Animal care and nursing Flashcards
(254 cards)
1
Q
How long does estrus in the dog typically last?
A
4-13 days (average of 9 days). The entire estrous cycle in the dog is approximately 6 months
2
Q
Which organ is responsible for producing insulin?
A
The pancreas
3
Q
What is cholestasis? (Not what you think!) 🫠
A
Poor flow of the bile from the liver to the GI tract
4
Q
What is the most commonly used location for IVCs in horses?
A
Jugular veins
5
Q
What are some things to remember when restraining birds?
A
Never come from behind, and prevent restriction of the chest so that the bird can breathe properly.
6
Q
Rostral indicates which direction?
A
Towards the nose
7
Q
Which organism causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis (EPM) in the horse?
A
Sarcocystis neurona, which causes clinical signs like ataxia and muscle atrophy
8
Q
What is a cloven hoof?
A
A hoof split into two toes (cattle, sheep, goats, deer, and pigs)
9
Q
What term is used to describe an enlarged thyroid gland?
A
Goiter
10
Q
Which vaccine can a pregnant dog receive?
A
Rabies
11
Q
What do you call a newborn mouse?
A
A pup or a pinkie. (Blind/deaf/hairless)
12
Q
What are newborn rabbits and ferrets called?
A
Kits (Blind/deaf/hairless)
13
Q
What are newborn guinea pigs called?
A
Pups. And are also “precocious” when born, which means their eyes are open and they are aware and can see/hear/and walk from birth
14
Q
Which essential amino acid is a requirement in the feline diet?
A
Taurine, which is critical for normal heart muscle function, vision, and reproduction in cats.
15
Q
Why is spaying recommended in ferrets?
A
Due to the risk of bone marrow toxicity from the high levels of circulating estrogen during prolonged heat cycles
16
Q
Between __-__ weeks, puppies experience a fear period. Because of this, painful and traumatic situations should be avoided.
A
8-10 weeks
17
Q
What does vitamin E deficiency cause in pigs?
A
Mulberry heart disease. Vitamin E deficiency can cause sudden death and difficulty breathing due to fluid accumulation around the muscles, including the heart.
18
Q
Which part of the anatomy are harderian glands associated with?
A
Eyes. The harderian gland is an accessory lacrimal gland on the inner side of the orbit in reptiles and birds.
19
Q
Ceruminous glands are associated with what body part?
A
The ears
20
Q
The “hock joint” of a horse is identified as what structure?
A
The tarsocrural joint
21
Q
What is the best time of day to collect the best urine sample?
A
The morning, since it is likely the most concentrated
22
Q
What is the average gestation length of a horse?
A
Approximately 340 days. (average is about 11 months)
23
Q
What is the average gestation length of a cow?
A
About 285 days (about 9 months)
24
Q
What is the average gestation length of dogs and cats?
A
63 days
25
The movement of fluid from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration across a semi-permeable membrane is called what?
Osmosis
26
Low vitamin C in hamsters can lead to what?
Scurvy. Symptoms include loss of fur, lethargy, squealing, weight loss, and weakness.
27
What is an oNYchectomy?
the medical term for declawing, or removing the third phalanx of each toe.
28
What is a caudectomy?
A tail amputation (think caudal)
29
What is the proper medical term for a neuter?
An oRchiectomy
30
Ringworm is the common name for what type of organism?
Dermatophytes. Ringworm is the common name for the cutaneous fungi called dermatophytes.
This group of fungi includes Microsporum canis, Microsporum gypseum, and trichophyton mentagrophytes.
31
In a fetus, blood is shunted from the pulmonary artery to the aorta via what structure?
The Ductus arteriosus. The ductus arteriosus is the shunt connecting the pulmonary artery to the aortic arch. In this way, the blood bypasses the lungs, or pulmonary circulation in utero.
PDA (patient ductus arteriosus) is when this opening persists after birth and arterial blood is re-circulated through the lungs, which is abnormal.
