive potential and resistance to control. How is the onset of tuberculous osteomyelitis typically described?
A) Acute and rapid
B) Fulminant
C) Insidious
D) Painless
C) Insidious
In the bone remodelling process described in the sources, which cell type, derived from the monocyte-macrophage system, is responsible for bone remodelling?
A) Osteoprogenitor cells
B) Osteoblasts
C) Osteocytes
D) Osteoclasts
D) Osteoclasts
List the common sites of OM in neonates, adolescents and adults.
Neonates — epiphysis/ metaphysis
Child — epiphysis and metaphysis
Adults — epiphysis w/ subchondral region