32
What is the function of the foramen ovale?
To allow blood to enter the left atrium from the right atrium.
33
What is the foramen magnum?
The large opening in the occipital bone at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes.
34
Gout is an accumulation of what?
Uric acid. Usually due to poor nitrogen metabolism and excretion.
35
What can cause glucosuria in a cat?
Diabetes and excitement (also stress and fear). If these levels exceed the renal threshold, glucose can be found in the urine.
36
Where do sperm mature?
The epididymis. This is the tube attached to the backside of the testes. It is found within the scrotum and is a coiled segment of the spermatic ducts in which sperm mature.
37
What is another term for fallopian tubes?
oviducts. The egg passes from the ovary into the uterus via the oviduct.
38
What is the function of the prostate?
To store and secrete a portion of the seminal fluid.
39
What is a general term for giving birth that can be applied to all species?
Parturition = the act of giving birth
40
What is the term used for giving birth in cats?
Queening
41
What is the medical term for roundworms?
Toxocara canis, which is commonly passed to puppies via the transplacental route
42
Which type of mite can be found on dogs that is not contagious?
Demodex. Demodex is a normal inhabitant of the skin and causes disease only when there is either a genetic predisposition or systemic disease that allows demodex to develop into the disease, therefore it is not contagious.
43
How do you test for tuberculosis in cattle?
A small amount of tuberculin is injected into a caudal fold at the base of the tail in cattle. If positive, a diffuse swelling will appear at the site within 48-96 hrs.
44
How do you restrain a foal?
Cradle one hand under the neck and grasp the base of the tail with the other hand. It is best to keep the foal with the mother, as they are unpredictable.
45
What is the long annoying name for the parasite that causes heartworm?
Dirofilaria immitis
46
For parasites, the ____ host harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite
The definitive host
47
The intermediate host harbors what?
The intermediate host harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite.
48
What is a paratenic host? (also known as a transport host)
A type of intermediate host where a parasite does not undergo development into the next stage
49
What is a transtracheal wash?
A transtracheal wash is used when a culture of the lower respiratory tract is needed. (typically done under GA for small dogs and cats). It is a method for collecting bronchial exudate for culture and cytology by inserting a catheter into the trachea in the ventral neck region between two tracheal rings
50
On average, cows have their estrous cycle how often?
Every 21 days. Cows are non-seasonal polyestrous (have estrous cycles year-round)
51
What is the term given to the initial milk produced by a female after giving birth?
Colostrum. This contains a large amount of antibodies which provide newborns with immediate immunity.
52
For food related allergies manifesting as an allergic skin disease, a food trial should last at least ___ months.
3
53
For possible food allergy manifesting as inflammatory bowel disease, the trial should last at least ___ ____.
3 weeks
54
What is the proper way to restrain a rat for a routine procedure?
Using 2 hands, 1 around the thorax and under the front legs, and one hand grasping the base of the tail
55
The elbow is extended by which muscle?
Triceps brachium
56
Which muscle supinates the forelimb and flexes the elbow?
The bicep
57
In the name Clostridium perfringens, Clostridium is the:
Genus. Clostridium is the genus and perfringens is the species. The genus name is always capitalized.
58
Tularemia would most likely be carried by which animal?
A rabbit. Tularemia is caused by the bacteria Francisella and is known as rabbit fever. It is also zoonotic and can be transmitted through a cut or scratch when handling an infected animal. It leads to a skin ulcer and then swollen glands, fever, headache, and rash.
It can also be transmitted to humans via tick bites or deerflies.
59
The term pediculosis indicates a problem with what?
Lice. Pediculosis refers to infestation with lice. It does not differentiate between biting and sucking lice.
60
What is myiasis?
A term for the infestation with fly larvae
61
What is the proper location for a hog snare?
Around the maxilla, over the snout.
62
What is a male ferret referred to?
A hob
63
A female ferret is referred to as what?
A Jill
64
What are spayed and neutered ferrets called?
A neutered male is called a gib, and a spayed female is called a sprite
65
Habronema spp. and Draschia spp. are _____ of the horse that can cause summer sores.
Stomach worms. The larvae in poop are ingested by the maggots of flies, and the flies can deposit them at susceptible moist skin areas, damaged skin areas, or mucous membranes where the larvae cause an eosinophilic granuloma as a reaction to their migration.
66
Erythropoetin (EPO) is a glycoprotein hormone produced mainly by what organ?
The kidney.
This is partly why animals with chronic renal failure become anemic-the kidneys are no longer able to make EPO efficiently.
67
What is a ranula?
A sublingual mucocele. (collected mucin from a ruptured salivary gland duct, found under the tongue)
68
What is the most sensitive and preferred test for detecting giardia?
ELISA, this detects giardia in over 95% of cases
69
Addisons disease is known as hyp(er/o)adrenocorticism
Hypoadrenocorticism
70
HypERadrenocorticism is known as what?
Cushings disease
71
What is a PEG tube?
A feeding tube that goes into the stomach
72
How long does it take for SQF to be absorbed?
5-8 hours, or longer in severely dehydrated or hypothermic patients due to decreased blood flow
73
For a fine needle aspiration, how do you prepare the site?
Only an alcohol wipe is fine
74
What are the 6 categories of nutrients?
Proteins, fats, vitamins, carbohydrates, water, and minerals
75
When do guinea pigs pelvic bones fuse?
Between 4-6 months of age.
76
What is a hamsters gestation period?
15-22 days. Hamsters have the shortest gestation period of any rodent.
77
What is ctenocephalides felis?
A cat flea, found on cats and dogs.
78
What is dirofilaria immitis?
Heartworm
79
What is toxocara canis?
Dog round worm
80
What is toxascaris leonia?
Roundworm
81
What should you do to care for a horse with tetanus?
Keep in a dark stable with extra padding. Horses with tetanus are light sensitive and hyperaesthetic.
82
What are the three layers of the meninges in the brain?
Pia mater, arachnoid, and dura mater. The meninges cover the brain and spinal cord, and this are found in the CNS.
83
An individual's attempt to discover what they believe to be the correct moral standard and norms for professional behavior is known as what kind of ethics?
Normative ethics
84
What are ruminants also known as?
Herbivores
85
What is the proper name for burping? ie ruminants frequently belch or burp to release gas from the forestomach. What is this process known as?
Eructation
86
What is the disease Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy known as? (BSE)
Mad Cow Disease. (Spongiform=causes a spongy degeneration in the brain and spinal cord and is fatal
87
What is Polioencephalomalacia?
A CNS condition that is a result of thiamine deficiency.
88
What is Black Leg in cattle caused by?
Clostridium chauvoei, and is an acute febrile disease causing emphysematous swelling in the heavy muscles.
89
What is hardware disease?
A common term for bovine traumatic reticulopericarditis. Caused when a cow swallows a sharp, heavy metal object that falls to the floor of the rumen and is pushed forward into the reticulum where it can penetrate the pericardium.
90
What does the hormone Prolactin stimulate?
Lactation
91
Luteinizing hormone (LH) stimulates what?
Ovulation
92
Antidiuretic hormone results in what?
Water re-absorption when released.
93
Which zoonotic intestinal parasite is not considered zoonotic to humans?
Coccidia. Coccidia are host specific. Cytoisospora (coccidia found in dogs and cats) is not infective to humans.
94
Which is another term for the type of parasite known as fluke?
a Trematode, or a leaf shaped flatworm with unsegmented bodies.
95
What is a comedone?
A blackhead. These are fairly common in dogs with seborrhea (excess production of sebum), endocrinopathies, and demodex.
96
What is a chelonian?
a turtle, or tortoise. These animals come from the order Chelonia.
97
What does isosthenuria indicate?
Urine that has the same specific gravity (or concentration) as the plasma
98
What does spec grav measure?
The concentration of a fluid as compared to water
99
Where does the flea larva pupate and form into the adult flea?
In the environment (off the host). The eggs are smooth and can fall off the host. The pupa develops over 10 days and can stay in the environment longer.
100
What is a tension pneumothorax?
When air accumulates under pressure in the pleural space (around the lungs), air builds up in the pleural space and can't escape.
101
Which two conditions must RMW or biohazardous waste meet?
1, waste must be generated as a result of the diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of animals, and 2, it must be either a sharp or biohazardous waste.
102
How long is canine sperm viable for?
Canine sperm can live or be able to fertilize an ovum for about 7 days
103
Snakes have the same organs as mammals except they lack which organ?
A bladder. Snakes have a cloaca which the ureters empty into.
104
Define Metritis
inflammation of the lining of the uterus (the endometrium)
105
Define cheyletiella
known as "walking dandruff", an 8 legged mite that can live on the skin of rabbits, dogs, cats, and humans. They live in the keratin layer and have a 21 day life cycle. They cannot live for more than 10 days off of the host.
106
What is OSHA?
Occupational safety and health administration - the main federal agency charged with the enforcement of safety and health legislation.
107
What is the average gestation length of a horse?
Approximately 340 days, although the average is 11 months, it can vary by as much as 30 days
108
Cows have an average gestation length of ___ days.
285, or 9 months
109
The average gestation period for dogs and cats is ___ days.
63 days
110
Dipylidium caninum is the scientific name for which parasite?
Tapeworm
111
What is the intermediate host for dipylidium caninum (tapeworm)
Ctenocephalides felis (the flea).
Dogs will groom and ingest the flea carrying the tapeworm, this is important because diagnosis of tapeworm may be a sign that flea control is needed.
112
Normal UOP for a dog is ___-___ ml/kg/hr
1-2ml/kg/hr
113
114
how many inches is a hand equivalent to?
4 inches
115
What does "idiopathic" imply?
Unknown cause
116
Nosocomial means what?
acquired in hospital
117
What are the most common symptoms of equine strangles?
Mucopurulent nasal discharge, fever, decreased appetite, cough, and abscessed lymph nodes that often rupture and drain.
These horses should be isolated for 6-8 weeks because of the contagious nature.
118
What bacteria causes equine strangles?
Strep equi
119
What does moraxella bovis cause in cattle?
Pinkeye
120
EHV-1 in horses causes what?
Abortion
121
Which disease causes severe life threatening bradycardia?
Addison's disease. This can cause a high potassium level which can be deadly. Addison's occurs when the adrenal glands don't produce enough cortisol.
122
How many lumbar do dogs and cats have?
7
123
How many lumbar do horses and cows have?
6
124
What is the fluid in the anterior chamber of the eye called?
Aqueous humor
125
The vitreous humor is the filling in the area between the ___ and the ___. (of the eye)
Lens and the retina
126
Most parvo-distemper vaccines are of which type?
Modified live virus
127
Rabies vaccine is what type of vaccine?
Killed
128
The injectable form of Bordetella is what type of vaccine?
cellular antigen extract vaccine
129
What is entropion?
A condition where the eyelid edges roll inward rubbing onto the eye causing the eyelashes to rub on the cornea. It is painful and is treated surgically.
130
Ancylostoma spp. Ancylostoma caninum is known as what parasite?
Dog hookworm. It can infect humans by penetrating the skin and causing dermatitis via cutaneous migration of the parasite (i.e by walking barefoot)
131
Which vitamins are fat soluble?
Vitamins A, D, E, and K
132
Which vitamins are water soluble?
Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) and the B complex vitamins
133
myiasis refers to an infestation with larvae of what?
Flies (diptera)
134
Pediculosis is the term for infestation with what?
Lice
135
Gram-negative bacteria release ______ (which are found in their cell wall) when they die.
Endotoxins
136
Atrophy means to ___ in size, while Hypertrophy is to ___ in size.
Decrease, enlarge
137
What species, if overworked, is most at risk for hyperthermia?
Sheep, because of their thick coat. Also pigs because of their excess body fat.
138
What is the proper location for a hog snare?
Around the maxilla, over the snout. This is to gain control of the whole pig.
139
Horses with laminitis should be fed which type of diet?
Mostly grass hay, because a potential cause for laminitis can be an overload of grains.
140
Trichomoniasis causes what condition in cattle?
Abortions. Trichomonas fetus (trichomoniasis) is a venereal disease of cattle that causes infertility and abortions. It is a protozoan found only in the reproductive tract of the bull and the cow.
141
Purkinje fibers are found in which organ?
The heart. Purkinje fivers are conductive fibers within ventricular walls. They relay cardiac impulses to ventricular cells, which allow contraction.
142
Where would you find Anaplasma marginale?
In the RBC (erythrocytes) of cattle. Anaplasma marginale is the most prevalent tick-borne pathogen in livestock. This is a rickettsial disease and the organisms are found in the red blood cells of the cattle.
143
Chronic use of corticosteroids, obesity, and or pancreatitis can cause what?
Insulin resistance and type II diabetes.
144
Which animal is the definitive host for the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis/myeloencephalitis?
The opossum. The opossum is the definitive host for Sarcocystis, the causative agent of equine protozoal myelitis.
145
The greyhound is an example of which type of breed?
Dolichocephalic, meaning a breed with a long narrow head, nose and cranium are parallel and are divided at eye level, where the cranium descends to nose level.
146
An example of a mesaticephalic dog breed would be what?
a lab
147
What breed type has an abnormally short lower jab (mandibular) or and abnormally short upper jaw (maxillary)?
A brachygnathic
148
What does SOAP sand for? (For interns to SOAP their patients daily)
Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
S: history, O: physical exam and other info, A: problem list/rule outs, P: next steps in the evaluation/plan
149
Microsporum canis is what?
The most common cause of ringworm. This is a zoonotic fungal disease.
150
How is FIV transmitted?
Close contact between cats
151
What is the term commonly used to describe diarrhea in calves?
Scours. It can be a serious health problem in calves!
152
How many blood types do dogs have?
13
153
What is the common term for Psittacosis (Ornithosis)?
Parrot fever or Chlamydiosis. (Treated with doxycycline). It is highly contageous and zoonotic.
154
What is the term given to the initial milk produced by a female after giving birth?
Colostrum. It is called this because it contains a large amount of antibodies which provide the newborn with immediate immunity. Colostrum plays a very important role depending on the species, for instance, it is more important for calves to receive colostrum, but not as much for dogs and cats.
155
Which cranial nerve is known for three major branches?
CN V (5). This is the Trigeminal nerve and has three major branches. 1: Opthalmic nerve, 2: Maxillary nerve, 3: Mandibular nerve (largest branch)
156
What is a cloven hoof?
A hoof split into two toes. (cattle, sheep, goats, deer, and pigs)
157
Horses gestation period lasts how long?
About 340 days, the average being 11 months. (Longer than cows!!!)
158
Coprophagy is the term to describe an animal that is doing what?
Eating feces, their own or that of others. This is normal for rabbits and many rodents.
159
Lufenuron, Fipronil, Selamectin, and Imidacloprid are all used in treatment of what?
Fleas.
160
What does MRSA stand for?
Methicillin-resistant staphylococcus aureus
161
Where is the thyroid gland located?
The ventral neck
162
WHat equine GI parasite when deposited at an abnormal site on the skin or mucous membranes is responsible for causing the eosinophilic granulomas known as summer sores?
Habronema spp.
163
How do you estimate a horse's weight?
Use a weight measuring tape. The tape is wrapped around the barrel of the horse just caudal to the withers.
164
Giardia is what type of parasite?
Protozoan. Protozoa are unicellular organisms.
165
Orf is the cause of contagious ecthyma primarily in which species?
Ovine (sheep) and goats may contract Ord, or "soremouth", which is zoonotic and caused by a parapox virus. Symptoms include papules or pustules on the lips and muzzle that my crust and bleed.
166
What are nosocomial bacterial infections?
Infections that are acquired in the hospital.
167
What is a symptom of myasthenia gravis?
Weakness and muscle fatigue.
168
Capnography is a measure of what?
The amount of carbon dioxide in respiratory gases.
169
When do mares go into their ovulatory season? (in the northern hemisphere)
April-August
170
What causes dysecdysis in captive animals? (reptiles)
Improper humidity. Reptiles kept in improper humidity range will often have difficulties with normal ecdysis (or molting).
171
What happens if reptiles in captivity are exposed to excessive dietary phosphorus supplementation?
This may sometimes cause excessive bone formation or renal mineralization.
172
What organism is verminous arteritis associated with in the horse?
Strongylus vulgaris. A large strongyle that causes arteritis and thrombosis of the vessels of the GI tract in the horse and eventually can result in segmental ischemia or infraction of the bowel wall. (Resulting in signs of colic in the horse.)
173
Which parasite has the feline as its only definitive host? (meaning it sexually multiplies and completes it's life cycle)
Toxoplasmsa gondii. The definitive host is the cat, but the parasite can be carried by many warm blooded animals.
174
An opaque protein deposit within the lens of the eye is called what?
A cataract
175
Determination of adequate passive transfer f maternal antibodies (IgG) to a neonatal foal is typically performed at what age?
18-24 hrs. The foals gut "closes" or loses its ability to absorb colostral antibodies around 18 hrs of age.
176
Which species in unable to vomit?
Horses. They possess a valve at the entrance of the stomach called the cardias or "swiss tie" that are too strong to let food return to the mouth.
177
How do you treat hypERthyroidism?
Methimazole and radioactive iodine (or I-131
178
Levothyroxine is used to treat what?
HypOthyroidism (thyroid level is too low)
179
What method is used to determine the sex of young mice?
Measuring the distance between the anus and genitalia. The distance is greater in males than in females at all stages.
180
How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?
12
181
Erythema refers to what characteristic of skin?
Redness of the skin, usually caused by hyperemia, or increased blood flow to the affected area
182
Itchy skin is described as ____.
Pruritic
183
_______ is a descriptor for thickened skin.
Lichenification
184
Buphthalmos means what?
Enlargement of the globe or eye itself.
185
Mydriasis is a term that means what?
The dilation of both pupils. Muosis is the constriction of both pupils.
186
Alfalfa, beet pulp, and clover (legumes) contains which nutrient source for large animals?
Calcium.
187
In horses, the vomeronasal organ is closely associated with what sense?
Smell.
188
The metacarpophalangeal joint on a horse refers to what structure?
The fetlock joint
189
What is the life expectancy for a chinchilla?
10-15 years
190
Ferrets and sugar gliders have a relatively long life expectancy of __-__ years.
8-10
191
list the life expectancy of: rabbits (x-x), rats (x), guinea pigs (x-x), and hamsters (x-x)
rabbits 5-8, rats 3, guinea pigs 4-7, hamsters 1.5-2
192
Snuffles is known as what?
Pasteurella infection. This is caused by Pasteurella multocida and results in a URI and sometimes conjunctivitis in rabbits. It's highly contagious and treated with antibiotics.
193
Fermentation is a microbial process that uses enzymes to decompose food so that it may be utilized by the animal. Which species is this process most utilized in the hindgut during digestion?
Horses. They are hindgut (large intestinal) fermenters.
194
Ruminants such as sheep and cows are herbivores that ferment in their ____.
Foregut.
195
What is rumenal acidosis?
Decreased pH in cattle
196
What is a high concentrate diet in cattle?
Low fiber, high energy feeds
197
A diet high in concentrates may cause what in cattle?
Rumenal acidosis. When the microbes ferment the starches in the grains too quickly, the pH will drop below 5.5 and cause severe damage to the papillae, or rumenal tongue.
198
Venous return can be compromised after how many hours of a bandage being left on?
4 hours
199
What is the scientific name for the spinous ear tick?
Otobius Megnini. These are most commonly seen in southwestern states, most commonly seen in horses and livestock. They can spread rickettsial disease and other infectious disease such as Q-fever and tularemia.
200
Otodectes cynotis is also known as what parasite?
The ear mite of dogs and cats
201
The proper term for equine pinworm is what?
Oxyuris
202
Dirofilaria immitis is heartworm and falls under which category of parasite?
Nematode ( a type of roundworm)
203
Trematodes are flukes and require a ____ as an intermediate host
Snail
204
Cestodes are tapeworms. Dipylidium, a type of tapeworm, requires a ____ as an intermediate host
A flea
205
When conducting a food trial for possible food allergy manifesting as allergic skin disease, how long should the trial last (minimally)?
3 months
206
On average, cows have their estrous cycle how often?
Every 21 days is the average. (18-21 days) They are non seasonal, which means they have their estrous cycle year round.
207
Toxocara canis (roundworm) has what kind of life cycle?
A direct life cycle, meaning the immature parasite can infect the same host from which it came.
208
What stage of the estrus cycle is a female dog in that has some vaginal bleeding, swollen vulva, and attracts males but wont let them mount?
Proestrus
209
Which organ is responsible for producing most of the digestive enzymes used to breakdown food?
The pancreas. The pancreas produces enzymes such as trypsin, lipase, and amylase to breakdown food.
210
What is the meaning of the term multiparous?
Has more than one offspring at birth. It can also mean having had multiple pregnancies resulting in offspring in some situations. (pigs, cats, dogs)
211
Cervical lymphadenitis is a swelling or abscess of the cervical lymph nodes in a guinea pig's neck that is most often caused by what organism?
Streptococcus zooepidemicus
212
A male rabbit is also referred to as a ____.
Buck, a female rabbit is a Doe. (literally just like deer.)
213
What is volume that a stomach of a kitten or puppy can hold on average?
Only 9ml/kg, otherwise they can gurg and are increased risk of aspiration
214
What does it mean to be an induced ovulator?
This means that the animal does not ovulate until the act of breeding occurs. Cats and ferrets are the most common induced ovulators. Camels and Llamas are also induced ovulators.
215
What is the term defined by lack or loss of hair/baldness?
Alopecia
216
Hypertrichosis is defined as:
Excessive hair
217
Pruritis is defined as:
being itchy
218
Is Coccidia zoonotic to humans?
Nope, but Toxocara, Giardia, and Ancylostoma are
219
What species offspring is labeled "precocious"?
Guinea Pig, meaning their eyes open fully, they are fully furred and able to walk. The opposite is "altricial", meaning they're
helpless.
220
When handling a horse, the holder and the person working on the horse should be standing on the same or opposite side?
Same side.
221
What is the max volume that can be injected IM in the large muscles of an average adult horse?
15 mLs, anything over should be divided into more than 1 site.
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Johne's disease is an intestinal infection that can lead to clinical signs of diarrhea and weight loss. It affects cattle, sheep, goats, and other species. What Genus causes this?
Mycobacterium avium subsp. partuberculosis
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What at the guttural pouches in horses?
Blind pouches located in the pharynx of the horse. The function of these pouches is unknown but numerous vital cranial nerves and blood vessels course through these structures.
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How many mammary glands does a goat have?
2. The cow has 4 and the horse also has 2.
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What does isothenuria indicate?
Urine that has the same specific gravity as the plasma.
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What is the most common cause of urate bladder stones in a Sulcata tortoise?
Dehydration. Dehydration leads to crystallization of urates and causes bladder stone formation. Improper diet may also contribute.
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Cows, dogs, sheep, pigs, cats, goats, horses, and humans all have __ cervical vertebrae.
7
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What is the name of the reflective layer behind the retina that allows animals to have improved night vision?
The tapetum. The tapetum reflects light back through the retina, increasing light available to photoreceptors. (Pigs don't have a tapetum)
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Determination of adequate passive transfer of maternal antibodies (IgG) to a neonatal foal is typically performed at what age?
18-24 hrs
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What structure in the eye is responsible for focus?
Lens. The lens helps to refract light to be focused on the retina. By changing its shape, it changes the focal distance.
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What is colic in a horse?
Abdominal pain that can be secondary to multiple etiologies
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Atopy
A disorder caused by a Type I hypersensitivity where chemical mediators are released from mast cells after encountering an antigen
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Type 1 is known as hypersensitivity and results from inflammatory mediators being released immediately after exposure to an antigen. Common examples are ___ and ___.
Atopy and anaphylaxis
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A horses heart rate should generally be which range?
25-50 beats per minute
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Where do heartworms live?
Most adult heartworms reside in the pulmonary arteries
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What does polyvalent mean when talking about a vaccine?
It contains multiple antigens. An example of this is the DHPPC-L vaccine. It contains antigens for distemper, hepatitis, parainfluenza, parvo, corona, and lepto.
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Which parasite is transmitted transplacentally to puppies?
Toxocara canis (roundworms) commonly infect puppies via the transplacental route
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What maintains the membrane potential in excitable cells
The sodium-potassium pump. The principal ions involved in an action potential are sodium and potassium cations. During depolarization, ion channels allow sodium to enter the cell, and potassium to leave the cell. The sodium-potassium pump helps to restore the normal resting membrane potential.
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How tall of a fence (minimum) would likely be required to keep goats confines?
6 feet. Most goats can jump or climb over a fence that is shorter than 6 feet.
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What does a goiter refer to?
An enlarged thyroid gland
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Which lymph nodes are not palpated peripherally?
The perihilar. These are above the heart in a triangular depression (hilum). (inside the chest)
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The movement of fluid from an area of lower solute concentration to an area of higher solute concentration across a semi-permeable membrane is called:
Osmosis
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A normal resp rate for a horse is:
8-20
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If an animal has puritis, what clinical signs would they be displaying?
Scratching. It could also be rubbing or head shaking depending on location of puritis.
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_____ is a parasite in horses which will infest the perineal region and result in perineal irritation after eggs are laid. A frequent diagnostic test performed when visualizing damaged perineal regions is a scotch tape preparation.
Oxyuris equi
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In tortises, the male or the female has a specially shaped shell?
The male. The plastron is concave in males.
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Canine distemper is very contagious and can be spread to which animal? (Which is why they are vaccinated against it)
Ferrets. They are very susceptible to the canine distemper virus. It's very contagious and has a high death rate.
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Scaly face, or scaly leg, a mite that can be treated with topical or oral ivermectin. The scientific name for this is:
Cnemidocoptes pilae
249
Fasciola hepatica (the common liver fluke, or sheep liver fluke) requires which intermediate host?
A snail!! It's typically found in wet environments where snails proliferate.
250
What type of diet should a cat or dog in renal failure be fed?
Low in phosphorous and protein. A low protein diet helps decrease the workload on the kidneys because the waste product of protein is urea, which is what the kidneys excrete. Since the kidneys are failing, the kidneys can't excrete it properly, so it builds up in the blood and causes the pet to feel sick. Same thing with phosphorus.
251
What is the normal rectal temperature for a horse?
99-101.5
Goats and sheep run a little warmer (102.3)
Then pigs (102.5)
Then rabbit (103.1)
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Harderian glands are associated with which part of the anatomy?
Eyes. (inner side of the orbit in reptiles and birds)
253
At what age should pigs be castrated?
5-14 days. They are castrated so young to ease handling.
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